Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

how to identify the fragment of interest in a DNA gel extraction

A

Place gel on a light box appropriate for the dye used. Avoid exposing DNA to mutagenic radiation for longer than necessary (UV for EtBr).

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2
Q

how to isolate a DNA band from a gel

A

Physically remove DNA band of interest with a razor blade. minimize the amount of gel around the band that is excised

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3
Q

how to clean up an isolated DNA band via electroelution

A

recover DNA fragments from a particular region of agarose or polyacrylamide gel. The gel piece is placed in a dialysis bag with buffer. Electrophoresis causes DNA to migrate out of the gel into the dialysis bag buffer. Recover fragments and purify using phenol/chloroform extraction followed by ethanol precipitation

simple, rapid, high yield method

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4
Q

how to clean up isolated DNA fragment via spin column extraction

A

Dissolution of gel slice at 50 C. DNA adsorption on silica membrane or beads in high salt buffer. Ethanol washes salt and impurities out of column, DNA remains bound. Low salt solution or pure water displaces DNA (elution)

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5
Q

how to clean up an isolated DNA fragment via enzymatic method

A

Agarase enzyme digests agarose polysaccharide core. Use low melting point agarose to make the gel so you can melt gel at 70 C. Then transfer to 45 C and add enzyme.
DNA can be used directly in many applications without need for further purification

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6
Q

other methods of clean up after gel extraction

A

E-Gel CloneWell: gel has two rows of wells. insert sample in top well, run until desired fragment is in bottom well, remove from bottom well.

Automated Gel Purification: machine does a very precise extraction. expensive

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7
Q

why is it important to avoid excessive UV exposure when visualizing a gel?

A

DNA is damaged rapidly by UV radiation. EtBr dye is visualized under a UV light, but exposure for over 30 seconds fatally damages most DNA. SYBRSafe is a good alternative to EtBr because it is visualized under blue light which is not harmful at all.

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8
Q

biological functions of ligases

A

Lagging strand DNA synthesis
genetic recombination
DNA repair

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9
Q

Ligation reaction components

A
Buffer: ATP (energy, don't freeze-thaw too much!), DTT (antioxidant), BSA (stabilizer), Mg2+ (enzyme cofactor)
Plasmid
Insert
DNase-free water
T4 DNA Ligase (packaged in 50% glycerol)
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10
Q

explain ligation in sticky vs blunt ends

A

sticky ends: have complementary overhangs which make ligation efficient
blunt ends: no overhangs or complementarity. ligation is inefficient and needs high concentration of ligase and DNA. molecular crowding agents like PEG 8000 can improve intermolecular ligation

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11
Q

intra- vs inter- molecular ligation

A

intramolecular ligation: within the same molecule (circularization). favored by LOW concentrations of ends. length of molecule is inversely proportional to frequency of ligation

intermolecular ligation: occur between different molecules. dependent on concentration of ends (not plasmid:insert ratio). favored by INCREASE in concentration of ends

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12
Q

explain the results of different concentrations of ends and insert:vector ratios

A

Very high end concentrations causes concatamers. If insert:vector ratio is high, concatamers of inserts form and vice versa, equal ratio forms plasmid insert concatamer

Very low end concentrations has bad success rate. If high i:v ratio, few colonies have plasmid and none have insert. If i:v low, lots of colonies with plasmid but no insert. If equal, some colonies with plasmid but not insert

Medium end concentration with high i:v has highest product yield when plasmid is dephosphorylated. With low i:v plasmid dimers or recircularizep plasmids form. With equal i:v there’s a 50% chance of correct ligation and highest yield of product

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13
Q

What is Calf Intestinal Alkaline Phosphatase

A

CIP dephosphorylates 5’ phosphate groups from DNA, RNA, and ribo/deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates. Effect is that DNA cannot self ligate after CIP treatment. This reduces vector background noise and favors clone insert

replaces phosphate with OH group, no phosphodiester linkage can form with self. insert is still phosphorylated so it can form linkage with plasmid (result NICKED circle)

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14
Q

How to calculate ligation reaction concentrations and volumes

A

i = ratio (insert length bp / plasmid length bp) p
This equation gives an answer of insert = #plasmid. Then you can substitute this equation for i in the equation
i + p = total DNA needed (calculated from reaction volume x total DNA concentration)
to get #p + p = total DNA
solve for p to get ng of plasmid needed. use p to solve for ng of insert needed.
finally, use given plasmid and insert concentrations to calculate volumes in µl

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15
Q

how to use linkers in cloning

A

use ligase to add linker molecules (containing restriction sites) to your DNA insert. then cut at the restriction sites and insert into a vector with complementary overhangs.

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16
Q

how to use adaptors in cloning

A

ligate double stranded cDNA with adaptor molecule (short sequence with one blunt end and one sticky end lacking the phosphate) so the blunt ends join together. remove unligated stuff and dimer adaptors. phosphorylate the adaptor-ligated cDNA with a kinase. ligate cDNA to a vector with an overhang complementary to the adaptor

advantage is you do not need to treat the adaptor modified DNA with restriction enzyme

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17
Q

explain genomic DNA libraries

A

how to make: isolate DNA from cells. digest with REs, nucleases, or mechanically. ligate into vectors and insert into bacteria to amplify. isolate the DNA to form a collection of genomic DNA library.

potentially includes entire genome of the organism and is large and complex. expression is difficult due to introns and possible lack of entire gene. can use any vector type. good to pull out non-expressed sequences (promoters, intons, etc)

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18
Q

explain cDNA libaries

A

how to make: isolate mRNA and reverse transcribe into cDNA. digest with REs and ligate into vectors. insert into bacteria for amplification and then isolate the DNA for a collection of cDNA library.

includes only the mature mRNA sequences of genes expressed in source tissue. fewer clones, but only the most important sequences. proteins can be readily expressed. clones are small, so use vectors like lambda, plasmid, or cosmid/fosmid.

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19
Q

types of polymerase for PCR

A

non-proofreading:
Taq. lacks 3 - 5 exonuclease activity. results in a single nucleotide overhang, usually A, which can be cloned into T vectors.

proofreading:
results in blunt ends and must be cloned into a blunt ended vector or needs a single A overhang to ligate into a T vector

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20
Q

advantages and disadvantages of TA cloning

A

utilizes the unpaired A residue produced by non proofreading DNA polymerase to pair with a linear T vector
Advantage: universal, speed, lack of dependence on REs
Disadvantage: no directionality. must pick and analyze several closes when orientation is needed

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21
Q

how to make a T vector

A
  1. digest a vector with a restriction enzyme that generates an unpaired 3’ T residue
  2. use terminal transferase and ddTTP to add a single T residue to the 3’ termini of vector
  3. use template independent terminal transferase activity of Taq polymerase to add a T residue to the terminal 3’ end. if only dTTP is present, it will add it instead of an A residue
  4. purchase a ready made T vector
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22
Q

describe TOPO TA cloning

A

utilizes topoisomerase of vaccinia virus which relaxes DNA supercoils by transient breaks in one DNA strand. cleavage occurs with high specificity. nicking of the DNA occurs as a result. Because of conserved bond energy, the reaction is readily reversible and the phosphotyrosyl-DNA intermediate can:

catalyze reformation of the original duplex or
create a recombinant DNA by forming a phosphodiester bond

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23
Q

how to clone blunt ends made by proofreading polymerases

A

TOPO blunt-end cloning. Same process as TOPO TA cloning. The topoisomerase cleaves and then allows for new bond formation. primers are made with no 5’ phosphate so if plasmid is also lacking the 5’ phosphate nothing will happen, make sure to order primer with 5’ phosphate or add one

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24
Q

describe In-Fusion (Clontech) cloning

A

a recombination-mediated technique for cloning any PCR product into any vector. design primers with an extra 15 bp at the 5’ end that matches the position in the vector where you want to clone the PCR product. Both ends of the PCR product need the matching sequence. With the added vector complement sequence, it’s easy to get the desired construct in a reaction with the In-Fusion enzyme.

Can be used to clone in multiple fragments at the same time

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25
Q

how to fix reading frame problems via PCR

A

carefully design PCR primers to yield desired RF. plan cloning strategy from the beginning for desired clone. Add or subtract nucleotides from 5’ ends of primers. instead of cutting gene out with REs, amplify by PCR and add RE sites to primers for cloning.

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26
Q

explain ampicillin and resistance

A

ampicillin is a B-lactam antibiotic that interferes with bacterial cell wall synthesis (B-lactam is part of cell wall)

B-lactamase is an enzyme that breaks the B-lactam ring of the antibiotic and nullifies the antibiotics effects

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27
Q

explain kanamycin

A

interact with 30S subunit of bacterial ribosomes and induces high levels of mistranslation, indirectly inhibiting translocation during protein synthesis

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28
Q

define transformation

A

the genetic alteration of a cell (bacteria) caused by the uptake of foreign DNA

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29
Q

what is the barrier that must be overcome for transformation occur

A

the hydrophobic interior of the phospholipid bilayer of cell membranes prevent polar molecules (DNA) from passing through the membrane. We need a way to get our foreign DNA inside the cell (heat shock/chemical or electroporation)

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30
Q

how to make cells chemically competent

A
  1. wash in NaCl - remove ions and contaminants
  2. CaCl2 added - makes membranes more permeable
  3. Glycerol added - allows cells to be frozen, preserved in cryostatic state

can also buy competent cells

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31
Q

Heat shock procedure

A

Keep cells cold! Don’t mix vigorously (even pipetting up and down too much)!

Chill cells on ice (DNA binds to cells)
Heat to 42 C to make membrane fluid, porous, allowing DNA into cell
Chill on ice again
Add SOC medium with no antibiotic. grow 30-60 minutes. gives cells time to grow and produce resistance proteins
Plate on selective media plate

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32
Q

electroporation procedure

A

Close 1st switch: capacitor charges up and stores a high voltage
Close 2nd switch: voltage is discharged through cell suspension liquid
A typical pulse is 10,000 to 100,000 V/cm lasting a few microseconds to a millisecond
Temporary aqueous pores are formed by the disturbance of the phospholipid bilayer caused by the electric shock and charged DNA molecules are driven across the membrane by increase in electrical potential of the cell membrane

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33
Q

Review the lac operon transcription mech

A

LacI gene encodes a repressor. If no lactose is present, the repressor will bind the lacZ operator and block transcription. If lactose is present, allolactose will bind the repressor and stop it from blocking the operator. Transcription occurs and B-Galactosidase, permease, and transacetylase are made.

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34
Q

explain alpha complementation in the lac operon

A

Two fragments of B galactosidase are synthesized:
1. host strain makes inactive C terminal fragment called Omega fragment
2. pUC plasmid makes inactive N terminal fragment called Alpha fragment (This is because pUC plasmids have a size limit of what they can handle, so only part of the lacZ gene fits)
When both fragments are present, B galactosidase activity is observed.

35
Q

explain blue white screening

A

B galactosidase produced by the lac operon cleaves X-gal to galactose and an insoluble blue product (blue colonies). If the MCS is inside the lac operon and DNA is inserted, the lacZ gene is disrupted and B galactosidase is not produced, X-gal is not cleaved and colonies are white

36
Q

what are satellite colonies

A

colonies that contain no plasmid but grow on ampicillin plates because of secretion of B lactase from plasmid colonies. occurs when you overgrow your colonies (16 hours max)

37
Q

review the steps in alkaline lysis (explain what ingredients are for in each step!)

A
  1. cell growth and harvesting: pick colony and grow in liquid culture, incubate overnight (shaking), pellet cells, and decant medium to dry
  2. Resusupension: add solution with glucose (osmotic pressure), Tris (pH), and EDTA (destabilize membrane, deactivate DNAses)
  3. Lysis: add solution with SDS (solubize membrane, denature proteins) and NaOH (break cell wall, denature dsDNA to ssDNA)
  4. Neutralization: add solution with acetic acid (neutral pH, renature DNA) and potassium acetate (precipitates SDS, debris, and chromosomal DNA)
  5. Cleaning and concentration: phenol chloroform extraction to remove debris and ethanol to precipitate. resuspend in TE buffer
38
Q

why is it important to remove all traces of medium when performing prepping for alkaline lysis?

A

cell wall components remaining in supernatant may inhibit restriction enzyme action on DNA downstream, so remove as much medium as possible

39
Q

Why are alkaline conditions important in lysis?

A

alkaline conditions denature DNA. The neutralization step in lysis adds alkaline conditions because then genomic DNA can’t renature, but plasmids CAN because they never fully separate

40
Q

describe phenol:chloroform extraction

A

Good general purpose method to clean up DNA/RNA
1. Add 1 volume phenol:chloroform:isoamyl alcohol and vortex
2. centrifuge
3. remove aqueous layer
4. ethanol precipitate
DNA is in the top layer. Proteins will be denatured by the phenol and will be in the organic phase (bottom layer) or white interface

41
Q

describe alcohol precipitation

A

DNA/RNA will precipitate in ethanol or isopropyl alcohol if salt is high. good general purpose method to clean or concentrate DNA/RNA

  1. add 1/10 volume salt
  2. add 2 - 2.5 volumes EtOH or 1 volume IPA
  3. vortex and incubate 5 mins, cold helps
  4. centrifuge 5-10 minutes or longer
  5. remove supernatant
  6. wash with 70% ethanol and centrifuge 5 mins
  7. remove supernatant
  8. dry until no EtOH is visible and resuspend
42
Q

describe column based miniprep

A

resuspend and lyse according to normal protocol. Neutralize with chaotropic salt (guanidinium chloride) instead of potassium acetate, DNA is bound to silica column, wash and elute.
Columns are usually spun in a centrifuge, but many can be used on a vacuum manifold instead. Can also use anion exchange instead of silica (elute in high salt buffer) or magnetic beads coated in DNA binding material

43
Q

describe the Maxam-Gilbert Chemical Cleavage Method of sequencing

A

First widely adopted method, but rarely used now because it is not easily scaled and rather tedious. DNA is labeled and then chemically cleaved in a sequence dependent manner (such as cleaves at every A base) then you can run the fragments on a gel and get sequence from the fragment lengths

44
Q

describe the Sanger Dideoxy method for sequencing

A

popular, adaptable, and scalable.

  1. Primer anneals to ssDNA
  2. extend primer with DNA polymerase in presence of all four dNTPs, with a limited amount of a ddNTP
  3. DNA polymerase incorporates ddNTP in a template dependent manner, works best if DNA polymerase lacks proofreading. Reaction stops once ddNTP is added
45
Q

reaction components in Sanger sequencing

A
  1. DNA polymerase: processive, no 3 - 5 exonuclease activity
  2. Template DNA: single stranded DNA from recombinant bacteriophage or denatured dsDNA or non-denatured dsDNA (cycle sequencing)
  3. Primer: usually designed and purchased, sequence of the oligo designed to begin at a particular location. 15-30 bp length
  4. dNTPs
  5. ddNTPs
46
Q

What is cycle sequencing? Whats the advantage

A

Cycle sequencing: synthesis reaction (denaturation, annealing, extension) is repeated many times. don’t need lots of DNA and no denaturation prep necessary, but DNA pol may incorporate ddNTPs poorly

Like PCR but with one primer and not exponential (linear amplification e.g. 30 cycles is 30X synthesis)

Big advantage is that you don’t need to get ssDNA before sequencing.

47
Q

how to visualize DNA fragments in Sanger sequencing?

A

Radioactivity: radiolabel primers and radiolabel dNTPs. Four reactions needed, one for each nucleotide (same signal for all four nucleotides)

Fluorescence: ddNTPs made to contain fluors. Each ddNTP fluoresces at a different wavelength, so all four reactions can be run in the same tube

48
Q

how to analyze radiolabeled Sanger sequencing products

A

analyze with polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis. Must have good resolution of fragments differing be a single dNTP. Start reading sequence from the BOTTOM of the gel (shortest fragment to longest fragment)

Slab gels: ultra thin gel between two glass plats. Not common today

Capillary gels: require only a tiny amount of sample to be loaded, run fast, best for high throughput sequencing.

49
Q

how to analyze fluorescent labeled Sanger sequencing product

A

Two options: label the primer or the ddNTPs

  1. Primer labelled with a different color for each ddNTP reaction. four reactions, each with different ddNTP label, all loaded into the same lane
  2. Each ddNTP labelled with a different dye allows for one reaction and one lane
50
Q

how to read a chromatogram and why is separation worse with longer fragments?

A
slide 23 (look on canvas) for reading chromatogram
large fragments are harder for the machine to distinguish because the sizes are very similar. A 700 bp fragment is super close in size to a 701 bp fragment, where a 10 bp fragment is easily different from an 11 bp fragment. So at about 700 bp, separation is not as good. At about 1000 it is very bad.
51
Q

what is DNA foot printing or DNAse protection assay

A

identifies binding sites of DNA binding proteins. Labeled DNA fragment is partially digested by DNAse in presence of DNA binding protein. DNA is protected from cleavage in the area where protein is bound. Run on a gel: DNA digested with protein bound, DNA digesting without protein, and DNA sequencing reactions

Result: you can see a gap in fragment bands where the protein was bound. compare to sequence reaction for protein binding sequence

52
Q

what is primer extension

A

identifies 5’ end of transcribed RNA. Labeled primer is bound to mRNA molecule and then reverse transcribed to make a single length product, corresponding to the distance from the 5’ end of the transcript to the primer. Run on gel next to sequencing reactions with same primer.

Band lines up with the sequence band that is the 1st base in the 5’ end of the mRNA transcript

53
Q

brief history of cell culture

A

Wilhelm Roux: maintained a portion of chicken embryo in vitro
Ross Harrison: maintained embryonic frog neural crest fragments in a drop of coagulated frog lymph for several weeks. observed in vitro growth of nerve fibers
Rous & Jones: used trypsin to make unicellular suspensions
Carrel & Baker: T flasks and techniques for scale up of culture
Fischer: developed chemically defined medium (CMRL 1066)
John Enders: growth of virus in culture. Polio virus HPV
Harry Rage: developed Minimal Essential Medium (MEM) commonly used today

54
Q

structural things to note about animal cells in culture

A

10 to 100 microns in size and spherical shape in suspension. No cell wall. Plasma membrane is thin and fragile and shear sensitive. Surface is negatively charged and so is grown on positively charged surfaces

55
Q

What is transfection and why do it?

A

Introduction of foreign nucleic acids into mammalian cells in order to produce genetically altered cells.
Used to study:
Gene expression
Protein function
Cell function
Mark cells to follow migration, death, morphology, etc
Gene Therapy

56
Q

transient vs stable transfection

A

transient: DNA introduced into cell line generates a temporary but high level of gene expression. DNA is not integrated into genome. good method when large sample numbers need to be analyzed in short time
stable: establishes clonal cell lines where DNA is integrated ingot he cells genomic DNA. Target protein is synthesized in moderate amounts. Much lower efficiency, isolation is facilitated by selectable marker

57
Q

Controls that should be included in all transfections

A

Individual reagent controls
Plasmid DNA preparations
Toxicity of the gene or construct

58
Q

Transient expression controls

A

Negative: cells are transfected with carrier DNA and/or the buffer used to dilute plasmid or gene. Empty vectors in cells should result in cells not detaching from dish or becoming rounded and glassy. CHECKS FOR CONTAMINATION

Positive: cells are transfected with a plasmid encoding an assay product, like fluorescent protein. Need to be able to detect products and proteins. CHECK THAT INSERT IS GETTING INSIDE CELLS.

59
Q

Stable expression controls

A

Negative: cells transfected with an inert nucleic acid with no selectable marker. No colonies should be visible. CHECK THAT SELECTION PROCESS WORKS

Positive: cells transfected with empty plasmid encoding selectable marker. number of colonies after 2-3 week culture is measure of transfection efficiency. Large discrepancy between this control and the test plate could indicate toxic gene product.

60
Q

describe optimization considerations in transfections

A

Antibiotic concentration: generate kill curve to see best amount.

Cell type: diff cell lines vary in ability to take up and express DNA. Some conditions may work for one line but not another. Assess cell viability when optimizing cell type

61
Q

How to assess cell viability

A

Cytotoxic assay: number of dead cells
Viability assay: number of live cells
Total number of cells
Mechanism of cell death (apoptosis vs necrosis)
Indicators of cellular integrity: DNA content, enzyme activity, ATP amount, membrane integrity metabolic activity

62
Q

three categories of transfection methods

A

Biochemical methods: includes Calcium phosphate mediated, DEAE dextran, and cationic/lipsome

Physical methods: includes direct microinjection, electroporation, biolistic particle delivery, optical transfection, and hydrodynamic

Virus mediated

63
Q

what affects your choice of transfection method?

A

Whether gene expression or protein production is the desired end result
Cell type to be used
Ability of the cell to survive the stress of transfection
Type of assay to be used for screening
Culture Conditions
Nucleic acid to be transfected (DNA, RNA, siRNA, oligonucleotides)
Efficiency required of the system
Throughput needs

64
Q

Describe biochemical transfection methods

A

Calcium phosphate or DEAE dextran was historically popular. Lipid agents are commonly chosen now because:
high efficiency
ability to mediate transfection of all nucleic acids in a wide range of cell types
ease of use, reproducibility, and low toxicity
can mediate transfection of suspension cells

+ chemicals form complexes with - nucleic acids, attracted to - membrane, passes through membrane to nucleus

65
Q

pros and cons of biochemical methods of transfection

A

cons: low transfection efficiency, especially in vivo. efficiency depends on nucleic acid/chemical ratio, pH, and cell membrane conditions
pros: low cytotoxicity, no mutagenesis, no extra-carrying DNA, no size limitation

66
Q

Describe physical methods of transfection

A

consider with cell lines that are resistant to transfection by other means. often much harder on the cell
Direct microinjection: put nucleic acid directly into cell. demands skill, often causes cell death, and is very labor intensive
Biolistic particle delivery: gold particles conjugate with nucleic acids and are shot into cells at high velocity. straightforward and reliable, but expensive and cause damage
Electroporation: short electrical pulse disturbs membranes and make holes for nucleic acids to pass through. easy and rapid. can transfect large numbers of cells fast. highly efficient

67
Q

Describe virus mediated methods of transfection

A

TRANSDUCTION
high efficiency and easy to achieve trans gene expression in vivo because of integration of viral genome into host genome. effective on dissociated cells/slices
potential hazard to lab personnel, immunogenicity and cytotoxicity, insertional mutagenesis (random integration can alter host genes), small size of virus limits size of foreign gene

68
Q

general goals of genomic DNA purification

A

Removal of proteins, removal of RNA, isolation of a specific type of DNA, high final concentration, high molecular weight

more or less important depending on downstream application

69
Q

types of DNA and where they are found

A
Genomic: chromosomal
Organellar: eukaryotes only (mitochondria)
Plasmid: extra chromosomal
Phage/viral
cDNA: made from mRNA
70
Q

uses of genomic DNA

A

southern blotting
cloning
library construction
template for PCR (amplify region for research, genotyping, DNA fingerprinting)

71
Q

general features of ALL genomic DNA purification methods

A

Tissue disruption
Cell lysis
Protein denaturation/removal
DNA concentration

72
Q

describe tissue disruption

A

Can be difficult, so if only genomic DNA is needed choose a tissue that is easy to obtain and disrupt. Blood and cultured cells only require lysis, other tissues may need mechanical or enzymatic disruption.
Mechanical: blenders, shakers, pestles, etc break tissue to small pieces
Enzymatic: good for connective tissue. Proteinase K or Collagenase digest tissue

73
Q

notes about plant cell lysis

A

cell wall makes disruption more difficult. use mechanical disruption and boil in a solution with a Ca2+ chelator and detergent

74
Q

common cell lysis buffer components

A

Guanidinium thiocyanate: protein denaturant
Guanidinium chloride: protein denaturant
Detergents like SDS or Triton X-100: solubizes membranes and denatures protein (only SDS)
salt and pH buffer

75
Q

describe salting-out as a DNA extraction purification

A

proteins and other contaminants are precipitated with high concentrations of salt (potassium acetate or sodium acetate). highly variable purity and yield, but simple and fast

76
Q

describe organic extraction method of DNA purification

A

Phenol denatures and precipitates proteins, mix gently to avoid shearing DNA. remove aqueous top layer (contains DNA/RNA) and extract again with chloroform (removes phenol).

77
Q

describe lysis and sequestration method of DNA purification

A

Goal is to homogenize tissue in lysis buffer designed for downstream uses. Very simple methods, quick and inexpensive, but low purity. DNA may not be stable for long term storage and buffer components may not be compatible with downstream applications, requiring further purification

78
Q

describe adsorption method of DNA purification

A

Nucleic acids adsorb to silica or other resins in the presence of chaotropic agents or salts. Formats can include resins beads, centrifuge columns, and magnetic beads. DNA is eluted in a low salt buffer or water (removes chaotropic salt which allows DNA to fall off silica)

79
Q

describe anion exchange as DNA purification method

A

In a low salt buffer, DNA binds to the anion exchange column. Wash with a low salt buffer to remove impurities. Elute DNA off column with high salt buffer (replaces DNA on resin) and precipitate DNA with alcohol

80
Q

describe density gradient centrifugation as a DNA purification method.

A

DNA is mixed with EtBr and ultracentrifuged for hours in a gradient medium. DNA migrates to a defined location based on density. EtBr used to visualize. Desired band is removed

Most dense (lowest) to least dense (highest) in column: RNA, ssDNA, dsDNA, protein

81
Q

how is DNA precipitated? (ethanol)

A

DNA does not dissolve in alcohol. Salt allows DNA molecules to come together to aid precipitation in alcohol. Alcohol causes DNA to clump and precipitate as long, fluffy, web like strands. oxygen bubbles aggregate and lift DNA out of solution into organic phase

82
Q

how to extract chromosomes

A

block cells at metaphase and lyse gently

83
Q

procedure for high molecular weight genomic DNA purification

A

vortexing and pipetting break DNA into ~40,000 bp fragments, so must be very gentle if you want larger fragments

  1. Cell lysis: SDS and Proteinase K
  2. Phenol extraction with gentle rocking for several hours
  3. Ethanol precipitation
  4. RNAse followed by proteinase K
  5. Repeat phenol extraction and EtOH precipitation
84
Q

What is one extra substance that should be added when extracting plant DNA?

A

CTAB (a cationic detergent) to remove carbohydrates that interfere with downstream processes