Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Describe an experiment to test the effect of a JAK inhibitor on IFN activation in vitro. What materials are needed and what is the readout method?

A

Culture PBMCs with a JAK inhibitor. THe readout is IFN stimulated gene expression or IFN protein, although gene expression is better since there are so many IFN subsets that an easy way to test for all of them is quite difficult in a protein array.

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2
Q

Give three different reasons why you expect more of these inhibitors as treatment for IFN positive systemic autoimmune diseases than from antibodies blocking the cytokine IFN type I.

A
  1. Antibodies blocking IFN type 1 are unlikely to block all different subtypes
  2. small molecule inhibitors are cheaper and can be taken orally as opposed to those blocking IFN type 1 itself, since it needs to be injected.
  3. JAK inhibitors are more upstream and also block signal transduction of other cytokine receptors
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3
Q

Decribe in the correct order the 4 steps of ADCC by which anti-TPO autoantibodies cause thyroid tissue damage in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

A
  1. TPO is expressed by thyrocytes. Autoantibodies bind to TPO.
  2. NK cells interact with the FC-receptor of these antibodies through cross-linking
  3. NK cells are then activated and degranulate
  4. The thyrocyte undergoes apoptosis and is destroyed
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4
Q

Name four (4) cells in the bone that are important for bone formation/remodeling and what are their functions?

A

Hematopoetic stem cells - progenitors of osteoclasts
Mesenchymal stem cells - progenitors of osteoblasts, adipocytes and chondrocytes
osteoblasts - bone formation
osteoclasts - bone resorption
Osteocytes - mechanosensing of microfractures

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5
Q

Implantation of a blastocyst is required for a successful pregnancy.
How would you set up a study in an animal model to find out the contribution of dendritic cells to a successful implantation?

A

cd11c DC deletion and study a number of successful pregnancies in comparison with wildtype

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6
Q

An endometrial biopsy during non-pregnant conditions makes the uterine wall receptive for blastocyst implantation. What mechanism is underlying this observation?

A

The biopsy induces an inflammatory response, which is important for blastocyst implementation

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7
Q

Mention 2 different mechanisms of how HLA-G induces tolerance in pregnancy

A

NK cells are induced into a tolerogenic state, leading to production of anti-inflammatory cytokines and growth factors
DC maturation stop

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8
Q

Mention 2 properties of trophoblasts that contribute to tolerance development from the mother towards the fetus?

A

They lack MHC II
They have a variable expression of MHC I
They express HLA-G

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9
Q

IFN activation plays a role in the pathogenesis of systemic autoimmunity.
Put the following terms that are involved in the IFN activation pathway in the right order and explain the process.
-Expression IFN
-pDC
-activation TLR7 and 9
-BAFF
-IFN induced gene expression
-immune complexes

A

-TLR7 and TLR9 are somehow induced in pDC which leads to the expression of IFN. This causes monocytes to produce BAFF, which activates B cells to differentiate into plasma cells and leads to the production of auto-antibodies, immune complex formation and that in turn activates TLR7 and TRL9 again.

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10
Q

Give two arguments supporting the relevance of IFN activation in the pathogenesis of systemic autoimmunity.

A

(1) There is a correlation with disease activity and auto-antibodies compared to healthy individuals, and (2) injection of IFN leads to the development of systemic autoimmunity.

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11
Q

Graves’ ophthalmopathy is an extrathyroidal complication of Graves’
disease. Which autoantibody type contributes to the development of Graves’
ophthalmopathy?

A

Auto-antibodies against TSH receptors. These receptors are also expressed in orbital fibroblasts and leads to adipogenesis, causing inflammation and accumulation of fat in the orbital cavity, resulting in the characteristic bulging of the eyes.

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12
Q

HLA class I genes are extremely polymorphic. For instance, hundreds of different HLA-A alleles have been identified. Although HLA class I genes consist of 8 exons, especially polymorphisms in two of these exons are responsible for this highly polymorphic character.
Which specific protein domains of an HLA-class I molecule are encoded by these exons?

A

Exons 2 and 3 encode the alpha1 and alpha 2 domains, respectively

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13
Q

What is the molecular impact of the polymorphisms in these exons?

A

The alpha1 and alpha2 domains together form the peptide binding cleft. Polymorphisms in exons 2 and 3 are thus responsible for the amino acid variability in the peptide binding cleft and thus determine which peptides can be presented by HLA I molecules to T cells.

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14
Q

Fetal trophoblasts and uterine NK cells have an optimal make up for tolerance induction.
List the following characteristics that contribute to tolerance induction under fetal trophoblasts or uterine NK cells:
-derived from local hematopoietic precursor
-production IL-10
-secretion HLAG
-expression inhibitory receptors
-lack of MHC II expression
-secretion proangiogenic factors
-transfer immunoglobulins
-HLA-C expression

A

Fetal trophoblasts:
-secretion of HLA-G
-lack of MHC II expression
-transfer immunoglobulins
-HLA-C expression

uterine NK cells:
-derived from local hematopoetic precursor
-production of IL-10
-expression of inhibitory receptors
-secretion of proangiogenic factors

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15
Q

Why is CRISPR/CAS9 much more useful than using restriction enzymes to create cell lines with mutations in specific genes?

A

It is possible to target one specific gene with the CRISPR/Cas9 system, while restriction enzymes cut many times in the genome. Therefore, it is not possible to target one specific gene with restriction enzyme digestion.

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16
Q

Describe the elements needed to create a specific gene knock out.

A

You need at least a Cas9 expression construct and a guide RNA (gRNA) with the specific sequence to target the gene interest.

17
Q

What additional DNA construct would you need to make a specific point mutation in the genome, rather than a knock out?

A

A DNA vector containing the sequence of the gene to be targeted with the specific point mutation in it, so homologous recombination can insert the point mutation into the genome at the site of the DNA break introduced by Cas9.

18
Q

You want to study the pathogenesis of virus X. Mention three reasons that would make you select non-human primates instead of small rodents for development of an animal model to study the pathogenesis of virus x.

A
  1. Susceptibility of infection
  2. Productive virus replication
  3. Reproduction of clinical signs
  4. Closely related to humans
19
Q

Virus x is the causative agent of pneumonia in humans. Explain what route of inoculation you would use (explain why), and explain which clinical speciment you would collect at different times after inoculation for assessment of virus replication and pulmonary virus replication and immune responses.

A

Intratracheal inoculation to ensure complete delivery of the virus dose into the lungs, which improves reproductibility in the model. Pulmonary virus replication can be detected in broncho-alveolar lavage samples (both BAL cells and BAL fluid).

20
Q

How are pharmacokinetics (PK) and pharmacodynamics (PD) defined? Describe in such a wat that the difference between those terms is emphasized.

A

PK = the fate of drugs administered to a living organism/how the organism affects the drug
PD = the effects of drugs / how the drug affects the organism

21
Q

Explain how research on PK and PD in experimental animals is essential for dosing of pharmaceutical drugs in humans.

A

PK/PD research in experimental animals results in a pharmacodynamic index with a certain magnitude (pharmacodynamic target) that should be obtained in patients. The index and target can be extrapolated to humans for setting dosing schemes in clinical trials.

22
Q

Antibiotic X might be a new antibiotic. After in vitro studies, in vivo studies in animals ae started. Result of the study half-life of antibiotic X is very short (~15 minutes). Describe an experiment in experimental animals to efficiently study the pharmacodynamic index that can describe the PK/PD relationship for Antibiotic X. Include in your answer: experimental animal, infection model, timing of actions, example(s) of dosing frequency, outcome parameter(s).

A

Mouse or rat
Infection followed by antibiotic administration
Dosing frequency (ex) every 1, 2, 4 hours, 2, 4, 8, etc..
Outcome: bacterial counts/CFU or colony forming units/bacterial load in relevant organ

23
Q

Data from ancient hepatitis B virus and parvovirus B19 genome sequences revealed that the evolutionary rates of these viruses as ferived from virus genome sequences over the last few decades alone were highly over-estimated. What is the explanation for the fact that evolutionary rates calculated over short time frames were higher than evolutionary rate calculated using ancient virus genome sequences?

A

Most substitutions observed in recent virus genomes revert back to the previous state (as a consequence of fitness losses) and these mutations do not contribute to long-term evolutionary rates

24
Q

What is the consequence of overestimation of evolutionary rates on more recent genomes for inferences of taxon ancestry dates using phylogeny?

A

The ancestry of taxons in a dated tree is too young, thus most common recent ancestors are older than inferred from only recent data.

25
Q

How can the problem of over-estimation of evolutionary rates be solved in the future?

A

Phylogeny tools need to be calibrated using computational methods, and preferably data on ancient genomes

26
Q

WHat is an OTU (operational taxonomic unit) and how are OTUs constructed in a micobiome sample?

A

A clasification group of closely related microorganisms. It is a virtual species. They are grouped when the 16s rRNA gene sequence homology is 97% or higher.

27
Q

What is the difference between a principal component analysis (PCA) and principal coordinate analysis? (PCoA)

A

PCA is a method to analyze the actual composition of the sample, whereas PCoA analyzes the difference between the samples.

28
Q

Respiratory virus transmission via 1) contact, and 2) aerosol/droplets can be studies in guinea pigs and ferrets. Give one advantage and one disadvantage of the ferret and 1 advantage and disadvantage of the guinea pig models for aerosol/droplet transmission.

A

Ferret:
- Advantages: Susceptibility to virus infection similar to humans, disease similar to humans, anatomy of airways representative of humans, receptor distribution similar to humans, natural transmission model
- Disadvantages: Poor statistics (ethics), expensive, large aggressive animals

Guinea pig:
- Advantages: Small, cheap, can be house in climate chambers
- Disadvantages: Does not reproduce human susceptibility, disease, anatomy, receptor distribution, still lots of animals needed for experiments.

29
Q

Explain why ferrets and guinea pig models may be more useful to study aerosol/droplet transmission than to study contact transmission.

A

There is too much influence of animal behavior on the efficiency of contact transmission to be representative of what we see in humans. For airborne transmission, there is less impact of animal behavior, and the read-out mostly represents physical properties of viruses in/from the airways.

30
Q

What is the meaning of the term “3Rs” in animal research.

A

Replacement - Reduction - Refinement.
Replacement: Use alternative methods to avoid or replace animals to answer your research question.
Reduction: use methods that minimize the number of animals required to answer your research question.
Refinement: Use methods that minimize animal suffering and improve animal welfare

31
Q

What is the function of the added matrix-compound in the MALDI-TOF technique?

A

Ionization of target molecules

32
Q

Could you mention 4 applications in which Mass spectrometry is applied?

A

Forgery
Drug testing
Clinical chemistry
Life sciences
Proteomics
Flavors
Fragrances
Antibiotic resistance determinations
Forensics

33
Q

What is the difference in microbiota profiling using metatranscriptomics or using metagenomicss?

A

Metagenomics addresses the total gene function content that is present in the sample, whereas metatranscriptomics addresses only the gene functions that are actually expressed in the sample