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NCCPT > Exam > Flashcards

Exam Flashcards

1
Q

[S] What is/does PVT MT HILL stand for?

A

PVT MT HILL stands for the 9 essential amino acids

Phenylalanine, Valine, Threonine, Methionine, Tryptophan, Histidine, Isoleucine, Leucine, Lysine

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2
Q

[S] What percentage of our diets should be protein?

A

10-30%

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3
Q

[S] Most concentrated form of energy?

A

Fat

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4
Q

[S] What are the two key essential fatty acids?

A

Linoleic and Linolenic acids

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5
Q

[S] What percent of our diets should be fats?

A

20-35%

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6
Q

[S] What percent of our diets should be carbs?

A

45%-60%

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7
Q

[S] What is the most lbs of muscle one can gain in a week?

A

1 lbs of muscle

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8
Q

[S] What is the most lbs of fat on can loose in a week?

A

2 lbs of fat

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9
Q

[S] When it comes to stretching, which has the greatest ROM and which has the least?

A

Passive has the greatest (Ex. Door) and Resistive is the least.

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10
Q

[S] As a trainer, what should you focus on in the first 6 month with your client?

A

Concentrate on developing basic strength and endurance, along with flexibility, efficient connective and supportive systems, stabilization, proper movement pattern and cardio fitness. If the client has no particular goal.

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11
Q

[S] What is the recommend rest time for a load of 90%>MAX?

A

3-5 mins. Think Mike o’Hearn

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12
Q

[S] If TUT was 1-20 seconds, what is the strength?

A

Speed/Maximal Strength

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13
Q

[S] What percentage of the adult population will experience low back pain?

A

80%

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13
Q

What is the starting position for the back extension machine?

A

Seated in ideal alignment w/arms crossed, line up hip joint w/axis of the machine.

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14
Q

[S] How many calories are in:

One gram of fat: One gram of carbohydrates: One gram of protein: One gram of vitamins:

A

9,4,4,0

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16
Q

[S] What is the acronym RDA stand for?

A

Recommended Dietary Allowance

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17
Q

[S] Give examples of a disaccharide.

A

Maltose, lactose or sucrose

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19
Q

[S] What are the prime movers in a squat?

A

Quads at knee and Gluteus max at hip.

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20
Q

[S] A “carrying angle” is when the

A

a- humerus and forearm do not form a straight line

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22
Q

[S] What muscles must be stretched when a client has a protracted shoulder girdle?

A

Pectoralis major

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23
Q

[S] Define the term intensity.

A

A measure of one’s applied strength relative to their current level of maximum strength.

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24
Q

[S] When do type 2A muscle fibers fatige

A

Begin at 6 seconds, fully at 30-120 seconds.

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25
Q

[S] What is absolute strength?

A

The maximum amount of force an individual can produce.

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26
Q

[S] When working with loads under 60% of maximum how long should rest periods be?

A

Approx. 45 seconds to 2 minutes

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27
Q

[S] Normal resting heart rates are:

A

60-80bpm

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28
Q

[S] Force times distance divided by time equals? (FxD/T=)

A

Power

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29
Q

[S] What are the standard sites for women from the 3 site skinfold formula?

A

Triceps bracchi, sprailiac, & thigh

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30
Q

[S] A BMI measurement of 32 may be considered:

A

Class 1 Obesity

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31
Q

[S] List two reasons why you should call 911.

A

Victim is unconscious. Bleeding severely.

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32
Q

[S] How do you treat heat cramps?

A

Rest, gentle stretch, ice, re-hydrate

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34
Q

[S] What are the concerns to be aware of when using free weights?

A

Awkwardness, potential danger to body from lack of control, skill needed, momentum

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35
Q

[S] How many deaths in the US per year are attributed to lack of physical fitness?

A

250,000

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37
Q

[S] A claims made policy is an example of what kind of insurance

A

Liability

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38
Q

[S] A squat, bench press, barbell curl and a leg press are examples of:

A

A closed kinetic chain exercise.

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39
Q

[S] Name the 4 chambers of the heart.

A

Left/Right Ventricle, Left/Right Atrium

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40
Q

[S] Define the term volume.

A

Total amount of work performed in a training session

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42
Q

[S] How long does Glycolysis last

A

10 seconds to 3 minutes

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44
Q

[S] The fascia that surrounds bundles of muscle fibers is called?

A

Fasiculi

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45
Q

[S] Define the origin of a muscle

A

The attachment nearest the midline of the body and/or the end attached to the least movable bone.

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47
Q

[S] What is the treatment for heatstroke?

A

Call 911 & try to cool the person down

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48
Q

[S] How often should you call back your intros

A

At least once

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49
Q

[S] What is the definition of OBLA?

A

c- Onset of Blood Lactate Accumulation

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51
Q

[S] What causes post exercise soreness (DOMS-Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness)?

A

b- Micro trauma to the connective tissue and muscle fibers

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51
Q

[S] What is the Valsalva Maneuver?

A

c- Exhaling forcibly with the glottis closed.

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52
Q

[S] What body type is characterized by a muscular build?

A

Mesomorph

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53
Q

[S] What provides the majority of energy needed by muscles in the first two minutes of an activity?

A

b- Carbohydrate

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54
Q

[S] What is the ACSM recommended intake of carbohydrates, proteins and fats for health?

A

58% carb, 30% or > 30% fat, & 12% protein

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54
Q

[S] What is the Institute of Medicine’s recommended intake of carbohydrates, proteins and fats?

A

45-65% carbs, 20-35% fats, 10-35% protein

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56
Q

[S] Which vitamin helps maintain collagen?

A

Vitamin C

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57
Q

[S] What is collagen?

A

The most abundant protein in the body.

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57
Q

[S] Define the term Golgi Tendon Organ

A

A sensory organ situated at the musculotendinous junction

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58
Q

[S] List some of the benefits of Vitamin C

A

b- produces and maintains collagen

other-
Can reduce histamines
Is an atioxidant

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58
Q

[S] What is a dynamic stretch?

A

The body’s own movement causes the stretch

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58
Q

[S] What is ballistic stretching?

A

Uncontrolled bouncing, jerking, bobbing or pulsing to achieve greater ROM

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58
Q

[S] What are the dangers of hyper flexibility?

A

Joint instability

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58
Q

[S] Flexibility around a joint is affected by:

A

Bone structure, ligaments, elasticity of skin, muscles, tendons, & fascia.

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59
Q

[S] The recommended intake for dietary fiber is:

A

25-30 grams

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59
Q

[S] Tendons are resistant to what kind of force?

A

Tensile forces

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59
Q

[S] Define the term elastic.

A

The ability to return back to their original shape

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59
Q

[S] What percent of body fat for men and women is considered obese?

A

25% for men, 32% for women

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60
Q

[S] Define the term supination.

A

Movement in which the palms face forward in anatomical position

62
Q

[S] What considerations should you take when training someone with cancer?

A

Avoid high impact aerobics- bone fractures, avoid pressure or friction on the skin during exercise - bruise easily.

63
Q

[S] When training a client with AIDS/HIV, why is it important to wash your hands?

A

To protect them from being exposed to other infections.

64
Q

[S] What can cause exercise induced asthma (EIA)?

A

Cold air, specific intensities, and durations. Going too hard too fast.

65
Q

[S] Name the three planes of motion

A

Sagittal, Frontal, Horizontal

65
Q

[S] An example of a closed kinematic exercise chain exercise would be?

A

Bench Press

65
Q

[S] What is the longest muscle in your body?

66
Q

[S] What are the three basic body types in Somatotyping?

A

Ectomorph, endomorph, mesomorph

67
Q

[S] What types of muscles maintain a joint in a static position?

A

c- Stabilizers

67
Q

[S] Name the three heads of the triceps bracchi.

A

Long, lateral, medial

67
Q

[S] How many vertebrae are found in the cervical region of the spine?

67
Q

[S] Give an example of a Class II lever system.

A

Wheel barrow, can opener, MTP joint in plantar flexion

68
Q

[S] When performing a cable crossover chest movement, it is important to

A

a- align the trunk so the resistance opposes the motion

68
Q

[S] What is a closed kinetic chain exercise?

A

Closed kinetic chain exercises or closed chain exercises (CKC) are physical exercises performed where the hand (for arm movement) or foot (for leg movement) is fixed in space and cannot move. The extremity remains in constant contact with the immobile surface, usually the ground or the base of a machine.
These exercises are typically weight bearing exercises, where an exerciser uses one’s own body weight and/ or external weight.
Ex, Push Up, Pull Up, Leg Press, Squats, Deadlifts, etc

69
Q

[S] What are the agonists in a leg press?

A

a- Vastus medialis, vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis, and rectus femoris (aka the quad, thus the 4 muscles that made it up!)

70
Q

[S] In order to fully fatigue a type 1 muscle fiber, the must last how long?

A

d- 3-5 minutes

71
Q

[S] List the types of contraction (isometric, concentric, eccentric) in order of strenght

A

c- Concentric, Eccentric, Isometric

72
Q

[S] An example of a saturated fat is?

A

a- fat that is a a solid at room temperature

73
Q

[S] Cholesterol is important because it is

A

c- a precursor to coritsol hormones

74
Q

[S] Water-soluble vitamins…

A

a- are not stored in tissues to any great extent

75
Q

[S] A major function of the B Vitamins is to?

A

a- directly provide energy

76
Q

[S] The largest sesamoid bone in humans is the?

A

d- patella

77
Q

[S] How many vertebrae are found in the thoracic region of the spine?

78
Q

[S] The shoulder girdle is a foundation for the

A

b- head, neck and upper extremity

79
Q

[S] The triceps surae consists of the?

A

b- soleus and tibialis anterior

80
Q

[S] Which muscle dorsiflexes the ankle?

A

c- Tibialis anterior

81
Q

[S] What is the strongest, heaviest and longest bone in the body?

82
Q

[S] The term that best describes the position of the lumbar vertebrae relative to the cervical vertebrae

A

b- inferior

83
Q

[S] Collarbone is also called?

84
Q

[S] What is the primary symptom of Fibromyalgia?

A

b- Muscle cramps/tightness

85
Q

[S] A BMI measurement of 27 may be considered

A

c- overweight

86
Q

[S] If someone experiences hypoglycemia, what should you do?

A

b- Suggest the person drinks orange juice

87
Q

[S] One recommendation for a client with osteoporosis is

A

a- weight-bearing exercise

88
Q

[S] What is considered to be normal ROM in shoulder flexion?

A

c- 160 - 180 degrees

89
Q

[S] Which statement most accurately describes a strain?

A

a- Trauma to the muscle or tendon

90
Q

[S] When a woman becomes pregnant the following hormone is produced to soften the ligaments

A

d- Relaxin

91
Q

[S] Normal range of motion for shoulder abduction is

A

a- 60 - 80 degrees

92
Q

[S] When using the BIA technique, how many hours should a person fast before being tested

93
Q

[S] The push-up test is considered complete when the client

A

b- can no longer perform another repetition, or correct alignment can no longer be maintained.

94
Q

[S] The sites used in the standard 3-site skinfold formula for men include chest, abdomen and

95
Q

[S] Which muscle fiber offers high resistance to fatigue and is best suited for aerobic exercise?

A

c- Red Fiber

96
Q

[S] The systemic effects of exercise include

A

a- increased oxygen utilization and decreased blood pressure

97
Q

[S] What is synonymous with muscles that maintain a joint in a static position?

A

c- Stabilizers

98
Q

[S] The fascia that surrounds each muscle fiber and electrically insulates one from another is

A

c- Endomysium

99
Q

[S] Muscles that assist in movement are known as

A

c- synergists

100
Q

[S] Outstanding endurance athletes have

A

a- high stoke volumes and low resting heart rates

101
Q

[S] In glycolysis, when the demand for oxygen is greater then the supply

A

a- pyruvate is converted to lactate

102
Q

[S] The series elastic component consists of?

A

either b or c
b-muscle spindle, golgi tendon, Z-disks
c-actin, myosin and nuclear bags

102
Q

[S] Which belongs on a list of machines that trains the latissimus major?

A

a- Row Machine

102
Q

[S] Example of a closed kinetic chain exercise would be a

A

d- leg press

102
Q

[S] How long for a hypertrophy response to occur?

A

6-8 weeks!

102
Q

[S] Weight of 7-Foot Olympic bar?

102
Q

[S] How many calories in one gram of carbs?

A

4 calories

102
Q

[S] When performing a bent over row, what is the stabilizing musculature for the glenohumeral joint?

A

a- Latissimus dorsi, trapezius, rhomboids, triceps brachii

102
Q

[S] In a high-intensity sprint-type exercise, what percentage of carbs is utilized as fuel?

102
Q

[S] What position should the knee be in when performing a standing calf raise?

A

b- Neutral

102
Q

[S] When stretching, your muscles are protected by?

A

c- proprioceptors (aka stretch reflex)

102
Q

[S] The stretch shortening cycle is the sequence of?

A

d- eccentric action followed by a concentric action

102
Q

[S] ROM about a join is affected by?

A

a- bone structure

102
Q

[S] What type of muscle action is involved in lowering a free weight?

A

b- Eccentric

102
Q

[S] An example of a simple carbohydrate is?

A

c- Chocolate

102
Q

[S] The main dietary factor associated with a high blood cholesterol level is high

A

c- saturated fat intake

102
Q

[S] Muscles that assist in movement are known as?

A

c- synergists

102
Q

[S] Cholesterol is found in

102
Q

[S] Which of the following is the preferred fuel for most body functions?

A

c- Carbohydrates

102
Q

[S] What is the agonist in a hanging leg raise?

A

a- Rectus abdominis and iliopsoas

102
Q

[S] The biceps brachii, sartorius, and brachialis are examples of?

A

a- Fusiform muscles

102
Q

[S] What is the antagonist in a reverse curl?

A

a- Triceps brachii

102
Q

[S] What does the term distal mean?

A

Away from the center of the body

102
Q

[S] The point of origin of a muscle is

A

a- nearest to the midline of the body and/or the end attached to the least moveable bone.

102
Q

[S] What are the five main spinal regions?

A

b- Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccyx

102
Q

[S] What two muscles make up the calves?

A

a- Gastrocnemius and soleus

102
Q

[S] What is the major muscle group used to flex the hip joint?

A

b- Iliopsoas

102
Q

[S] What are the agonists in a narrow grip bench press?

A

a- Anterior deltoid, triceps brachii

102
Q

[S] What are the stabilizers at the shoulder in a front lat pulldown?

A

a- Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis

102
Q

[S] What determines how an individual’s subcutaneous fat levels are distributed?

A

d- Gender, body type, age and activity levels

102
Q

[S] What is the most accurate time measurement to use when taking a client’s resting heart rate?

A

a- 60 secs

102
Q

[S] What response during exercise can you expect from a client who is taking a beta blockers?

A

d- a decreased exercise heart rate

102
Q

[S] Which body type is characterized by a long slender build?

A

b- Ectomorph

102
Q

[S] What is the estimated accuracy range for hydrostatic weighing?

A

b- Plus or minus 2.5%

102
Q

[S] When training a pregnant woman in her second trimester one should

A

b- discontinue prone and supine exercise

102
Q

[S] Normal range of motion for hip extension is

A

d- 15 - 30 degrees

102
Q

[S] When training clients with cancer one should consider

A

c- that bruising occurs easily

102
Q

[S] Which artery is most accessible to palpate when checking heart rate?

A

a- Radial artery

102
Q

[S] What is considered a normal blood pressure reading?

A

c- 120/80 mm/hg

102
Q

[S] A general policy when working with a diabetic is to

A

d- increase the insulin dosage and exercise during periods of peak insulin activity.

102
Q

[S] One physiological benefit of exercise is

A

b- decreased stroke volume

102
Q

[S] The size principle of recruitment states that

A

that under load, motor units are recruited from smallest to largest

102
Q

[S] What is the difference between max heart rate and anaerobic threshold?

A

d- Max heart rate is the number of beats per minute the heart can pump, anaerobic threshold has to do with lactic acid aerobically.

102
Q

[S] What type of muscle action is involved in lowering a free weight?

A

b- Eccentric

NCCPT (1 decks)

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