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Introduction to Nursing > EXAM 2 > Flashcards

EXAM 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is IOMs 5 core competencies for heath care professionals?

A
  1. Provide patient centered care
  2. Work in interdisciplinary or interprofessional teams
  3. Employ evidence based practice
  4. Apply quality improvement
  5. Utilize informatics
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2
Q

This is a independent, not-for-profit organization that accredits hospitals

A

The joint commission (JCAHO)

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3
Q

What does TJC set as far as standards for hospitals?

A

They set high standards for hospitals to increase quality care

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4
Q

Hospitals are responsible for reporting data on their performance based on the:

A

National Quality Improvement Goals

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5
Q

What is The Joint Commissions’ (TJC) definition of Quality Improvement?

A

An approach to the continuous study and improvement of the process of providing health care services to meet the needs of patients and others and inform health care policy

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6
Q

What led to an increased awareness of U.S. medical errors?

A

a report issued in November 1999 by the U. S. Institute of Medicine (IOM)

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7
Q

__________ Americans die every year from medical errors

A

44,000 (could be as high as 98,000)

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8
Q

More people die from medication errors than:

A
  • MVA
  • Breast cancer
  • AIDS
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9
Q

What are serious problems with healthcare?

A
  • safety
  • quality
  • waste
  • inefficiency
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10
Q

This report focused on patient safety issues

A

To Err is human (1999)

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11
Q

This report focused on additional quality problems

A

Crossing the quality chasm (2001)

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12
Q

This report combined patient and nurse safety issues:

A

Keeping Patients Safe: Transforming the Work Environment for Nurses (2004)

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13
Q

What happens when errors occur and why is it so important?

A
  • increased cost for pt/hospital and insurance co.
  • decrease bonuses or incentives for nurses
  • decreased trust from pts
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14
Q

Medicare and medicaid will no longer pay for:

A
  • preventable complications
  • hospital acquired
    complications (HAC)
  • serious reportable events
    (SREs)
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15
Q

Use _________ to discuss safety and errors:

A

common language

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16
Q

We need to have ______ standards

A

data

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17
Q

What kind of systems should be in place?

A

reporting systems

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18
Q

The 8th leading cause of death in a hospital is:

A

medication errors

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19
Q

What is included on the official do not use lists for acronyms?

A
  • U/u (units)
  • IU (international unit)
  • QD (daily)
  • QOD (every other day)
  • Trailing zeros (write X mg)
  • MS (morphine sulfate)
  • MSO4 (magnesium sulfate)
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20
Q

What does “pc” mean?

A

after meals

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21
Q

What does “ac” mean?

A

before meals

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22
Q

What does “HS” mean?

A

hour sleep

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23
Q

What are some clinical safety terms?

A
  • Safety
  • Error
  • Adverse event (no allergies noted but pt breaks out in rash after medication; not fatal and not expected)/Side effect (less serious; unexpected side effect)
  • Misuse (pt allergic to medication but was given the medication)
  • Overuse (pt has been given too much of the medication or too many meds)
  • Underuse (pt doesn’t have insurance so a inferior medication is used)
  • Near miss (could have happened but was caught)
  • Sentinel event (an event that should not happen)
  • Root cause analysis (understanding what the real issue is)
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24
Q

The IOM recommends using _______ to evaluate why patients are harmed by medical care:

A

PSRS

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25
Q

What are other patient safety reporting systems that can be used?

A
  • PSN

- ICUSRS

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26
Q

What does the incident report system used at UTMB capture?

A
  • Adverse events
  • Near misses
  • Sentinel events
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27
Q

PSN reported data is ________ and _______

A

confidential; privileged

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28
Q

What questions are addressed during the root cause analysis matrix?

A
  • What happened?
  • Why did it happen?
  • What were the most proximate factors?
  • What systems & processes underlie those proximate factors?
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29
Q

What is the first step in the process of medication?

A

Health care provider prescribes the medication (enters order into computer)

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30
Q

What is the second step in the process of medication?

A

Order goes to pharmacy (errors can occur here)

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31
Q

What is the third step in the process of medication?

A

Pharmacist reviews/approves order & Phar Tech prepares the medication

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32
Q

What is the fourth step in the process of medication?

A

Pharm tech sends medication via pneumonic tub or delivers the medication to the patients medication bend or Pyxis

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33
Q

What is the fifth step in the process of medication?

A

Nurse reviews order and confirms validity before administering the medication

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34
Q

What is HCAPS?

A

hospital report card

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35
Q

What is quality improvement focused on?

A

improving work processes to improve patient outcomes and efficiency of health systems

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36
Q

The QI process begins at the:

A

staff level (magnet recognition program = the best of the best)

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37
Q

Quality improvement is a combination of:

A

QI and evidence based practice

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38
Q

What areas does QI analyze?

A
  • operational
  • quality
  • satisfaction
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39
Q

What can we do to improve the quality of patient care?

A
  • Look at the structure
  • Look at the process
  • Use various QI models/tools:
  • Evaluate the outcomes
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40
Q

What is the plan, do, study, act (PDSA) model?

A

good for an issue that you have time to study and plan for (not life threatening)

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41
Q

What is the rapid improvement event model (RIE)?

A

this issue must be addressed immediately, no time is available to study or analyze changes must be made ASAP

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42
Q

The “plan” phase of the PDSA model allows for:

A
  • capturing the problem or idea
  • planning what you will change and predict for what the impact will be
  • plan what information you will collect to measure whether the change has had an effect
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43
Q

The “do” phase of the PDSA model allows for:

A
  • trying out the change on a small scale

- collecting the information required to measure the change

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44
Q

The “act” phase of the PDSA model allows for:

A
  • standardizing your improvement
  • deciding whether to make further change
  • planning how to improve on the original change made
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45
Q

The “study” phase of the PDSA model allows for:

A
  • analyzing the information collected to understand the impact of the change
  • comparing your analysis with the predictions from the plan stage
  • summarizing what you have learned
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46
Q

How long does the RIE model allow you to fix the issue?

A

5 days

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47
Q

What are the team competency outcomes?

A
  • knowledge
  • attitude
  • performance
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48
Q

What does knowledge within a team embody?

A

A shared mental model

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49
Q

What does attitudes within a team embody?

A

Mutual trust and team orientation

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50
Q

What is the two way dynamic interplay?

A

Interaction between the outcomes and skills is the basis for the team

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51
Q

What does the team leader do?

A
  • Team Leader must be selected *
  • Coordinates activities
  • Share changes in information
  • Gather all necessary resources
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52
Q

What are the different team events that occur?

A
  • brief
  • huddle
  • debrief
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53
Q

What occurs during a brief?

A

A short planning session prior to start to:

  • discuss team formation
  • assign essential roles
  • establish expectations and climate
  • anticipate outcomes and contingencies
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54
Q

What is the aim of a huddle and what occurs during a huddle?

A
  • problem solving *
  • involves a ad hoc team to reestablish situation awareness
  • assessing the need to adjust the plan
  • reinforcing plans already in place
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55
Q

What occurs during a debrief?

A
  • process improvement

- improve team performance and effectiveness (after action review)

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56
Q

Example of a debrief would be:

A

after a code; assessing what went well and what areas could be improved to prepare for the next code

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57
Q

You should continue _________ what is happening within a team

A

scanning and assessing

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58
Q

What is a shared mental model?

A

Where all team members are on the same page

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59
Q

What is cross monitoring?

A

An error reduction strategy

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60
Q

What are the components of STEP?

A
  • Status of patient
  • Team members
  • Environment
  • Progress towards goal
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61
Q

What is the IM SAFE acronym used for?

A

used for nurses to keep themselves healthy

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62
Q

IM SAFE stands for:

A 
I - illness
M - medication
S - stress
A - alcohol and drugs
F - fatigue 
E - eating and elimination
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63
Q

What is the two challenge rule?

A

Where you can voice concern two times to ensure it has been heard
- The team member being challenged must acknowledge
- If outcome is not acceptable:
> take stronger course of
action (go up chain of
command)
- Empowerment (empowers both team members involved)

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64
Q

What is CUS?

A

It means STOP THE LINE if a safety breach is sensed or discovered:

  • I am concerned
  • I am uncomfortable
  • This is a safety issue
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65
Q

The DESC script is:

A

a constructive approach for

managing and resolving conflict

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66
Q

What does DESC stand for?

A

D: Describe the situation or behavior and provide data
E: Express your feelings or concerns
S: Suggest other alternatives and seek agreement
C: Consequences on team goals; strive for consensus

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67
Q

Collaboration is a:

A
  • mutual solution for the best outcome (WIN WIN WIN)
    > commitment to a
    common mission
  • meet goals without comprising relationships
    this is a process, not an event
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68
Q

What does SBAR stand for?

A
  • Situation (what is going on with the patient)
  • Background (what is the clinical background or context)
  • Assessment (what do I think the problem is)
  • Recommendation (what would I do to correct it)
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69
Q

What is call out?

A

a communication tool used to communicate critical information

  • informs team members simultaneously during emergent situations
  • helps anticipate next steps
  • directs responsibility to a specific individual
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70
Q

What is check back?

A

Process of employing closed loop communication to ensure that information conveyed by the sender is understood by the receiver as intended

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71
Q

What is a handoff?

A

Strategy designed to enhance information exchange during transitions in care (transfer of information) allowing for the opportunity to ask questions, clarify, and confirm

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72
Q

What are the components of a handoff?

A
  • I PASS THE BATON*
  • Introduction (introduce yourself, your role/job and pt)
  • Patient (name, DOB, sex, loc)
  • Assessment (chief complaint, VS, s/sx, dx)
  • Situation (current status, code status, response to tx, etc)
  • Safety concerns (critical lab values, allergies, alerts)
  • Background (family history, co-morbidities, etc)
  • Actions (actions taken and why)
  • Timing (level of urgency/prioritization of actions)
  • Ownership (who is responsible for pt including family)
  • Next (anticipated changes, what is the plan)
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73
Q

TeamSTEPPS is comprised of four teachable-learnable

skills:

A
  • Leadership
  • Situation Monitoring
  • Mutual Support
  • Communication
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74
Q

Delineates fundamentals such as team size, membership, leadership, composition,
identification and distribution

A

team structure

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75
Q

Ability to coordinate the activities of team members by ensuring team actions are understood, changes in information are shared, and that team members have the
necessary resources

A

leadership

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76
Q

Process of actively scanning and assessing situational elements to gain information, understanding, or maintain awareness to support functioning of the team

A

situation monitoring

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77
Q

Ability to anticipate and support other team
members’ needs through accurate knowledge
about their responsibilities and workload

A

mutual support

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78
Q

Process by which information is clearly and accurately exchanged among team members

A

communication

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79
Q

This is a tool for monitoring situations in the delivery of health care

A

STEP

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80
Q

Team members protect

each other from ________:

A

work overload situations

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81
Q

Effective teams place all
offers and requests for
assistance in the context of

A

patient safety

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82
Q

Team members foster a
climate where it is expected
that assistance will be
actively __________

A

sought and offered

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83
Q

What is feedback?

A

Information provided for the purpose of improving team performance

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84
Q

Feedback should be:

A

 Timely – given soon after the
target behavior has occurred
 Respectful – focus on behaviors, not personal attributes
 Specific – be specific about what behaviors need correcting
 Directed towards improvement – provide directions for future
improvement
 Considerate – consider a team member’s feelings and deliver negative information with fairness and respect

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85
Q

Assert a corrective action in a

firm and respectful manner by:

A
  • Making an opening
  • Stating the concern
  • Offering a solution
  • Obtaining an agreement
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86
Q

A technique for communicating critical information that requires immediate attention and action concerning a patient’s condition

A

SBAR

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87
Q 
This example of an incoming trauma is:
Leader: “Airway status?”
Resident: “Airway clear”
Leader: “Breath sounds?”
Resident: “Breath sounds
decreased on right”
Leader: “Blood pressure?”
Nurse: “BP is 96/62”
A

call out

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88
Q

What are the steps of a check back?

A
  1. Sender initiates the message
  2. Receiver accepts the message and
    provides feedback
  3. Sender double-checks to ensure that
    the message was received
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89
Q

Doctor: “Give 25 mg Benadryl IV push”
Nurse: “25 mg Benadryl IV push”
Doctor: “That’s correct”

This is an example of a:

A

check back

90
Q

What are some examples of transitions in care?

A
  • shift changes
  • physicians transferring complete responsibility
  • patient transfers
91
Q

Who creates the national patient safety goals?

A

TJC (revised every year)

92
Q

How can we improve staff communication?

A

By reporting critical results of tests and diagnostic procedures in a timely manner

93
Q

The hospital should have written procedures regarding:

A
  • The definition of critical results
  • By whom and to whom results should be reported
  • Acceptable length of time between availability & reporting of results
94
Q

When communicating SBAR, you must communicate:

A
  • who you are?
  • what unit you are on?
  • who is the patient?
  • give OBJECTIVE data *
95
Q

When recording/documents medicines that patients are taking, you should:

A
  • Compare new medicines to medicines patients taking now
  • Patient education regarding medicines the patient should take at home
  • Patient education regarding bringing up to date medicines at their visit
96
Q

What is alarm fatigue (unsafe issue when looking at alarms)?

A

When the nurses have various alarms going off (NEVER SILENCE THEM OR TURN THEM OFF)

97
Q

What organization requires employers to provide appropriate PPE for workers who could be exposed to blood or other infectious materials?

A

OSHA

98
Q

What are the different types of precautions?

A
  • Standard Precautions
  • Contact Precautions
  • Extended Contract Precautions
  • Respiratory/Droplet Precautions
  • Airborne Precautions
  • Protective environment
99
Q

What medical conditions fall under contact isolation?

A
  • MRSA
  • Major wound infections with drainage
  • Herpes simplex
  • Scabies
  • Varicella zoster
100
Q

Wha PPE should be worn under contact isolation?

A
  • clean gloves

- clean gown

101
Q

Under extended contact isolation, how must you wash your hands?

A

for 20-30 seconds before/after pt contact

102
Q

What conditions fall under extended precautions?

A
  • C. Diff
  • Bacillus anthracis
  • Norovirus
103
Q

What are some causes of C. Diff?

A
  • Spore forming organism
  • Antibiotics
  • Exposure
104
Q

What are some s/sx of C. Diff?

A
  • Diarrhea (mild to colitis)

- Distinct odor

105
Q

What is the size of airborne droplets?

A

small droplets (3-5 microns)

106
Q

What conditions fall under airborne precautions?

A
  • TB
  • Chicken pox (varicella)
  • Measles (rubella)
107
Q

Airborne precaution patients must be:

A

in a negative pressure room

108
Q

Wha PPE should be worn under airborne isolation?

A
  • fitted N95
  • gloves (MMR)
  • gowns (MMR)
109
Q

What is the size of droplet precaution droplets?

A

large droplets (> 5 microns)

110
Q

What conditions fall under droplet precautions?

A
  • flu

- bacterial meningitis

111
Q

Wha PPE should be worn under droplet isolation?

A
  • surgical mask if < 3 ft from the pt
112
Q

How do you donn PPE?

A
  • gather PPE and perform hand hygiene *
  • gown
  • mask
  • goggles
  • gloves
113
Q

How do you doff PPE?

A
  • gloves
  • gown
  • goggles
  • mask
114
Q

What are some multidrug resistant organisms?

A
  • Methicillin resistant
  • Staphylococcus aureas (MRSA)
  • Clostridium difficile (C diff)
  • Vancomycin resistant
    enterococci (VRE)
  • Carbapenem resistant
    enterobacteriaceae (CRE)
115
Q

Foley goes on the bed ______ not the bed _______

A

frame; rail

116
Q

What diseases can be transmitted from a needle stick?

A
  • Hep B and C

- HIV

117
Q

The braden scale is in regards to bed sores and on the braden scale, the lower the number:

A

the greater the risk

118
Q

The braden scale covers:

A
  • Sensory perception
  • Moisture
  • Physical activity
  • Mobility
  • Nutrition
  • Friction & Shear
119
Q

A score of <10 on a braden scale is:

A

very high risk

120
Q

A score of 10-12 on a braden scale is:

A

high risk

121
Q

A score of 13-14 on a braden scale is:

A

moderate risk

122
Q

A score of 15-18 on a braden scale is:

A

mild risk

123
Q

A score of 18+ on a braden scale is:

A

low risk

124
Q

Where is the most likely spot for a bed sore?

A

buttocks (occipital bone)
heels
elbows

125
Q

What are the risk factors for bed sores?

A
  • Impaired sensory perception
  • Impaired mobility
  • Alteration in level of consciousness (LOC)
  • Shear
  • Friction
  • Moisture
126
Q

What are the pressure ulcer stages?

A

Stage I: Intact skin-non blanchable redness

Stage II: Partial thickness and skin loss (epi, dermis or both)

Stage III: Full thickness and skin loss with visible fat and tunneling may be present

Stage IV: Full thickness and skin loss with exposed bone, tendon and muscle

Unstageable: Full thickness with skin loss, slough and eschar

127
Q

How often should you turn bed bound patients?

A

every 2 hours

128
Q

Obtain an _________to redistribute the pressure over bony prominences

A

air mattress

129
Q

Significant percentage of injuries in the hospital, nursing care centers, & at home related to _____

A

falls

130
Q

How can we reduce the risk for falls?

A
  • Implement fall risk reduction methods

- Referral to physical therapy for assessment & possible therapy

131
Q

What is the morse fall scale variables?

A
  • history of falls
  • secondary diagnosis
  • ambulatory aid
  • IV or IV access
  • gait
  • mental status
  • high risk fall is a higher number *
132
Q

A score of 0-24 on a morse fall scale means:

A

no risk for falls

133
Q

A score of 25-45 on a morse fall scale means:

A

low to moderate risk for falls

implement standard fall interventions

134
Q

A score of 46+ on a morse fall scale means:

A

high risk implement high risk fall precautions

135
Q

When is fall risk assessment done?

A

on admission and it does not change unless someone just had surgery and was given morphine

136
Q

The single greatest risk for overexertion injuries in healthcare workers is the:

A
  • manual lifting
  • moving and repositioning of patients
  • residents or clients (manual patient handling)
137
Q

________ refers to the design of work tasks to best suit the capabilities of workers. In the case of patient handling, it involves the use of mechanical equipment and safety procedures to lift and move patients so that health care workers can avoid using manual exertions and thereby reduce their risk of injury.At the same time, patient handling ergonomics seeks to maximize the safety and comfort of patients during handling.

A

ergonomics

138
Q

What is the number one incivility in nursing?

A

nurse bullying

139
Q

The needs theory (Virginia Henderson):

A

assist the patient with activities until they recover or die

140
Q

The self-care theory (Dorothea Orem):

A

the nurse prescribes and regulates the nursing system based on the patients self-care deficit

141
Q

Roys adaptation model (Sister Callista Roy):

A

nursing as a humanistic discipline that emphasizes the persons adaptive or coping abilities

142
Q

Transcultural nursing (Madeline Leininger):

A

viewed cultural differences and healthcare practices

143
Q

Healthy People 2020 vision is:

A

A society in which all people live long, healthy

144
Q

What is holistic healthcare?

A
  • Patient centered care

- Mind, Body, and Spirit

145
Q

What does QSEN stand for?

A

Quality and Safety Education for Nurses

146
Q

Health is a state of complete:

A

Mental, Physical, and Social Wellbeing

147
Q

How is health and wellness measured globally?

A

by morbidity and mortality

148
Q

______ is how frequent the disease occurs

A

morbidity

149
Q

______ is the number of deaths from a disease

A

mortality

150
Q

______ is the active state of being healthy

A

wellness

151
Q

The Dunns’ Model includes:

A
  • Being
  • Belonging
  • Becoming
  • Befitting
152
Q

______ is the pathological changes to the structure or function of the body or mind:

A

Disease

153
Q

_______ is the response of a person to the disease.

A

illness

154
Q

What is illness and disease influenced by?

A
  • self-perceptions
  • others perceptions
  • culture
  • spiritual values and beliefs
155
Q

This illness has a rapid onset and lasts a short time

A

acute illness

156
Q

Chronic illness causes at least one or more of the following:

A
  • Permanent change
  • Causes or is caused by irreversible alterations in normal A&P
  • Requires special patient education for rehabilitation
  • Requires a long period of care and support
  • Remission and exacerbation
157
Q

What are the stages of illness behaviors?

A

Stage 1: Experiencing symptoms: Symptoms incompatible of ones own personal definition of health
Stage 2: Assuming the sick role: Defining oneself as sick
Stage 3: Assuming the dependent role: Accepting the diagnosis and treatment plan
Stage 4: Achieving recovery and rehabilitation
* family *

158
Q

What is health equity?

A

Attainment of the highest level of health for everyone

159
Q

What is health disparity?

A

Health difference closely linked to social, economic and or environmental disadvantage (vulnerable populations)

160
Q

What are the social determinants of health?

A

Environment in which people are born, live, learn, worship, work, Play and age

161
Q

What are things a person can change considered as?

A

modifiable

162
Q

What things are considered nonmodifiable?

A

family history

163
Q

_________ is behavior that exhibits a personal desire to increase well-being and health potential

A

health promotion

164
Q

Primary health promotion is:
Secondary health promotion is:
Tertiary health promotion is:

A
  1. prevention
  2. screening
  3. after the diagnosis with goal of rehabilitating to maximum level of function
165
Q

The health belief model consist of:

A
  • Perceived susceptibility to a disease
  • Perceived seriousness of a disease
  • Perceived benefits of action
  • Self efficacy
166
Q

The stages of the change model helps with:

A

addictions

167
Q

________ is not thinking of a change; 4 r’s reluctance, rebellion, resignation, and rationalization

A

Precontemplation

168
Q

_______ is starting to think about change

A

Contemplation

169
Q

Determination/Commitment to action means:

A

a decision is made to change

170
Q

________ is coexistence of different ethnic, biological sex, racial, socioeconomic groups within one social unit

A

Cultural Diversity

171
Q

______ enables nurses to deliver care that is respectful and responsive to health beliefs, practices and linguistic needs of diverse patients. Critical to reducing health disparities and improving access to high quality health care

A

Cultural Respect

172
Q

_______ is a shared system of beliefs, values, and behavioral expectations that provides a social structure for daily living.

A

Culture

173
Q

_______ nursing is a subculture of a large health system culture

A

subculture

174
Q

_____ when a culture migrates to a more dominant culture they may take on the culture of the dominant group

A

Cultural Assimilation

175
Q

______ occurs when an individual is placed in a different culture that seem strange

A

Culture Shock

176
Q

_____ is identification with a collective culture group based on heritage

A

Ethnicity

177
Q

______ is based on physical characteristics

A

Race

178
Q

What factors inhibit sensitivity?

A
  • stereotyping
  • cultural imposition
  • cultural blindness
  • culture conflict
  • culture bias
179
Q

____ is the belief that everyone should conform to your belief system

A

Cultural Imposition

180
Q

_____Ignores differences and proceeds as if they don’t exist

A

Cultural Blindness

181
Q

______ Occurs when people recognize the differences and ridicule others belief to make themselves more secure

A

Cultural Conflict

182
Q

______ is judging others that are different from one’s own beliefs

A

Cultural Bias

183
Q

______ Some ethnic groups are more prone to specific diseases

A

Physiologic Variations

184
Q

_____ predicts the response to pain

A

Culture

185
Q

Some ethnic groups do not believe in:

A

mental health issues

186
Q

What are some cultural influences on healthcare?

A
  • Food and Nutrition
  • Family Support
  • Socioeconomic factors
  • Health Disparities
187
Q

______ is caused by dangerous agents:

A

natural illnesses

188
Q

______ is caused by failure to follow Gods rules

A

Unnatural illnesses

189
Q

In _______ care is sensitive to the needs of the individual

A

Cultural Competence

190
Q

What does the ESFT model stand for?

A
  • Explanatory Model of health and illness
  • Social and environmental factors
  • Fears and Concerns
  • Therapeutic contracting
191
Q

Why should nurses use the ESFT model?

A

to improve outcomes

192
Q

______ is belief that one’s own beliefs are superior

A

Ethnocentrisms

193
Q

Nursing knowledge is based on which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

A
  • nursing research

- discipline-specific research

194
Q

The horizontal bars of patient-centered care, interdisciplinary collaboration, evidence-based practice, quality improvement, informatics and safety in the ATI Helix of Success were significantly influenced by which of the following?

A

Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN)

195
Q

The ability to predict client needs and anticipate changes in the health status of a client stems from knowledge of which of the following topics?

A

Physiology and pathophysiology

196
Q

Match the learning strategies in the right column with its appropriate style of learning in the left column. In the space provided, place the letter that corresponds to the correct number. Note each style will be matched to two strategies. Click “Submit” when all the blanks are filled in.

A 
Visual learner: 
- place info. on a timeline 
- organize notes in an outline
Auditory learner: 
- use a tape recorder in class
- create songs or mnemonics 
Tactile learner: 
- practice skills in nursing lab
- develop models or displays
197
Q

List and describe the five steps that should be taken to improve reading comprehension and retention.

A
  1. skim
  2. actively read
  3. ask questions
  4. stop and think
  5. periodically review
198
Q

Which of the following are essential strategies to effectively manage time? (Select all that apply.)

A
  • Develop a written or electronic schedule.
  • Allow time for personal rewards.
  • Study at regular intervals.
199
Q

Foundational knowledge is represented by which of the following types of thinking? (Select all that apply.)

A
  • recall

- comprehension

200
Q

Which of the following statements describe what clinical judgment is?

A

The decision made regarding the course of action a nurse will take to solve a client problem.

201
Q

Clinical reasoning requires the nurse to be able to do which of the following?

A

Separate relevant from irrelevant data.

202
Q

A beginning student nurse is providing client-centered care for an adolescent who was admitted for tests to determine if he has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A

“I will keep my communication with the client to a minimum.”

203
Q

An advanced student nurse assigned to clinical in a rehabilitation setting is preparing to participate in a team meeting. Which of the following statements by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

A

“The provider will not be at the meeting because she is not a member of the interdisciplinary team.”

204
Q

A student is developing a plan of care for a client who has been diagnosed with cancer of the pancreas. Which of the following would be an appropriate resource to use in the development of an evidence-based plan of care?

A
  • CINAHL
  • MedlinePlus
  • OVID
205
Q

Process of planning improvement strategies, implementation of those strategies, analyzing the impact of the strategies, and making changes to strategies as needed.

A

PDSA cycle

206
Q

The procedure of reviewing the standards that are followed in the delivery of care.

A

Process audit

207
Q

Evaluation or measurements of the impact environmental resources and influences have on the provision of care.

A

Structure audit

208
Q

Analysis of the actual result, or impact, of delivered care.

A

Outcome audit

209
Q

Performed in response to a sentinel event by collecting and analyzing related data, and outlining corrective actions.

A

Root cause analysis

210
Q

Which of the following are client attributes that impact safety? (Select all that apply.)

A
  • lifestyle choices
  • communication patterns
  • cognitive awareness
211
Q

Web-based information should be evaluated for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

A
  • accuracy
  • sponsorships
  • currency
212
Q

The use of intellectual skills to impart new knowledge to an individual.

A

Cognitive

213
Q

Characterized by a shift or change in attitudes or beliefs.

A

Affective

214
Q

Integrates mental and physical activities in the acquisition of new skills.

A

Psychomotor

215
Q

A nurse is making rounds on clients, who were assigned to a team of nurses, to determine if charting and client care was completed. This nurse is demonstrating which leadership role of the nurse?

A

Coordinator

216
Q

Giving priority in the following order to a client experiencing an alteration in airway status, breathing pattern, or circulatory status.

A

ABC

217
Q

Giving priority to nursing actions that focus on collection of assessment data.

A

Nursing process

218
Q

Giving priority to clients in a resource-limited setting who are severely injured but could live if supportive care is provided

A

Survival potential

219
Q

Giving priority to interventions that prevent a client from becoming injured.

A

Safety and risk reduction

220
Q

Giving priority to interventions that protect a client by using the most effective and least confining measures possible.

A

Least restrictive

Introduction to Nursing (1 decks)

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