exam Flashcards

1
Q

How many phyla in ecdysozoa?

A

8

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2
Q

What is phylum nematoda?

A

the roundworms

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3
Q

what is phylum arthropoda?

A

the arthtropods

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4
Q

describe the phylum nematoda

A

thin, non-segmented worm

bilaterally symmetrical

cephalized

lack appendages

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5
Q

describe nematode morphology

A

pseudocoelomates with a complete gut

lack specialised circulatory, excretory and respiratory systems

pseudocoelum acts as hydrostatic skeleton

longitudinal muscles run along body wall

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6
Q

How do nemotodes reproduce?

A

sexual reproduction, internal fertilization, egg laying

can self fertilize - reproductive assurance but inbreeding

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7
Q

How do nematodes develope?

A

direct development

many display cell constancy

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8
Q

Describe nematode growth

A

moult

some species switch between alternative developmental pathways

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9
Q

What is the Dauer stage in nematodes?

A

alternative juvenile stage specialized for long-term survival

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10
Q

What is phenotypic plasticity?

A

developemental switches are triggered by the environment

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11
Q

What is the most studied animal?

A

Caenorhabditis elegans

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12
Q

How do nematodes feed?

A

bacteria, fungi, microbes

carnivorous

parasitic

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13
Q

describe the phylum arthropoda

A

segmented

hard exoskeleton

articulated appendages

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14
Q

Describe the arthropd body plan

A

repetitive, segmented

head, thorax, abdomen

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15
Q

Describe the arthropod skeleton

A

cuticle serves as a rigid exoskeleton

movable, jointed appendages - allows movement while still being protected in exoskeleton

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16
Q

describe the arthropod circulatory system

A

gut and other organs in pseudocoelomic cavity (hemocoel)

hemolymph (fluid in hemocoel) transports nutrients to organs

open system

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17
Q

What are the chelicerata?

A

spiders, scorpions, mites

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18
Q

what are the myriapoda?

A

centipedes, millipedes

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19
Q

what are the pancrustacea?

A

crustaceans, insects

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20
Q

Are wings appendages or cuticle?

A

cuticle

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21
Q

describe arthropod reproduction

A

sexual reproduction

variation in reproductive strategies

asexual parthenogenesis seen in several groups

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22
Q

What is haplodiploidy?

A

an unusual sexual system seen in several groups

females born of sexual reproduction - diploid genome

males - born of asexual parthenogenesis - haploid genome

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23
Q

What group is haplodiploidy most prominent in?

A

hymenoptera

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24
Q

What does haplodiploidy result in?

A

increased genetic relatedness between sisters

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25
Q

Describe arthropod development

A

develop in a protective egg - terrestrial species

free-living larvae - aquatic species

moulting

pause/delay development

metamorphosis

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26
Q

what is diapause?

A

pausing development based on environmental triggers

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27
Q

what is holometabolous?

A

major body plan reorganization occurs during pupal stage

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28
Q

what is hemimetabolous?

A

relatively subtle changes with no pupal stage

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29
Q

What groups are in the deuterostomia?

A

hemichordata

echinodermata

chordata

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30
Q

What is the phylum echinodermata?

A

sea stars, sea urchins, sea cucumbers

radially symmetrical

crawls on sea floor w/ tube feet

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31
Q

describe echinoderm morphology

A

radially symmetrical

no discrete brain

skin has biomineralized spines and skeletal plates for protection

complete gut, mouth on bottom, anus on top

no gills, heart or nephridia

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32
Q

Are sea cucumbers radially or bilaterally symmetrical?

A

bilaterally

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33
Q

describe echinoderm reproduction

A

separate sexes

broadcast spawning

sea urchins are model systems for sperm-egg interactions and deuterostomal development

asexual reproduction via splitting and regeneration

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34
Q

describe echinoderm development

A

most species have free swimming larvae that metamorphose into benthic adult stages - indirect developement

early stage larvae are bilaterally symmetrical

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35
Q

describe the chordate body plan

A

bilaterally symmetrical
has a:
- notochord
- dorsal, hollow nerve tube
- pharyngeal (gill) slits or clefts
- muscular, post-anal tail

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36
Q

What is the notochord?

A

long, flexible cartilage-like rod

provides skeletal support

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37
Q

What is the nerve cord?

A

hollow tube built from ectodermal cells

develops into spinal cord and brain in vertebrates

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38
Q

What are the pharyngeal slits/clefts?

A

groves or openings in the pharynx

provide channels between outside and back of mouth

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39
Q

what are cephalochordates?

A

a groups of small benthic, marine filter feeders

has entire length notochord for whole life

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40
Q

what are tunicates?

A

a group of sessile, marine, filter-feeders

sea squirts

adults sessile - no notochord

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41
Q

When did vertebrates arise?

A

~530MYA

cambrian

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42
Q

what are the key features of vertebrates?

A

Rigid, internal skeleton (dorsal, jointed vertebral column replaced the notochord)

2 pairs of appendages

Anterior skull & large brain

Internal organs suspended in large coelom

Advanced circulatory system

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43
Q

What are some shared characteristics between jawless fish and vertebrates?

A

skull, brain, eyes, and other sensory organs

two or more clusters of Hox genes

neural crest

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44
Q

What are the myxini?

A

hagfishes

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45
Q

what does anadromous mean?

A

inhabit various marine and freshwater habitats

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46
Q

What are petremyzontida?

A

lamprey

andromous jawless vertebrates

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47
Q

What were the first vertebrates with mineralized skeletal elements in their mouth and pharynx?

A

conodonts

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48
Q

do chondrichthyes have fin rays?

A

no

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49
Q

what is an example of a fossil gnathostomes?

A

placoderm fish

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50
Q

what is the difference between gnathostomes and acathodians?

A

acanthodians have spiny fins

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51
Q

What are the 4 gnathostome lineages that remain today?

A

Chondrichthyans

Ray-Finned Fishes

Lobe-fin fishes

Tetrapods

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52
Q

What are 3 common chaacteristics of gnathostomes?

A

additional duplication of Hox genes

enlarged forebrain

lateral line system

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53
Q

What are chondrichthyans?

A

sharks, rays, chimearas

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54
Q

Describe how chondrichthyans reproduce?

A

males have claspers

eggs fertilized internally

some sharks cannibalise other embryos in utero

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55
Q

what does oviparous mean?

A

eggs hatch outside the mother’s body

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56
Q

what does ovoviviparous mean?

A

the embryo develops within the uterus and is nourished by the egg yolk

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57
Q

what does viviparous mean?

A

the embryo develops within the uterus and is nourished through a yolk sac placenta from the mother’s blood

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58
Q

what 2 features do nearly all osteichthyans have?

A

Breathe water over gills protected by an operculum

Control buoyancy with an air sac known as a swim bladder

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59
Q

What are 5 key features of ray-finned fish?

A

Calcified endoskeleton (calcium phosphate), rather than cartilage

Fin ‘rays’ (thin bones)

Gills in single chamber with 1 flap (not multiple slits) - operculum

Scales cover skin (protect & down drag)

Swim bladder aid in buoyancy

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60
Q

Do sharks have swim bladders?

A

No

Forward motion generates lift via tail & pectoral fins

Low density lipids in shark livers (= 5-25% of body mass)

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61
Q
A
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62
Q

What kind of circulatory system do fish have?

A

single circuit

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63
Q

What kind of circulatory system do mammals have?

A

double circuit

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64
Q

What is anatomy?

A

the branch of science concerned with the bodily structure, especially as revealed by dissection

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65
Q

what is morphology?

A

the form of living organisms, and relationships between their structures

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66
Q

What are sarcopterygians?

A

Actinista + Dipnoi + Tetrapods

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67
Q

What are 3 key features of actinista?

A

(ceolacanths)

large fish (60kg+) w/ fleshy fins

Muscles outside the body, similar to tetrapod load-bearing limbs

Some limb bones (pectoral) homologous to tetrapod limb bones

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68
Q

When was the actinistia fossil found?

A

70 MYA

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69
Q

What are dipnoi?

A

lungfishes

Monophyletic group

Powerful jaws, crushing teeth

Paired fins, with thick central lobe with bone & muscle

Found in warm, stagnant, freshwater

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70
Q

How do lungfish breathe?

A

lungs filled with gulping air at the surface

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71
Q

What is aestivation?

A

A state of dormancy or torpor during the summer

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72
Q

What is a pleisomorphic character?

A

present in ancestor

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73
Q

When did swim bladders arise?

A

in later ancestor of ray-finned fishes

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74
Q

What are the advantages of becoming terrestrial?

A

Air has many advantages for gaining O2

Less energy (less resistance) required for motion on land

O2 in water can be zero if stagnant

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75
Q

What are the disadvantages of becoming terrestrial?

A

GRAVITY

Evolution of new locomotory system required (body support) i.e. limbs

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76
Q

What are tetrapods?

A

gnathostomes with limbs

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77
Q

what are Panderichthys?

A

Tetrapod-like: begin to see evolution of digits and radial bones within the fins

No dorsal fin, shallow water

Dorso-ventrally flattened

Ready for a walk

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78
Q

what is a tiktaalik?

A

Intermediate between fish with fins, and tetrapods with limbs = “fish-apod”

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79
Q

what is an acanthostega?

A

Four limbs with well developed digits (polydactyl)
8 on Acanthostega

Gills & lungs

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80
Q

what are the true terrestrial adaptations?

A

True walking limbs (ankle and wrist joints) and feet with digits (from jointed fins)

Fully developed pectoral girdle, free form the skull

Retained ‘lungs’ for air-breathing

Ears for detecting airborne sounds

Using land-based food sources

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81
Q

What does amphibian mean?

A

‘both ways of life’

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82
Q

Do amphibian larvae have lungs or gills?

A

gills (water)

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83
Q

Do amphibian adults have lungs or gills?

A

lungs and skin (air and water)

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84
Q

How do amphibians reproduce?

A

external fertilization

eggs need moist environment

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85
Q

what is metamorphosis?

A

the process of transformation from an immature form to an adult form in two or more distinct stages

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86
Q

what animals are in order apoda?

A

includes caecilians, which are legless and resemble worms

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87
Q

what animals are in order urodela?

A

includes salamanders & newts, which have tails

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88
Q

what animals are in order anura?

A

includes frogs and toads, which lack tails

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89
Q

what is matrophagy?

A

of tearing skin from the mothers body, providing nutrition

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90
Q

what are amniotes?

A

group of tetrapods whose living members include reptiles, birds, and mammals

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91
Q

what is an amniotic egg?

A

contains membranes that protect the embryo

have an ‘internal aquatic environment’

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92
Q

What kind of eggshells do birds have?

A

calcareous

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93
Q

What kind of eggshells do reptiles have?

A

leathery and flexible

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94
Q

What kind of eggshells do mammals have?

A

no eggshells (mostly)

develop in mothers body

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95
Q

what are the 4 ‘extra-embryonic’ membranes?

A

Amnion

Chorion

Allantois

Yolk Sac

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96
Q

what is the amnion?

A

surrounds embryo, secretes fluid (hydraulic support)

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97
Q

what is the chorion?

A

encloses embryo, role in gas exchange

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98
Q

what is the allantois?

A

sac for storage of waste products

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99
Q

what is the yolk sac?

A

encloses yolk – feeds the embryo via blood vessels

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100
Q

What are the disadvantages of the amniotic egg (cleidoic egg)?

A

Air is more thermally variable than water (kept at a warm steady temperature)

Must have internal fertilization (morphological and behavioural adaptations)

Usually requires more parental care than fish or amphibians

Relatively expensive to produce

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101
Q

what are the 2 lineages of amniotes?

A

reptiles

synapsids

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102
Q

how are amphibians and reptiles different?

A

Scales (contain keratin) – Protects from abrasion & water loss

Internal fertilisation prior to laying (shelled) eggs on land

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103
Q

what is a paraphyletic taxon?

A

some, but not all descendants of a single ancestor

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104
Q

what is polyphyletic taxon?

A

the most common ancestor is NOT part of the group

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105
Q

what is a monophyletic taxon?

A

all descendants of a single ancestor

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106
Q

what is a diapsid?

A

diversified soon after early reptiles & evolved into two main lineages:

lepidosaurs

archosaurs

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107
Q

what are lepidosaus?

A

tuataras, lizards, and snakes

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108
Q

what are archosaurs?

A

the turtles, crocodilians, pterosaurs, dinosaursand birds

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109
Q

what are squamates?

A

snakes and lizards

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110
Q

what are 5 key features of lepidosaurs?

A

Very horny scales – strongly desiccation resistant

Outer layer of skin is shed

Lung ventilation – ribs used as bellows

Chambered heart – partial separation of oxygenated blood (lung) and deoxygenated blood (body) – allows ACTIVE metabolism

Reduction of the limbs is common

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111
Q

what are the chelonians?

A

turtles and tortoises

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112
Q

what era did dinosaurs exist?

A

mesozoic era

first evolved in the triassic ~ 150MY

mass extinction at cretaceous-tertiary boundary

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113
Q

What are the 2 dinosaur groups and how do you distinguish between them?

A

ornithischia

saurischia

distinguished by the pelvic girdle/hip

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114
Q

How are birds adapted to flight?

A

evolved ‘hollow’ bones (air-filled honeycomb)

Lack urinary bladder

Small gonads

Females with only one ovary

Loss of teeth

115
Q

What are the 4 key features of feathers?

A

Keratin (modified scales)

Lightweight

Strong

Structurally complex

116
Q

are most reptiles ectothermic or endothermic?

A

ectothermic

117
Q

what does ectothermic mean?

A

body temp dependent on external source of heat

118
Q

are most birds ectothermic or endothermic?

A

endothermic

119
Q

What birds are ratites?

A

flightless birds

ostriches
emus
Penguins
some species of rails
ducks
pigeons

120
Q

What are the 3 key traits of mammals?

A

Mammary glands (milk production)

Hair

Fewer, but more differentiated teeth (more varied diet)

121
Q

when did mammals first appear?

A

> 200MYA

evolved from synapsids

Have one opening/fenestra behind each eye

Two bones formerly within jaw joint - incorporated into mammalian middle ear

122
Q

What are the 3 lineages of mammals?

A

monotremes, marsupials, eutherians

123
Q

What are monotremes?

A

Small group (echidnas and platypus)

Warm-blooded & high metabolic rate

Hair over bodies

Produce milk (mammary glands but no
defined nipples)
BUT - Lay eggs

124
Q

what are marsupials?

A

Include opossums, kangaroos, and koalas

Embryos develop with a placenta in mother’s uterus

Born very early in embryonic development

Complete development nursing in maternal pouch called a marsupium

125
Q

why are eutherian mammals so diverse?

A

to fill numerous niches; herbivore to carnivore, terrestrial to aquatic, with some groups have even developing powered flight

126
Q

What animals are in the primate group?

A

lemurs, tarsiers, monkeys, apes

127
Q

What group are humans in?

A

ape group (hominoids)

128
Q

what are 5 derived characters of primates?

A

A large brain and short jaws

Forward-looking eyes close together on face - depth perception

Complex social behaviour and parental care

Most primates have hands and feet adapted for grasping

A fully opposable thumb (in monkeys and apes)

129
Q

What primates are from madagascar?

A

Lemurs, lorises and bush babies

130
Q

What primates are from southeastern asia?

131
Q

where did the first monkeys evolve?

A

old world (africa and asia)

colonised the new world (central and south america) >25MYA

132
Q

What is the difference between old and new world monkeys?

A

old world: no prehensile tail, facing forward nostrils

new world: prehensile tail, side-facing nostrils

133
Q

When did apes diverge from old world monkeys?

134
Q

How old are homo sapiens?

A

about 200,000 years old

135
Q

what characteristics distinguish humans from other apes?

A

Upright posture and bipedal locomotion

Larger brains

Language capabilities and symbolic thought

The manufacture and use of complex tools

Shortened jaw

Shorter digestive tract

136
Q

when did the earliest hominin live?

A

about 6.5MYA

originated in africa

small brain

walked upright

137
Q

What are the austrolaupiths?

A

homonins from 2-4 MYA

Paraphyletic assemblage of hominins

Some species walked fully erect

“Robust” australopiths had sturdy skulls and powerful jaws

“Gracile” australopiths were more slender and had lighter jaws

138
Q

what are habilis?

A

found stone tools

139
Q

what are homo ergaster?

A

First fully bipedal, large-brained hominid

Significant decrease in sexual dimorphism

140
Q

what is the homo erectus?

A

first hominin to leave africa

141
Q

what are Homo neanderthalensis?

A

lived in 350,000 to 28,000 years ago, initially in Europe

thick-boned with larger brain

buried their dead and made hunting tools

142
Q

what are homo sapiens?

A

appeared in Africa 195,000 years ago

all living humans are descended from these African ancestors

143
Q

what is homeostasis?

A

Maintenance of relatively constant internal environment

144
Q

what is endothermy?

A

Body temperature depends on internal (metabolic) heat production OR active mechanisms of heat loss

145
Q

what is ectothermy?

A

Body temperature depends on heat transfer to/from the environment

146
Q

what is poikilothermy?

A

Body temp more or less follows ambient temp

147
Q

what is homeothermy?

A

Body temp maintained constant regardless of external temperature

148
Q

what is heterothermy?

A

Body temp regulated different to the environmental temperature, some times, or some body regions

149
Q

what is an adaptation?

A

Biological changes over generations (i.e. genetic) due to selection of phenotypes best suited to the environmental conditions.

150
Q

what is acclimatization?

A

biological changes within an animal’s lifetime associated with climatic/natural variations that influence function or tolerance (usually > 1 environmental variable, e.g. At altitude light, temperature, O2, etc all change).

151
Q

what is acclimation?

A

Biological change within an animal’s lifetime simulated in the laboratory by varying a single environmental variable.

152
Q

What does the hypothalamus do?

A

senses and regulates body temp. in vertebrates

153
Q

what is vasoconstriction?

A

Blood shunted deeper within body (to conserve heat)

154
Q

what is vasodilation?

A

closer to skin surface (to lose heat)

155
Q

what happens in the thermal neutral zone?

A

Body temp regulated by blood flow to skin

156
Q

what is piloerection?

A

when hairs stand erect

157
Q

what is Thermogenesis by Shivering?

A

Skeletal muscles pull against each other (using ATP) –> HEAT

158
Q

what is Non-shivering Thermogenesis?

A

Specialised brown adipose tissue (Brown Fat)

Abundant mitochondria Rich blood supply

159
Q

why is it hard for water breathers to retain metabolic heat?

A

Gills = efficient heat exchangers

Water = conducts heat&raquo_space; effectively than air

160
Q

what is rete mirabile?

A

specialised red muscle in heterothermic fish line tuna

Counter current exchanger

returns heat leaving working muscle back to the muscle

161
Q

what is an advantage of heterothermy?

A

Difference in muscle power of heterotherm and ectotherm is a big advantage, especially when exploiting fish prey in colder waters…

162
Q

Q10 equation

A

Q10 = R2^(10/(T2-T1)
R1

163
Q

when is thermogenesis required?

A

< lower critical temp

164
Q

What kind of circulatory system do most invertebrates have? and describe it

A

open

arteries and veins not joined

165
Q

what is haemolymph?

A

equivalent to blood

high volume but low pressure

flows around tissues

166
Q

What kind of circulatory system do most vertebrates have? and describe it

A

closed

arteries and veins are joined by capillaries

blood flows within capillaries through tissues

higher pressures, low volume

167
Q

what are the advantages of a closed circulatory system?

A

Rapid circulation through vessels

Selective blood distribution possible

Allows retention in vessels of:
- cellular components
- large molecules
- proteins (hormone-binding
proteins, immunoglobulins)

168
Q

what are the disadvantages of a closed circulatory system?

A

higher energetic cost

169
Q

describe a fish circulatory system

A

Bony fishes, rays, and sharks

single circulation

two-chambered heart (1 Atrium, 1 Ventricle)

Blood leaving heart passes through two capillary beds (gills & systemic) before returning

170
Q

describe an amphibian circulatory system

A

3-chambers (2 Atria, 1 Ventricle)

Ventricle anatomy diverts most deoxy-blood to lung/skin, and most oxy-blood to systemic circuit

171
Q

describe a reptilian amphibian circulatory system

A

3-chambers (2 Atria, 1 Ventricle)

“Pulmonary” blood shunted to systemic circuit by arterial valves when under-water.

(Complete septum in crocodilians)

172
Q

describe a mammal and bird circulatory system

A

4-chambered heart (2 Atria, 2 Ventricles)

Complete separation of Pulmonary & Systemic circuits

Allows higher flow rates and pressures in both circuits

Key adaptation in endotherms (10 x greater energy turnover cf. Ectotherms)

173
Q

what does the right side of a human heart do?

A

Pumps deoxygenated blood to lungs (pulmonary circuit)

174
Q

what does the left side of a human heart do?

A

Pumps oxygenated blood to rest of body (systemic circuit)

175
Q

What is a cardiac muscle (myocardium) unique feature?

A

All have electrical continuity (Gap Junctions) – allows coordinated contraction

176
Q

what are the 3 types of fibre in the heart?

A

1) Sinoarterial (SA) node & atrioventricular (AV) node
(Small, weakly contractile, autorhythmic)

2) Inner Ventricle Wall
(Largest, weakly contractile but fast conduction)

3) Bulk of heart
(Medium, strongly contractile)

177
Q

what does myogenic mean?

A

generated within heart muscle itself (myocardium)

178
Q

what is the rhythm of the heart due to?

A

Pacemaker cells
= origin of Action Potential (AP) in
all myocardial cells (Autorhythmic)

179
Q

what is systole?

A

contraction phase

180
Q

what is diastole?

A

relaxation phase

181
Q

where are the pacemaker cells?

A

in SA Node

182
Q

are cardiac APs long or short lasting?

A

long

~300 ms

Due to Ca2+ channels remaining open (longer to re-polarise

183
Q

what is the heart beat cycle in vertebrates?

A

1) SA Node (Pacemaker cells) – AP starts

2) AP Spreads – through Atria (electrically coupled cells) –
–>CONTRACTION

3) AV Node – starts new (delayed) AP - spreads rapidly throughout Ventricles via:

bundles of his and purkinje fibres

184
Q

What does Adrenaline/Noradrenaline do?

A

Sympathetic input
SPEEDS UP

185
Q

what does Acetylcholine do?

A

Parasympathetic input
SLOWS DOWN

186
Q

what do neurotransmitters do?

A

influence the resting potentials of the pacemaker cells, speeding up or slowing the heart rate

187
Q

what is the cardiac output equation?

A

cardiac output = heart rate x stroke volume

(L/min) (beats/min) (L ejected/beat)

188
Q
A

Air Flow Rate x (Insp. – Exp.) [O2 ]
( L / min ) ( mmol O2 / L )
=
Cardiac Output x (Art. - Ven.) [O2 ]
( L / min ) ( mmol O2 / L )

189
Q

what is the structure of a blood vessel from out to in?

A

connective tissue

smooth muscle

endothelium

(capillary - just basal lamina then endothelium)

190
Q

what are the key differences between arteries and veins?

A

1 - Arteries are thicker and more elastic (higher blood pressure)

2 – Veins have valves (for unidirectional blood flow)

191
Q

what is the equation for mean arterial blood pressure?

A

Mean Arterial Blood Pressure (MABP)
= Diastolic BP + (⅓ Pulse Pressure)

192
Q

what is the equation for pulse pressure?

A

Pulse Pressure
(= Systolic BP – Diastolic BP)

193
Q

what is bradycardia?

A

decreased heart rate

194
Q

what is tachycardia?

A

increased heart rate

195
Q

what happens in diving mammals?

A

temporary slowing of metabolism in selected tissues

anearobic (glycolytic) respiration.

196
Q

how are diving mammals different to terrestrial mammals?

A

they have MUCH bigger:

Blood Volume
Haemoglobin concentration
Myoglobin content in tissues 
(extra O2 carrying pigment)

carry much more O2 stored within body

197
Q

what are the 5 requirements for gas exchange surfaces?

A
  1. permeable to gases
  2. moist
  3. thin
  4. large SA:V
  5. convection (larger animals)
198
Q

what are evaginations?

A

‘external’ gills

199
Q

what is the pleural cavity?

200
Q

what is the peritoneal cavity?

A

gut and other organs

201
Q

what is the pericardial cavity?

202
Q

why do we need convection?

A
  1. stirs boundary layers
  2. moves molecules faster than diffusion over long distances
203
Q

Describe Haemoglobin

A

in vertebrates

red

contains Fe2+

cellular

204
Q

describe haemocyanin

A

in arthropods and molluscs

blue

contains Cu2+

free solution

205
Q

what do pigments do in blood?

A

increase capacity for O2 in blood

206
Q

how is gas exchange achieved?

A
  1. simple diffusion
  2. convection of internal medium only
  3. convection of external medium only
  4. convection of internal and external media
207
Q

how is a unidirectional flow of water acheived?

A

active double pump system

ram ventilation

208
Q

what is ram ventilation?

A

relax muscles

use energy already spent on locomotion to drive water past gills

209
Q

describe the structure of the gills

A

operculum - protective covering

arches - 4 each side, cartilage, carry major blood vessels

filaments - 2 rows on each arch

lamellae - 2 rows on each filament, thin

210
Q

what are the units for partial pressure?

211
Q

what are the units for gas content?

A

ml O2 / L
mg O2 / L
mmol O2 / L

212
Q

what is the equation for O2 extraction efficiency %?

A

(inspired [O2] - expired [O2])
——————————————— x 100
inspired [O2]

213
Q

what are the advantages of coulter current O2 extraction?

A
  1. more efficient removal of O2 from water
  2. higher % blood O2 saturation possible
214
Q

Is O2 and CO2 content higher in water or in air?

A

O2 higher in air than water

CO2 solubility higher is water than O2

215
Q

what are the units for flow rate of water /blood?

A

ml / min
ml.min-1

216
Q

describe the mammal lung structure

A

trachea
bronchi
bronchioles
respiratory bronchioles
alveoli (= respiratory units)

217
Q

how many alveoli per lung?

A

150 million

218
Q

what are the 2 anatomical adaptations of bird lungs?

A
  1. unidirectional flow created by air sacs
  2. parabronchi
219
Q

What are 2 important features of mammalian lungs?

A
  1. mucus escalator - mucus traps debris and bacteria, cilia produce upwards movement
  2. surfactant - reduces surface tension in alveolar fluid layer
220
Q

when are the intercostal muscles used?

A

only during forced exhale

221
Q

what does a low turnover mean in terms of tidal ventilation?

A
  1. smaller changes in alveolar O2 and CO2
  2. lower average alveolar O2 content
  3. low extraction efficiency
222
Q

which receptors control breathing?

A

in medulla:

peripheral O2 receptors (aorta and carotid arteries) can modify breathing

CO2 sensors in medulla are most important for feedback and control of breathing

223
Q

what are the consequences of tidal ventilation?

A

tidal volume is small

low turnover of lung air per breath

224
Q

what is osmoregulation?

A

control of salts and water balance in internal fluids

225
Q

what are solutes?

A

anything dissolved in the solvent

226
Q

what are electrolytes?

A

ionised solutes

227
Q

what is salinity?

A

total salt concentration

228
Q

what is osmotic conc?

A

osmolarity

229
Q

what is an osmolyte?

A

anything exerting an osmotic pressure

230
Q

what is a hypo-osmotic solution?

A

more dilute outside

  • swelling, lysis
231
Q

what is a iso-osmotic solution?

A

same inside and out

  • influx = efflux
232
Q

what is a hyper-osmotic solution?

A

more con outside

  • shrinkage
233
Q

what is an osmoconformer?

A

body fluid osmolality similar to external environment

234
Q

what is an osmoregulater?

A

maintain body fluids different to external osmolality

235
Q

does a hypo-osmotic regulator have body fluid osmoality < or > external?

A

body fluid osmoality < external

236
Q

does a hyper-osmotic regulator have body fluid osmoality < or > external?

A

body fluid osmoality > external

237
Q

what does stenohaline mean?

A

narrow salinity range

just freshwater or just sea water

238
Q

what does euryhaline mean?

A

wide salinity range

from fresh to sea water or higher

239
Q

are most marine invertebrates osmoconformers or osmoregulators?

A

osmoconformers

240
Q

are all fresh water animals hyper or hypo-osmoregulators?

A

hyper-osmoregulators

241
Q

what are the main 3 osmotic strategies?

A
  1. osmoconform + ionoconform
    (hagfish)
  2. osmoconform but ionoregulate
    (elasmobrachs and coelacanths)
  3. osmoregulate and ionoregulate
    (teleosts and lamprey
242
Q

what do ATPases do?

A

used to create diffusion gradient that secondarily drives facilitated diffusion

243
Q

what is membrane potential?

A

voltage difference across a membrane
- created by differences in the distribution of positive and negative ions

244
Q

what is an electrochemical gradient?

A

the combo of 2 forces which drive the diffusion of ions across a membrane

245
Q

what is an electrogenic pump?

A

membrane protein that generates electrical potential across a membrane due to the resulting ion transport

246
Q

what are tight junctions?

A

barrier that limits transepithelial diffusion of molecules between adjacent cells

247
Q

what are the purpose of tight junctions?

A
  1. joins neighbouring cells together
  2. barrier between apical and basolateral membranes
248
Q

what are the 3 major nitrogen-excretory products?

A
  1. ammonia - (ammonotelic)
  2. urea - (ureotelic)
  3. uric acid - (ureotelic)
249
Q

which animals are ammonotelic?

A

all teleost fish, lampreys and hagfish

all aquatic invertebrates

250
Q

how is urea produced?

A

ornithine-urea cycle

  • most vertebrates except teleost fish
251
Q

what is communication?

A

process by which
signals transmitted to one or more
receivers, controlling/coordinating actions

252
Q

How does the endocrine system work?

A

Hormones synthesized by endocrine cells
in response to internal/environmental
stimuli

  • Released into bloodstream to target cells
    where trigger response by binding specific
    receptors
  • Signal transduction within cells brings
    about physiological response
  • Feedback control loops enable tight
    homeostatic control
253
Q

what are the 4 types of chemical signalling in the endocrine system?

A

Autocrine signalling

Paracrine signalling

Endocrine signalling

Neuroendocrine signalling

254
Q

what is the type of signalling in the nervous system?

A

synaptic signalling

255
Q

How does synaptic signalling work?

A

neurotransmitters diffuse short distances

trigger responses in interconnected cells

256
Q

how does endocrine signalling work?

A

secrete molecules into the bloodstream

trigger responses anywhere in body

257
Q

describe peptide hormones

A

often produced as larger precursors

water soluble (hydrophilic, lipophobic)

comprise the largest number of hormones, e.g. insulin

258
Q

describe amine hormones

A

Derived from amino-acid precursors

either water soluble (e.g. adrenaline, noradrenaline)

or water insoluble (thyroid hormone)

259
Q

describe steroid hormones

A

Synthesised from cholesterol, primarily in the adrenals and gonads

Water insoluble (lipophilic or hydrophobic)

e.g. estrogens, androgen, cortisol

260
Q

describe fatty acid derivatives (Eicosanoids)

A

derived from polyunsaturated fatty acids (e.g. arachidonic acid)

Water insoluble (lipophilic)

e.g. prostaglandins

261
Q

how are the hormones secreted depending on water solubility?

A

water soluble - secreted by exocytosis, transported freely in blood

water insoluble - require special transport proteins

262
Q

describe the response for water soluble hormones

A

Hormone binding to receptor initiates signal transduction pathway, leading to response in cytoplasm.

e.g. enzyme activation, cytoskeleton movements, membrane transport
activation, altered gene expression – (less common)

263
Q

What does adrenaline binding cause?

A

G protein activation (binds GTP)

activates adenylyl cyclase enzyme

catalyses conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP)

cAMP = rapid rise e.g. 20x in secs, short lived

264
Q

what does cAMP cause?

A

activation of protein kinase A

enzyme activation/inactivation

265
Q

what does protein kinase A do?

A

inhibition of glycogen synthesis

promotion of glycogen breakdown

266
Q

describe the response of lipid soluble hormones

A

Steroids, thyroid hormones, and hormonal form of vitamin D enter target cells, bind to protein receptors in cytoplasm or nucleus

Protein-receptor complexes act as transcription factors in nucleus regulating
transcription of specific genes

267
Q

what does insulin do to blood glucose levels?

A

decreases them

produced by pancreatic beta cells

268
Q

what does glucagon do to blood glucose levels?

A

increases them

produced by pancreatic alpha cells

269
Q

what is type 1 diabetes?

A

insulin-dependent

autoimmune disorder in which the immune system destroys pancreatic beta cells

270
Q

what is type 2 diabetes?

A

non-insulin-dependent

insulin resistance: deficiency or reduced response of target cells due to change in insulin receptor

271
Q

what does the hypothalamus do?

A

Hypothalamus sends signals to the pituitary chemically (anterior pituitary AP) or through
neurosecretory cells (posterior pituitary PP)

Hypothalamus receives nervous stimuli from receptors throughout the body monitoring chemical and physical
status e.g. temperature; blood pressure; nutrients, hormonal status

272
Q

what does the posterior pituitary hormones do?

A

2 hormones act directly on non-endocrine tissues

Oxytocin regulates milk secretion in mammary glands

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) regulates kidney physiology and behaviour e.g. thirst

273
Q

which animals dont have a type of nervous system?

274
Q

why are cephalopod giant axon useful?

A

first quantitative model of the electrical excitability of neurons was described for giant axons

275
Q

what do sensory neurones do?

A

detect external stimuli and internal conditions.

276
Q

describe neurone structure?

A

Dendrites: highly branched extensions that receive signals from other neurons

Axon: longer extension, covered with myelin sheath, transmits signals to other cells at synapses

277
Q

what are glia?

A

supporting cells, essential for structural
integrity and normal functioning of neurons

278
Q

what are the glia that form myelin sheaths around axons of many vertebrate neurons called?

A

Oligodendrocytes (CNS) and Schwann cells (PNS)

279
Q

what is the resting potential?

A

Membrane potential of a neuron that is not transmitting signals

  • 50mV
280
Q

what does resting potential depend on?

A

ionic gradients

281
Q

what is electrochemical equilibrium?

A

When chemical gradient and electrical gradient are equal

282
Q

what is an electrical synapse?

A

electrical current flows directly from one cell to another via gap junction

283
Q

what is a chemical synapse?

A

presynaptic neuron releases chemical
neurotransmitters, which are stored in synaptic terminal