Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Noyes Whitney equation

A

Dm/dt = D x S x (Cs-Cb/H)

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2
Q

Henderson hasselbach equation

A

Ph= pka + log10(A-/AH)

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3
Q

What class has the greatest bioavailability

A

Class 1 and class IV has the least

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4
Q

What is used to measure melting point

A

Heat flux DSC and Capillary melting tubes

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5
Q

What do we use to identify polymorphs

A

XRPD

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6
Q

What do we use to measure hygroscopicity

A

TGA, thermogravimetric analysis

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7
Q

What’s the Arrhenius plot used for in preformulation + equation

A

Rate of degradation - k = A x exp(-Ea/RT)

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8
Q

What’s used to check excipient drug compatibility

A

Heat flux DSC

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9
Q

Name some things we need to consider in powders

A

Particle size, surface area, particle shape, density - will effect the flowability, dissolution rate, excipient binding, dose uniformity,

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10
Q

How can we measure SA of a drug

A

BET theory uses a gas (nitrogen) to adsorb onto the surface of a molecule and pressure transducers sense the amount of gas adsorbed
S(BET) = (vm x s x N) / (V x m)

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11
Q

How to distinguish between crystalline and amorphous

A

Heat it up as crystalline structures will have a melting point and amorphous structures won’t and will just turn rubbery

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12
Q

What’s a meta stable polymorph

A

A polymorph that’s more soluble but LESS stable

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13
Q

Example of a drug that has polymorphs

A

Ritonavir used to treat HIV/AIDS has polymorphs that are more susceptible to moisture absorption- degradation- sub optimal dosing

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14
Q
A
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15
Q

Crystal lattice + water
Crystal lattice + any other solvent

A

1) hydrate
2) solvate

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16
Q

Does salt forms increase or decrease solubility

A

Increaseeee we want this and 50% of all drugs exist in salt forms

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17
Q

Do we want amorphous forms in drugs and why

A

Yes because they have increased surface energy which increases solubility

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18
Q

Milling causes the formation of what kind of particles

A

AMORPHOUS (greater surface energy, greater dissolution, greater hygroscopicity, decreased stability, reduced powder flow )

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19
Q

What’s cyromilling

A

Freezing material first before milling to increase brittleness

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20
Q

What’s the main environmental factor to consider when formulating drugs (milling)

A

Humidity - causes agglomeration, sticky particles that can stick to each other and the milling equipment

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21
Q

Give one main way to increase drug solubility

A

Decreasing particle size by milling particles

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22
Q

What’s is segregation and how to avoid it

A

Particles separating due to a number of different factors e.g. difference in size. Segregation can be avoided be ensuring particles are the same size,shape and density elf. By sieving the particles to separate them

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23
Q

What’s an ordered mix

A

Mcirconized particles adsorbed onto a larger carrier particle

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24
Q

Why don’t we want particles to be too small

A

Increased cohesion and aggregation leading to poor powder flow and mixing properties

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25
Q

What’s the other type of segregation

A

Ordered mix segregation - percolation, displacement and saturation

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26
Q

Why’s good powder flow important

A

Greater flowability = higher content, greater filling and therefore better weight uniformity

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27
Q

How does the following affect particle flow
A) decreasing particle size
B) irregular shaped particles
C) higher density particles

A

A) reduced powder flow due to increased cohesion
B) reduced powder flow
C) increased powder flow under gravity

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28
Q

What are the 3 ways to measure flowability of a powder

A

1) angle of repose - using tan = height/radius
2) carrs index = (tap density- bulk density)/tap density x 100
3) hausner ratio = tap density/bulk density

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29
Q

Why would we avoid wet granulation

A

If drug is heat sensitive - can change the drug structure to amorphous . Dry granulation is best for heat sensitive and moisture sensitive drugs

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30
Q

What do chelating agents do

A

E.g. EDTA - they form stable complexes with metal ions to prevent them from interfering with drug stability and interacting

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31
Q

Why do insoluble lubricants cause increased disintegration time

A

They from a hydrophobic layer around the tablet which reduces wetting of the tablet

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32
Q

Name some additional excipients added and their purpose

A

Colouring agents, taste masking additives, lubricants (reduce friction during tablet compresssion), antioxidations (e.g. absorbic acid prevents oxidation), glidants

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33
Q

What are the 3 types of degradation

A

Chemical, physical and microbial

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34
Q

Equation of half life for zero order and first order

A

Zero = t1/2 = [A]0/2k
First = t1/2= ln2/k

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35
Q

Equation for degradation/expiry of zero and first order

A

Zero = [A]0/20k
First = 0.051/k

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36
Q

What’s happened after pseudo zero order runs out

A

It becomes first order reaction

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37
Q

What other factors could affect stability of a drug

A

Isomerisation, polymerisation and oxidation

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38
Q

How can we avoid oxidation

A

Add chelating agents e.g. EDTA, add antioxidants e.g. absorbic acid, add free radical scavengers

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39
Q

How can we avoid photochemical effects

A

Place drug in a amber bottle, which absorbs UV rays, store in cool dark place or coat tablets with pigmented polymers

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40
Q

How can excipients affect stability

A

They can act as surface catalysts e.g. starch can absorb water initiating drug degradation

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41
Q

Give an example of physical degradation of a medicine

A

Salbutamol - if temperature is repeatedly increased and lowered the particle size will increase and the drug particles may therefore not be able to exit the inhaler and the pt won’t receive the intended appropriate dose

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42
Q

How can we make suspension and solutions more stable (2 ways)

A

By incorporating wetting agents e.g. surfactants, suspending agents e.g. potassium dihydrogen phosphate KH2PO4

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43
Q

Is flocculations good or bad and why

A

Good bc it means the particles form loose clumps which are easy to redisperse and prevents caking

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44
Q

What is zeta potential

A

To do with suspension - it describes the charge difference between the particle surface and the surrounding fluid. Higher zeta potential = strong electrostatic REPULSION = particles remain dispersed. It tells us how likely it is for particles in a suspension to aggregate

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45
Q

Particle aggregation leads to …

A

Caking (defloccuated)

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46
Q

What is creaming

A

Phase separation in a emulsion

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47
Q

What can prevent creaming of emulsion s

A

Hydrocolloid agents or add a surfactant

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48
Q

What’s coalescence

A

When droplets combine to make 1 big droplet in an emulsion - prevented using ionic surfactant

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49
Q

What’s the most dangerous type of degradation

A

Microbial bc it can have the most detrimental effects

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50
Q

Water exposure can lead to the growth of what bacteria

A

Pseudomonas

51
Q

Air exposure can lead to the growth of what bacteria

A

Penicilium (so air in manufacturing spaces should be filtered)

52
Q

What are the 3 types of coating

A

Sugar, film and enteric coating

53
Q

What’s enteric coating

A

A film layer that prevents the drug from disintegrating in the stomach environment (low pHs)

54
Q

How does sustained release film work

A

Resist dissolution at ALL PHS , dissolution is diffusion controlled

55
Q

What software is used in 3D printing

A

CAD software

56
Q

Where does the oral drug initially travel to

A

Hepatic vein where it undergoes first pass metabolism and most of the drug is broken down so it can be excreted

57
Q

Name 2 quality control tests for solid dosage forms

A

Dissolution and uniformity of dose test

58
Q

What are common manufacturing problems of solid dosage forms

A

Capping, chipping, sticking to equipment and mottling (uneven distribution of colour)

59
Q

What’s the gingiva

A

Gum - keratinized epthethlia

60
Q

What parts of the oral cavity is keratinized

A

Gingiva, tongue and hard palate

61
Q

What area of the oral cavity has the thinnest epithelia (best for drug absorption)

A

The underside of the tongue and the floor of the mouth

62
Q

What glands produce watery secretions

A

Parotid and submandibular glands

63
Q

What glands produce thicker saliva

A

Sublingual and buccal

64
Q

What’s xerostomia

A

Dry mouth, with more viscous saliva

65
Q

Which route is faster buccal to sublingual

A

Sublingual bc there’s more blood vessels = greater blood supply to absorb the drug = faster onset of action (via diffusion)

66
Q

What’s lyophilisation

A

Freeze drying of a drug - the drug is frozen then dried to allow sublimation to occur. This makes the drug more soluble due to the porous nature meaning the drug has an increased surface area = faster dissolution and greater onset of action e.g. naloxone used to treat opioid overdose ( we need this to have a rapid onset of action to reverse the effects of the opioids and potentially save a life)

67
Q

Name a polymer that can be used for mucosal patches

A

Celluloses e.g. methyl cellulose

68
Q

How can buccal patches have unidirectional and multidirectional release

A

If they have a impermeable backing they can only release the drug content in one direction = oral mucosa which is good for more controlled release

69
Q

Advantage of a impermeable backing layer

A

Maximise drug concentration gradient bc the system is protected from saliva which will dilute and minimise the concentration gradient

70
Q

What’s some disadvantages of buccal/sublingual delivery systems

A

High patient variability due difference in techniques and salivary production, compliance etc…
there’s short residence times bcs the drug will get washed away by saliva thus therapeutic effect may not be maintained,
they must have a neutral or pleasant taste to improve compliance ..
only drugs that are potent at low doses are suitable

71
Q

Where does the drug taken rectally go to

A

Depends on which vein it gets absorbed by:
Superior haemorrhoidal vein = portal circulation = goes to the liver and MAY undergoes first pass metabolism
Middle haemorrhoidal and inferior haemorrhoidal vein = straight to the systemic circulation bypassing the first pass effect

72
Q

What’s the difference between diffusion CR systems and dissolution based systems

A

With diffusion systems the drug should NOT be soluble in the matrix or the drug reservoir should be coated with an insoluble membrane e.g. polymer
Whereas dissolution systems have a slowly dissolving drug or slowly dissolving drug coating

73
Q

How do osmotically controlled released systems work

A

Contains high conc of salts inside the drug and this causes water to move via osmosis into the drug and this caused the active drug to be displaced and move out of the drug through small holes

74
Q

What are matrix formers

A

Used in controlled release formulations - they are polymers or waxes that suspend the drug as it slowly dissolves the drug is released

75
Q

Types of hydrophilic matrix formers

A

Gelatin (has cross links) and HPMC ( no cross-links and is more viscous)

76
Q

How Dow e know if a system is dissolution or diffusion controlled

A

If the matrix used is soluble = dissolution e.g. HPMC (can acc be used in both) and if the matrix is insoluble = diffusion controlled e.g. ethylcellulose

77
Q

Why does MS Contin have a steady release profile

A

It’s release is independent of pH so it is steadily released throughout the GI tract

78
Q

How does MS Contin work

A

Has HPMC as the matrix - water enter the drug and causes this matrix to swell and become gel-like = drug gradually diffuses out of the matrix overtime. As the gel erodes the drug is released via dissolution as well. So it is a dissolution and diffusion based system ;)

79
Q

How do ion exchange systems work

A

Used in controlled release = relies on exchange of ions between drug and surrounding environment - drug is attached to a resin (can bind to ions). The exchange of ions results in drug being released (the resin is the part exchanging ions with the surroundings not the drug)

80
Q

What’s a advantage of DPIs that MDIs don’t have

A

They’re CF free (don’t contribute to global warming)

81
Q

How do DPIs work

A

Drug ADsorbed onto carrier molecule (lactose), inspiratory flow rate causes the drug to detach from the carrier and get inhaled

82
Q

How can DPIs be made better

A

Make the carrier :
1) rounder and smaller
2) smoother
3) add force control agents

83
Q

Is left or right bronchi wider

A

Right Sbnlh

84
Q

How many divisions from trachea to alveoli

85
Q

What are the 3 mechanisms of deposition

A

Inertial impaction, gravitational sedimentation and Brownian motion

86
Q

What are the HFAs licensed for use in PMDs

A

HFA134a and HFA227 (they contribute to global warming tho)

87
Q

Give an example of a surfactant and co-solvent used in PMDs

A

Oleic acid (to increase solubility) and ethanol

88
Q

What’s a parenteral

A

Administration directly into the body (by passing the GI tract) through IV/injection

89
Q

What’s the parenteral route that administers at 10-15degrees

A

Intradermal injection (ID)

90
Q

What’s the parenteral route that administers at 45degrees

A

Subcutaneous injection

91
Q

What’s the parenteral route that administers at 90 degrees

A

Intramuscular injection

92
Q

Are intra spinal injections aqueous or oily

A

Aqueous ONLY (no oils or suspension)

93
Q

What’s the intrathecal

A

Injection into the CSF so it diffuses into the brain used during chemotherapy

94
Q

Why are chelating agents used

A

They extend the expiry date of drugs (they last longer)

95
Q

What’s enteral route

A

Through the GI tract - opposite of parenteral route

96
Q

Is buccal, sublingual and rectal considered enteral

A

Yes but they can be more specifically defined as oromucosal (through the mucous membrane)

97
Q

What’s intra articular route

A

Injected into the joint - used to treat arthritis

98
Q

Example of topical formulations

A

Nasal sprays, transdermal patches and creams

99
Q

Controlled release vs sustained release

A

Controlled = zero order kinetics, release rate predetermined and drug remains at a steady level for longer
Sustained= NOT zero order (idk what order tho) aims to give a longer effect than immediate but shorter acting than controlled and Cp levels are not maintenance for long

100
Q

What do polymers do in formulations

A

They can have different roles depending on formulation:
1) in gels and creams they act as thickening agents to increase viscosity
2) in solid dosage forms they can be used as protective films to prevent chemical degradation
3) used in controlled and sustained release to delay and prolong drug release e.g. HPMC and ethyl cellulose

101
Q

If a drug has a logP of 3 what semi solid form would be most suitable

A

LogP=3 means the drug is lipophilic as it is above 0. We wouldn’t use a ointment because the drug would just dissolve in it and not penetrate the skin, pontentially cream but the drug may be trapped in a droplet or gel as the drug would be freely suspended and gels are best for hydrophobic drugs like this

102
Q

What properties are ideal for a drug patch

A

Low molecular weight (large molecules can’t penetrate)
LogP of 1- 3 (balance of permeability and solubility)
Low melting point (greater solubility)
Short plasma half life (prevent accumulation = toxicity )
Low therapeutic level = potent drug as not much will be able to cross the skin

103
Q

Pharmacokinetics vs pharmacodynamics

A

Cokinetics = ADME (what body does to the drug)
Codynamics = binding, action, therapeutic effects and side effects (what the drug does to the body)

104
Q

What does a bioavailability of 1 mean

A

100% (only for IV)

105
Q

Equation for F ( absolute bioavailability)

A

F = AUCev/AUCiv

106
Q

What’s relative bioavailability + equation

A

Availability compared to another dosage form
RB = (AUCev/dose ev)/(AUCiv/dose iv). Or AUCa/AUCb where a = test and b= reference

107
Q

What’s bioequivalance

A

Drugs that are pharmaceutical equivalents and have similar bioavailability (need to be 80-125% range within each other)

108
Q

What effects bioavailability

A

Formulations, age, sex, weight, disease states, gastric emptying weight, food interactions, etc…

109
Q

Name 3 test used by FDA to evidence bioavailability of 2 dosage forms

A

In vivo PK tests in humans
In vivo human test using urinary metabolites
In vivo test in animal correlated to in vivo PK tests in humans

111
Q

What’s the pH of the intestine in a fasted vs fed state

A

Fasted = 6.5
Fed = 5

112
Q

What dissolution testing apparatus would we use for micro particles or floating dosage forms

A

Basket apparatus

113
Q

What dissolution testing apparatus would we use for sinking dosage forms (tablets and capsules)

A

Paddle apparatus

114
Q

What dissolution testing apparatus would we use for flow through apparatus

A

Any but useful for modified release ones

115
Q

What dissolution testing apparatus would we use for Franz cell system

A

Semi solids and patches (creams, ointments)

116
Q

What’s the data analysis method for immediate release formulations

A

Noyes Whitney or Hixon & Crowell

117
Q

What’s the data analysis method for controlled release/ monolithic release formulations

A

Higuichi model

118
Q

What kind of reaction would usually occur in “sink condition”

A

Zero order reaction (dc/dt=constant - simple straight line graph unlike first order)

119
Q

What does a angle of repose of less than 30 degrees tell us

A

Excellent powder flowability

120
Q

What does a angle of repose of 31-35 degrees tell us

A

Good flowability

121
Q

What does a angle of repose of 36-40 degrees tell us

A

Fair flowability

122
Q

What does a angle of repose of greater than 40 degrees tell us

A

Poor flowability

123
Q

How is dodge uniformity tested

A

Assay of drug API