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NDAEB boards exam > exam > Flashcards

exam Flashcards

1
Q

what are the CDAA code of ethics

A

be responsible to patients
be responsible to the public
be responsible to the profession

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2
Q

what happens to dental professionals when they report suspicions of abuse

A

nothing will hjappen to the dental professional because they are considered to be mandated reporters

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3
Q

what is informed consent

A

consent given by patient after he or she is informed about all the details of a procedure

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4
Q

functions of the teeth

A

incisors - cuts food and lingual side is shaped like a shovel to guide food into the mouth

canines- cuts and tears food

premolars - buccal cusps hold food, while lingual cusps grind food

molars - used to chew or grind food

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5
Q

what are the bones of the head

A

frontal
parietal
sphenoid
ethmoid
temporal
nasal
lacrimal
vomer
mandible
zygomatic
inferior nasal conchae
maxilla

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6
Q

what are the sutures of the head

A

coronal - connects frontal to parietal
lambdoidal - connects parietal to occipital
sagittal - connects both parietal
squamous - connects parietal to temporal

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7
Q

what are the parts of the tmj

A

glenoid fossa, articular eminence, condyloid process

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8
Q

what are disorders of the tmj

A

acute masticatory muscle - muscle inflammation and spasms

articular disc derangement - disc is displaced

extrinisc trauma - dislocation of joint

joint disease - degenerative and inflammatory arthritis

chronic mandibular hypomobility - damage to joint resulting in limited movements

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9
Q

what are the muscles of the face

A

orbicularis oris, buccinator, mentalis, zygomatic major

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10
Q

what are the muscles of mastication

A

temporalis, masseter, internal and external pterygoid

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11
Q

what are the muscles of the mouth

A

mylohyoid, digastric, stylohyoid, geniohyoid

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12
Q

what are the muscles of the soft palate

A

palatoglossus, palatopharyngeal

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13
Q

what are the salivary glands and the ducts associated with it

A

parotid gland - attached to stensens duct and is lcoated on the sides of the cheek

submandibular gland. - attached to whartons ducts and is located on the side of the jaw

sublingual gland - atatched to batholins duct and is located under the tongue

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14
Q

what are the sinuses

A

maillary sinuses - located in the cheeks

frontal sinuses - located on the forehead

ethmoid sinuses - located near the nsoe bridge

sphenoid sinuses - located near the temples

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15
Q

dentinogenesis imperfecta

A

a hereditary conditions that affects formation of the dentin

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16
Q

fissured tongue

A

top of the tongue is amrked by deep pits and fissures or grooves which can get irritated when food gets stuck

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17
Q

tori

A

bony overgrowth

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18
Q

exostoses

A

bening bony growht projecting outward from the outside surface of the jaw

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19
Q

tetracycline staining

A

staining of dentition due to treatment with tetracycline during tooth formation

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20
Q

dental fluorosis

A

mottled enamel - ingestion ofe xcessive fluoride

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21
Q

ulcer

A

a defect of the mucosa that results in a punched out area (like a crater)

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22
Q

erosion of soft tissue

A

shallow defect in the mucosa

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23
Q

abscess

A

a localized collection of pus in an area

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24
Q

cyst

A

a closed sac that is ligned with epithelium and contains fluid or semisolid material

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25
Q

blisters

A

filled with a watery fluid

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26
Q

types of bacteria

A

coccci - spherical bacteria that cause: pharyngeitis, tonsilitis, pneumona

bacilli - rod shaped bacteria that cause: tuberculosis

spirochetes - spiral shaped bacteria that can cause: lyme disease, syphilis

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27
Q

spores

A

bacteria that is highly resistant

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28
Q

fungi

A

organisms that lack chlorophyll and can cause candida

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29
Q

viruses

A

can live and multiply only inside an appropriate host cell, it invades the cell and replicates and destroys host cell

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30
Q

what are the modes of transmission

A

direct transmission - from one person to another

indirect transmission - from one person to an object, and from object to another person

airborne transmission - spread through droplets of moisture

parenteral transmission - transmission through cuts or punctures

blood-borne transmission - pathogens carried in the blood and transmitted to others

food and water transmission - through contaminated food that has not been cooked properly

fecal-oral transmission - when proper sanitation procedures are not followed

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31
Q

chain of infection

A

mode of spread
portal of entry
susceptible host
pathogenic agent
reservoir
portal of exit

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32
Q

what is considered for dosages of medications

A

age of patient
weight
time of day
aptient tolerance

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33
Q

what are analgesics

A

for relief of acute pain, chronic pain, postop psin

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34
Q

what are antibiotics

A

can directly kill an infecting organism

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35
Q

why are pre-medications used

A

prevents the bacterial colonization while undergoing dental treatment

for patients with prosthetic cardiac valves, congenital heart disease

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36
Q

superscription

A

patients name, address, weight and age

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37
Q

inscription

A

main body of the prescription that includes drugs name, form, dose and number of tablets

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38
Q

subscription

A

directions to the pharmacist for information included in the label

39
Q

signature

A

instructions for patient on how to take medicine, when ti take it and how much

40
Q

methods of pre-cleaning

A

ultrasonic cleaning
- used to loosen and remove debris from insturments and reduces hand injury

41
Q

methods of disinfection

A

automated washers - recirculates hot water and detergents to remove organic materials then is automatically dried

42
Q

methods of steri

A

steam autoclave - sterilizes by means of steam under pressure

unsaturated chemical vapor - combination of chemical and water vapor

dry heat - heats up air and transfers onto instruments

ethylene oxide - uses ethylene gas

liquid chemical - sterilizes insturments that cannot be put through heat

43
Q

types of waste

A

general
hazardous
contamianted
infectious
blood and blood soakes
pathologic
sharps

44
Q

management of an exposure incident

A
  1. document the route of exposure and circumstances
  2. identify and document the source individual if possible
  3. request the source individual has their blood tested for hiv
  4. advise employee to hace their blood tested for hiv
  5. provide medically indicated prophylactic treatmetn
  6. provide appropriate counselling
  7. evaluate reported illnesses
45
Q

who owns patient records

A

the dentist

46
Q

what should be completed when updating patient records

A

personal information

health and dental hystory, vital signs, medications, med alerts

intra oral and extra oral examination diagnoses

oral hygiene indicies and periodontal notations

diagnostic records

consent forms, financial and insurance information

treatment plan and progress notes

47
Q

explain the rationale for obtaining and recording vital signs

A

the dental team is confirming that the patients health status is at a level of wellbeing before the procedure starts

48
Q

whats the purpose of a visual evaluation

A

allows the dentist to determine an overall assesment by checking the soft tissues and tooth structures

49
Q

what is the purpose of a palpation test

A

uses the fingers and hands to feel the texture and consistency of the hard and soft tissue

50
Q

whats the purpose of a preliminary impression

A

used to create an accurate reproduction of the teeth and surrounding tissues

51
Q

what is the purpose of a final impression

A

used to produce the exact detail of the teeth and surrounding tissues

52
Q

what is the purpose of a bite registration

A

taken by the dentist to produce reproductionof the occlusal relationship of the max and mand teeht when the mouth is occluded

53
Q

what are components of the xray machine

A

tubehead
metal housing
tubehead seal
xray tube
transformer
pid
extension arm
control panel

54
Q

what is quality in relation to xrays

A

describes the energy or penetrating ability of the xray beam

controlled by kv

55
Q

what is the quantity in relation to xrays

A

refers to the number of xrays produced

is measured by ma

56
Q

what type of changes can exposure radiation do to the human body

A

cumulative effect - repeated exposure where some tissues are damaged and some can repair some of the damage

acute effect - occurs when a alrge dose of radiation is absorbed in a short period

chronic effect - occurs when small amounts of radiation are absorbed repeatedly over a long period

genetic - damage to genetic cells are passed on to succeeding generations

somatic - xrays can damage somatic tissue but damage from somatic effect is not passed onto future generations

57
Q

what do periapical images show and rationale for their use

A

shows the entire totoh from the occlusal surface to the apex

used to diagnose pathologic conditions of the tooth, root and bone

58
Q

what do bitewings show and rationale for their usr

A

shows the upper and lower teeth in occlusion

is used to detect interproximal decay, recurrent decay etc

59
Q

what do panoramic images show and the rationale for their use

A

allows the dentist to view the entire dentition and related structures in a single image

60
Q

what pre-exposure information is needed to be said to patient

A

risks and benefits of radiographic procedures

person who will be exposing rads

number and type of radiographs

consequences of not having the rads

alternative diagnostic aids

61
Q

what is, signs and symptoms of syncope

A

caused by an imbalance in the distribution of blood to the brain causing patient to lose consciousness

can be due to:
- stress
- fear
- same position for a long time
- skipping meals

62
Q

what is posutral hypotension and its signs and symptoms

A

a level of altered consciousness that may lead to loss of consciousness

occurs due to insufficient blood flow to the brain and can occurs to a patient immediately after sudden change in positioning

63
Q

what is angina

A

severe chest pain because the heart msucle is deprived of adequate oxygen

64
Q

acute myocardial infarction

A

heart attack
occurs because of insurfficient oxygen supply to muscles of the heart causing damage

65
Q

cerebrvasculat accident

A

stroke, due to interruption of blood flow to the brain

66
Q

hyperventilation

A

an increase in the frequency of depth of respiration

67
Q

asthma attack

A

a pulmonary disorder characterized by attacks of sudden onset during which the patients airways narrow

68
Q

allergic reaction

A

altered state of reactivity that occurs in body tissues in response to an antigen

69
Q

epileptic seixure

A

a neurologic disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of seizures

70
Q

diabetes mellitus

A

a metabolic disorder that results from disturbances in the bodys normal insulin mechanism

hyperglycemia - abnormal increase in glucose levels
hypoglycemia - abnormal decrease in glucose levels

71
Q

nerve innervations of teeth max

A

anterior superior alveolar nerve - innervates buccal surface of anterior teeth

middle superior alveolar nerve- innervates premolars and mesial of the 6

posterior superior alveolar nerve- innervates distal of the 6 and all molars

infraorbital nerve - innervates anteriors and premolars

nasopalatine - innervates lingual of all anteriors

greater palatine - innervates lingual of premolars and molars

72
Q

what can cause adverse reactions from anesthetic

A

injecting into a blood vessel

infected areas - can delay effects of anesthetic

localized and toxic reactions

systemic reactions

temporary numbness

paresthesia

73
Q

what are the different types of sedation and anesthesia

A

inhalation sedation
intravenous sedation
general anesthesia

74
Q

contraindications for administration of sedation and anesthesia

A

nausea and vertigo
behavioural challenges
chronic pulmonary disorders
cardiac diseases
first trimester
critically ill patients

75
Q

indications and contraindications of a saliva ejector

A

indications - preventive procedures, controls saliva accumulation under the dam

contraindications - not powerful enough to remove solid debris

76
Q

indications of HVE

A

keeps the mouth free of saliva, blood and debris

retracts the tongue and cheek

reduces bacterial aerosols

77
Q

classification of cavities

A

class I - pits and fissures of posterior teeth

class II - proximals of posterior teeth

class III - proximals of incisors and canines

class IV - proximals of incisors and canines and the incisal edge

class V - gingival third of all teeth

class VI - cusp tips

78
Q

what are the functions and benefits of liners

A

palced in the deep areas of a cavity prep to provide a barrier between the tooth and resto materials

79
Q

types of cavity liners

A

calcium hydroxide
- stimulates production of secondary dentin but cannot be used on enamel

glass ionomer
- releases fluoride and can bond onto enamel and dentin

80
Q

what are the functions and benefits of bases

A

designed to provide pulpal defense

there are three types
- protective, insulating and sedative

81
Q

types of protective bases

A

placed to protect the pulp before the restoration is placed
polycarboxylate
- can be placed under all types of direct and indirect restos

82
Q

types of insulating bases

A

placed in a deep prep to protect the tooth from thermal shock

zinc oxide eugenol
- cannot be used uner composite resin, glass ionomer and other resins

zinc phosphate
- phosphoric acid can be irritating to pulp

83
Q

types of sedative bases

A

helps soother a pulp that has been damaged by decay

glass ionomer
- releases fluoride

84
Q

indications and contraindications of amalgam

A

indications
- primary and permanent teeth
- used in stess bearing areas
- small to medium sized cavities
- patients commitment to personal hygiene is poor
- moisture control is problematic

contraindications
- esthetics is not important
- history of allergy to mercury
- cost

85
Q

what is amalgam composed of

A

alloy powders and silver, tin,copper, zinc and mercury

86
Q

indications and contraindications of composite resin

A

indications
- class I-V restorations
- surface defects
- closure of diastema
- estehtic recontouring of teeth

contraindications
- patients with high risk caries
- poor roal hygiene
- heavy occlusal stress
- cost

87
Q

temp resto materials

A

irm

88
Q

what are the side effects which may result from tooth whitening

A

sensitivity and tissue irritation

89
Q

what are factors that affect occlusion

A

developmental causes
environmental causes
acquired causes
trauma

90
Q

what are the causes of periodontal disease

A

bacterial plaque
calcium deposits
calculus

91
Q

what are symptoms of periodontal disease

A
  • red, swollen gingiva
  • bleeding gingiva
  • loose or separating teeth
  • pain and pressure when chewing
  • pus around the teeth
92
Q

describe the caries process

A

a susceptible tooth and a diet rich in fermentable carbs

93
Q
A

NDAEB boards exam (1 decks)

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