Exam 17 Wrong Answers Flashcards
In pricing a new issue, a municipal bond underwriter would most likely check
The 30-day visible supply
FINRA bylaws which relate to a member firm’s dealings with the public are provided for in the
Conduct Rules
Which of the following is not required on confirmations?
CUSIP
All of the following are duties of a transfer agent except
Holding customers’ securities for safekeeping
In early May, a customer buys 100 SOP at 27 and writes one SOP Oct 30 call for 3. This is his first option transaction and takes place in his cash account. The initial option order ticket must be written as an opening
Covered sale
The announcement that must be filed in connection with a Regulation D offering is
An offering memorandum
Which annuity provision guarantees payments as long as the annuitant lives?
Mortality guarantee
The responsibility of a broker/dealer’s cashiering department is all of the following except
Handling the execution of a customer’s orders
Which of the following statements is not true concerning a non qualified deferred compensation plan?
Any investments grow on a tax-free basis
A convertible preferred is convertible at $20 per share. The stock is currently selling on the market at $120. Which of the following are correct statements is correct?
The common stock must be selling at $24 to be at parity with the preferred stock
Which of the following is true of customer complaints received by an NYSE member?2
They must be maintained in a central file in the home office
Both written and oral complaints must be maintained
An investor is long 100 shares XYZ and sells a call. The investor is
Conservative
An investor writes an XYZ May 25 put and buys an XYZ May 35 put. This position 2
Is a debit spread
Loses money if premiums narrow
Jack owns 300 shares of cumulative, convertible preferred stock. All of the statements below are true except
The issuing company could call the stock at par value
The MSRB was created by
The Securities Amendment Act of 1975
Yield curve analysis is useful to an investor purchasing debt securities for which of the following reasons?2
Allows the comparison of rates of return as maturities are extended
Is useful in determining the market expectations for interest rates
A registered representative associate with a municipal broker/dealer firm has received a written customer complaint. Which two of the following are required by the broker/dealer and the associated person?
The firm would be required to send an investor brochure to the customer
The registered representatives immediately tell their supervising principal
A man is 52 years old. He is terminating his employment at a state university. He is fully vested in a 457(b) plan. If he withdraws the money from his 457(b) plan,
He must pay income tax
Which of the following securities acts governs the variable annuity separate account?
Investment Company Act of 1940
Which of the following is a US government agency backed by the full faith and credit of the US government?
GNMA
Which of the following is a lagging indicator?
Average prime rate
Concerning the reporting of last sale price information for OTC stocks, which of the following is true?
Last-sale price information is available on OTC transactions in the National Market System
The FINRA bylaw category which defines the proper methods for handling securities violations and complaints is the
Code of Procedure
If the Federal Reserve Board through the FOMC (Federal Open Market Committee) lowers the discount rate, which of the following will decline?2
T-bill discount rate
Federal funds rate
Which of the following are required by the MSRB on each trade confirmation2
Principal or agent capacity
Broker/dealer’s phone number
The responsibility for the payment of principal and interest on an industrial development revenue bond issue rests with the
Corporate guarantor
With a variable annuity, which of the following factors are not involved in determining the amount of an annuitant’s first annuity payment?
The number of annuity units
Under Rule 144A, a qualified institutional buyer has
At least $100 million in assets under discretionary management