Exam 16 Capt Remake Flashcards
Please download the in-basket before starting. (BISP: Ch4 Add6, Ch5 Ref 1.1, 9.4, PA/ID 1-2011, 1-90 Add5, 4-89, 1-2013, 2-2013, AUC 358, AUC 259, SB 7, Reg 25) FF Smith was taken to the hospital from the scene of a 2nd alarm at 394 Elderts Lane after falling off of a ladder. The member broke his ankle and is expected to make a full recovery. When does his CD-72 need to be initiated and submitted?
A: Within 24 hours with or without the member’s signature and/or narrative.
B: Within 24 hours and shall always include the member’s signature and narrative.
C: Within 7 days with or without the member’s signature and/or narrative.
D: Within 7 days and shall always include the member’s signature and narrative.
C-
Explanation:
SB 7 4.1
In which of the following instances is proper use of hydrant discs carried by companies demonstrated?
A: A White disc was placed on the 3 inch siamese connection of a building with an out of service standpipe system.
B: A Yellow disc was placed on a frozen siamese connection of a NYCHA building.
C: A Blue disc was placed on a frozen hydrant.
D: A White disc was placed on a hydrant found to be draining slowly, but otherwise serviceable.
A-
Explanation:
A. Out of service hydrants or fire protection systems for (Engine Ops Ch 6 6.5.2)
B. Yellow-Frozen hydrants only. (Engine Ops Ch 6 6.5.2)
C. Yellow Disc (Engine Ops Ch 6 6.5.2)
D. Unserviceable hydrants get a white disc
Ladder 188 needed to purchase gasoline for tools so members headed to the gas station to fill up their gasoline can. Which of the following statements is correct concerning their “can card?”
A: Enter “99999” for the odometer reading.
B: They can fill up a maximum of 2 five gallon cans each visit.
C: Each unit will be issued only one, single can card.
D: This card may also be used to purchase fuel for FDNY vehicles.
A-
Explanation:
A. Requisitions and Payroll Chapter 1 1.7.4
B. Can cards are authorized for a maximum of five gallons of fuel per week 1.7.4
C. Each unit will be issued two can cards. 1.7.2
D. Not to be used to purchase gasoline for vehicles 1.7.2
Units scheduled for morning training activities must leave from their quarters, with the day tour members, no later than ___ hours.
A: 0900 hrs
B: 0915 hrs
C: 0930 hrs
D: 0945 hrs
B-
Explanation:
AUC 287 5.1.3
Reserve Engine 506 has been activated for a large area brush fire in the borough of Staten Island. Upon conclusion of operations and return to quarters where this apparatus is stored, the officer on duty in the unit at which the apparatus is stored compares the outstanding RT-2 with the tools and equipment returned with the reserve apparatus. The officer finds some equipment missing and would be correct to take all of the actions below except?
A: Immediately notify the administrative battalion chief.
B: Record particulars in the company journal.
C: Immediately notify the officer who was in charge of the reserve apparatus to forward a Lost Property Report and to make appropriate notifications.
D: Prepare and forward a report to the Chief of Department, documenting the missing items and explaining the circumstances of the loss.
C-
Explanation:
A. AUC 259 7.5.3
Ladder 51’s OV FF radio is malfunctioning so the officer prepares to replace it with a spare HT. The officer was correct in all actions below except in which choice?
A: He called the Division HT depot to obtain a spare.
B: He had the OV FF use the adjoining 4-FF Engine’s (E-38) Door FF radio while waiting for the spare.
C: L-51’s officer knew he was responsible for updating the Spare Radio Application.
D: He used the adjoining 4-FF Engine’s (E-38) Door FF radio because the radio depot’s HT supply was depleted.
C-
Explanation:
C. The officer on duty at the HT depot is responsible for updating the Spare Radio Application (Comm Ch 11 Add 3 2.2)
A knowledgeable officer should know that the Transport Index (TI) of a package should not exceed ____ mR/hr and the total TI of a vehicle’s shipment may not exceed ___ mR/hr.
A: 10; 100
B: 10; 50
C: 1; 10
D: 1; 5
B-
Explanation:
ERP Add 4 2.5.5, 2.5.6
You are the Lt of Engine 401, arriving 1st-due at a 2 1/2-story peaked roof private dwelling with heavy fire reported in the cellar. Battalion 65 will be delayed and as you are the highest ranking officer on scene, you are designated the Incident Commander. You know that all of the following actions below are correct except in one choice. Indicate the incorrect action.
A: The Ladder company operating on the first floor reported an advanced cellar fire so you ordered an exterior hoseline operated into the cellar window for a quick knockdown
B: You made sure no members were operating in the cellar before ordering the exterior hoseline operated into the cellar window
C: You allowed members operating on the first floor to secure an area of refuge, ensuring a ready means of egress prior to ordering the exterior hoseline operated into the cellar window
D: You transmitted an “Urgent,” as this is always necessary prior to ordering an exterior hoseline operated into the cellar window
D-
Explanation:
D) This should be done when a CHIEF orders repositioning the first line from the first floor into the cellar
FFP PD Ch 3 sec 2.6, 2.7.4
During company drill, Lt Flanders was discussing engine operations with his company. In which statement below was Lt Flanders incorrect?
A: 1 3/4 inch hose use would be inappropriate for a large body of fire in a large uncompartmented area.
B: The maximum pressure in normal hose lines should be limited to 250 psi.
C: Kinks in hoselines should not be straightened hydraulically by use of higher pressures.
D: Hose which is to be sent to the Division of Technical Services shall be single rolled with the female butt inside.
D-
Explanation: A. Engine Ops Chapter 7 (7.6.3) B. Engine Ops Chapter 7 (7.5.1) C. Engine Ops Chapter 7 (7.5.6) D. Single rolled with the male butt inside. Engine Ops 7 (7.13.2 G)
Queens units have just extinguished a cellar fire in a 2 1/2 story peaked roof private dwelling. Due to wires and trees, aerial and tower ladders were unable to be used. Before the units leave the scene the IC gathers the members for a critique of the operation. Which action taken at this fire was performed incorrectly?
A: The OV/Roof team placed a portable ladder to the top floor window and requested permission to VEIS from the IC prior to conducting any horizontal ventilation tactics.
B: The 1st hoseline was stretched to the cellar through a side entrance to extinguish the fire.
C: The 1st ladder company inside team entered the cellar through the side entrance and kept the door maintained in a closed position until the charged hoseline advanced through the door.
D: The 1st LCC operated from the front porch and placed a portable ladder to an attic window.
A-
Explanation: A. They must request permission from the LADDER COMPANY OFFICER operating in the fire area. Duties-If there is no visible life hazard, perform VEIS of an area on an upper floor that is most likely to be occupied. Private Dwellings Chapter 4 (5.2 A2) B. Private Dwellings Chapter 3 (2.7.1) C. Private Dwellings Chapter 4 (5.1) D. Private Dwellings Chapter 4 (5.1 B1)
Tower Ladder 117 is operating at the scene of a transformer fire inside a Con Edison facility. The Command Chief is on scene, and after consulting with Con Edison Supervisors, he orders Tower Ladder 117 to apply water from their apparatus to the burning transformer. The maximum voltage has been determined to be 138kv and a 35 degree fog stream will be used. The Lt of Ladder 117 would be correct to ensure that the minimum distance from the tip of the nozzle to the nearest energized electrical equipment will be which one of the following?
A: 15
B: 75
C: 25
D: 125
A-
Explanation:
A) The minimum distance on live 138kv electrical components for 30 degree or greater fog streams.
B) The minimum distance on live 138kv electrical components for all straight streams and fog streams less than 30 degrees.
C) The minimum distance on live 345kv electrical components for 30 degree or greater fog streams.
D) The miminum distance on live 345kv electrical components for all straight or solid streams and fog streams less than 30 degrees.
AUC 338 (5.3)
Which smell corresponds to Cyanogen Chloride?
A: Burnt Almonds
B: Fruity Odor
C: Musty Hay
D: Garlic Odor
A-
Explanation:
ERP Addendum 2 2.3 A,B
The Lobby Control Unit (LCU) is responsible for operation and control of elevators. Which duty listed below is correct for the LCU
A: Assume control of elevators and have the units on scene provide operators
B: The Lobby Control Unit will operate on the Tactical and Command Channels
C: Establish controls to account for personnel exiting and entering the lobby
D: Provide resources to transport personnel to upper floors as required
C-
Explanation:
DOUBLE ANSWER
This question was highly protested.
Since the elevators are found in the lobby, examiners also made C correct.
If you choose D, Congrats. Get it right and let your competition protest it
A. LCU operates elevators
B. The Lobby Control Unit will operate on the Tactical Channel
C. Exiting and entering the ELEVATORS.
ICS CH. 2 ADD 4 Sec 2
A backdraft is the ignition and rapid combustion of a mixture of flammable gas or dust and air which flashes back through openings around the fire area. All of the following factors are necessary for ordinary combustion, as well as backdraft, with the exception of which?
A: Combustibles
B: Oxygen
C: Heat
D: Types of gases
D-
Explanation: Taxpayers 4.4 Taxpayers 4.4 Taxpayers 4.4 This is a factor that will influence the severity of the backdraft: types of gases, size and location of area involved, type and size of openings made by FD, and amount of turbulence in the building (Taxpayers 4.4.1C)
Members of a Ladder company were drilling on the nylon search rope. Which statement is correct?
A: The rope is 200 feet long with, but can shrink as much as 20 feet over time
B: The rope has 2 knots at 25 feet that are 18 inches apart and 3 knots at 50 feet
C: The 100 foot mark on the rope has 4 distance knots 18 inches apart from each other and 1 directional knot
D: The directional knot will always be closer to the tie off or exit
D-
Explanation:
A. Nylon search ropes may be short by 25 feet or more. TB Ropes 6 2.3 Note
B. The 25 foot distance knot will not have a direction knot. TB Ropes 6 3.5 Note
C. Spacing between the distance knots is approximately six inches and 18 inches to directional knot. TB Ropes 6 3.4
D. TB Ropes 6 3.4
Answer this question according to Chief Dunn’s book “Collapse of Burning Buildings” 2nd edition. Chief Dunn states that the most dangerous area outside a burning structure is the sidewalk directly in front of the building and it is even more deadly if the building has a what?
A: Party wall balcony
B: Partition wall
C: Fire wall
D: Marquee
E: Parapet wall
E-
Explanation:
Ch 5
Parapet walls are unstable because they are free standing
Have fewer connections to a structure
Built over a 1 or 2 story commercial building with large display windows beneath is a collapse prone structure because the parapet walls are often supported by steel beams spanning large windows
A parapet wall is a vertical cantilever beam. A cantilever beam is supported at only one end
A parapet wall often supports a marquee, canopy, or cornice. This is an unstable structure supporting an unstable structure
Cast Iron columns are used to support floor loads and when properly cast will withstand a great deal of thermal stress. Which of the following statements is correct concerning cast iron columns in fire conditions?
A: Cast iron columns exposed to fire will shatter when cooled by a hoseline.
B: At 1,100 degrees Fahrenheit, cast iron loses 58% of its original strength
C: When cooled by a hoseline cast iron columns will regain original strength and load carrying capabilities.
D: Cast iron columns are designed to withstand eccentric loads.
B-
Explanation:
A. This is a myth. However, an improperly cast column can contract when cooled by a hoseline.(Loft Buildings 5.1.10E)
B. Loft Buildings 5.1.10F
Cast iron columns fail in about 30 minutes in fire endurance tests(Taxpayers 3.7)
Steel I beams start to soften and fail between 1000-1500 F (Taxpayers 3.6.3)
C. Strenght lost is cumulative and never regained(Loft Buildings 5.1.10F)
Tests have shown that cooling STEEL members will cause it to regain its strenght and load carrying ability (Taxpayers 3.6.4)
D. Lofts 5.1.10
Your unit responds to an overt Biological release. You correctly make the initial exclusion zone using a _______.
A: Circular pattern of 150 feet
B: Circular pattern of 300 feet
C: Circular pattern of 450 feet
D: Circular pattern of 600 feet
B-
Explanation:
B. ERP Add1 Ch1 5.2.2 Establish an initial Exclusion Zone at least 300 feet in all directions from the source
A Bronx Ladder company is discussing operations such as trenching and cockloft fires. Which choice is correct when operating at a large 6 story H type?
A: Trench shall be at least 2 feet wide and at least 20 feet from the main vent hole
B: Trenching is an offensive operation
C: These cocklofts can be as much as 6 feet deep
D: Ceilings must be opened to get ahead of the fire and work back to the original fire area
D-
Explanation: MD 5.9.9 A. At least 3 Feet wide and about 20 Feet from initial vent hole B. Defensive operation C. 4 Feet deep D. MD 5.9.5
Lt Gutty of Eng 99 is having another busy day tour with morning-BISP and a few CFRD responses. Lad 199, quartered with Eng 99, had only one stuck elevator response and Lieutenant Jones of Lad 199 relayed the following messages to Lt Gutty. 1. Call the BC about an overdue report 2. Call local PD Capt who is irate about the rig hitting a few patrol cars 3. Call community board 15 about a parade 4. FF Kinks is patiently waiting for you in the kitchen about a VL swap Lt Gutty correctly answered the messages in the following order:
A: 1, 2, 3, 4
B: 2, 3, 4, 1
C: 2, 3, 1, 4
D: 2, 4, 3, 1
A-
Explanation:
TB Supervision 2.3
People before Paper order of consideration
1. Superiors
2. People who are upset, whether outsiders or insiders
3. Outsiders: from another agency or unit, civilians
4. Routine contacts with insiders
**Code- Outsiders before insiders, but upset people go first. Rank has its privileges!
As a Company Commander, you are responsible for cross training all probationary firefighters under your command. Cross training probationary firefighters with other units cannot be initiated until after how many days of service in assigned company?
A: 30 days
B: 60 days
C: 90 days
D: 120 days
Explanation:
AUC 323 sec 2.6 Cross unit details of Probationary Firefighters shall be initiated by the Company Commander, in consultation with the Battalion Training Coordinator, after the Probationary Firefighter has completed 90 days of service in the firehouse
Also important…..cross unit details shall be for a period of 90 days……BOTH OF THESE POINTS ARE NEW AS OF JULY 2016
C-
Explanation:
AUC 323 sec 2.6 Cross unit details of Probationary Firefighters shall be initiated by the Company Commander, in consultation with the Battalion Training Coordinator, after the Probationary Firefighter has completed 90 days of service in the firehouse
Also important…..cross unit details shall be for a period of 90 days……BOTH OF THESE POINTS ARE NEW AS OF JULY 2016
Dispatchers receive multiple calls about a leak from the buckeye pipeline. First due units confirm the leak to dispatch and a 2nd alarm is transmitted. The IC starts blurting out numbers concerning manual shut off valves for the shipper’s line. The IC is correct in which choice?
A: 42 full turns clockwise
B: 24 full turns clockwise
C: 42 half turns clockwise
D: 82 half turns clockwise
B-
Explanation:
B. AUC 149 2.3.2
Which of the following short hoseline stretch procedures is most correct?
A: Three lengths of 2 1/2 “ hoseline are stretched from a standpipe. A 4th length is added to the front of the hoseline.
B: Six lengths of 1 3/4 have been stretched. A 7th length is added to the front of the hoseline.
C: If a length of 1 3/4 is to be added to the front of the hoseline the water supply must be shut down.
D: A burst hoseline can only be replaced after the engine officer verifies that the engine company has left the fire apartment.
A-
Explanation:
A. The tip is removed from the nozzle and a 1 1/2 X 2 1/2 increaser is connected to the shut off. (Engine Ops Ch 12 4.5)
B. If 6 lengths of 1 3/4 have been stretched only 2 1/2 can be added. (Engine Ops Ch 12 4.1)
C. Water shut down is not required when adding hoseline to the front of the stretch. Water supply is controlled by shutting the hoseline nozzle. The engine officer will ensure that this shut off does not accidently get shut down.(Engine Ops Ch 12 4.2)
D. After the fire has been confined by closing the door and/or after moving to a safe area of refuge. (Engine Ops Ch 12 4 Note)
Which of the following choices contains correct information concerning the limitations and capablities of the thermal imaging cameras carried by FDNY units?
A: TIC are effective in locating victims submerged under water.
B: TIC are safe to use in explosive atmospheres as they are rated as intrinsically safe.
C: TIC can be used in some Haz-Mat incidents to see some vapor clouds, spilled liquids and liquid levels in containers.
D: TIC can be used to see through clear glass, but not plastic.
C-
Explanation:
A. Will not see through water.(TB Tools 27 4.3) Useful in locating person in water (on the surface) (TB Tools 27 3.9)
B. Not Intrinsically safe (TB Tools 27 4.8)
C. TB Tools 27 3.10
D. Will not see through glass or plastic. These act as a mirror as do other shinny surfaces (TB Tools 27 4)
Your unit arrives on the 2nd alarm for a heavy fire in a vacant row frame building located in the middle of a row of occupied frames. None of the hose lines needed to be backed up. Which hoseline was positioned correctly at this fire?
A: The first hoseline was stretched into the fire building
B: The second hosline was stretched into an exposure
C: The third hoseline was stretched through an exposure into the rear yard of the fire building
D: The fourth hosline was stretched immediately into an exposure
B-
Explanation: A) Most severe exposure B) Correct. OR to the fire building C) To the fire building or opposite exposure depending on where the second line was stretched D) As ordered by the IC FFP RowFrame 6.7
Ladder 14 responded to a collapsed OLT when members heard 3 shorts blasts of 1 second each from an air horn. They correctly took what action?
A: Evacuated the Area
B: Ceased Operations
C: Resumed working
D: All remained quiet
A-
Explanation:
A. Collapse Ops 9.2 B. Ceased Operations/All Quiet- 1 long blast (3 seconds)
C. Resume operations- 1 long blast and 1 short blast
D. 1 long blast (3 seconds)
Occasionally, FDNY units are required to request and board a “Light Train” in order to reach fires or emergencies beyond the subway platforms and in the tunnel area. After the Chief in charge of an incident authorizes the use of the Light Train, the primary means of communication is correctly stated in which answer?
A: FD unit using the Train Operator’s radio
B: Via the subway repeater channel
C: Via cell phone obtained from Chief In Charge of scene
D: Subway Handie-Talkie Relay
A-
Explanation:
A. FD unit using train operators radio-TA Command Center-FD Boro Dispatcher-Chief in Charge at scene(AUC 207 2.2.1)
The books make a point to state that we should maintain control of train operators radio…it is the only reliable means of communication for FD units on the train(AUC 207 2.2.1A)
B. Channel 14 and 15(AUC 207 Addendum 16)
C. Remember only CIC can authorize use of Light Train (AUC 207 2.1)
D. CORE…Chauffeur(Truck LCC)-O- OV-R- roof FF-E- engine officer. Truck officer to location of the fire. Additional FF every 100 yards as necessary.(AUC 207 4.1)
Ladder 112 has been assigned on a 2nd alarm for a fast moving fire in a row of 1 story taxpayers. Upon reporting to the scene the OIC of the fire orders L-112 to the roof of the structure to cut an effective defensive trench cut. The officer of this unit would be incorrect in which choice?
A: Orders his members to cut a trench 4 feet wide.
B: The trench cut can be made in any direction.
C: When cutting avoid chimneys, shafts, and bulkheads. The trench cut should be made in an open unobstructed area.
D: The trench cuts main purpose is to prevent fire from passing the point at which the cut is made.
C-
Explanation:
A. The width of the trench should be at least 3 feet wide. (Taxpayers 5.6)
B. Taxpayers 5.6
C. Take advantage of these structures to reduce cutting. (Taxpayers 5.6)
When skylights are used in trenching operations leave the returns in place for effective trenching boundary. (Taxpayers 5.4.8)
D. Taxpayers 5.6
Units respond to an accident involving a SUV and a car on a major highway on February 26 @0430 hours. Multiple injuries are reported with 1 person ejected from the SUV and 2 people pinned in the car. Remarkably, neither vehicle is leaking fluids. The speed limit is 50 MPH, but cars are speeding by the accident scene at 70 MPH. First due units correctly operated in which choice?
A: Flares shall be used at night or periods of reduced visibility while cones shall be used only during the day
B: Flares and cones should be placed to block one or two lanes and even to completely block a roadway
C: Before leaving apparatus, light one flare and carry it at least 310 feet from the accident scene
D: Flares burn for approximately 60 minutes
B-
Explanation: A. Cones- used day and night. C. 550 D. 30 minutes Training Bulletins Fires 8 8.1E
Eng 199 and Ladder 98 respond to a reported brush fire. On arrival, they find an abandoned LPG tanker in the weeds with a large fire severely exposing it. They transmit the box and know which of the following to be correct?
A: The tank’s liquid level can always be found by a frost line
B: Never extinguish the fire until the leak has been stopped
C: Approach the tank from the sides, applying water to all exposed surfaces as well as piping and valves
D: Tank failure under fire conditions usually occurs in the liquid area of the tank when sufficient water can’t be applied
C-
Explanation: A. Not Always... Sometimes. HM 1 1.4.7 B. Not Never... except under extremely unusual conditions. HM 1 1.4.1 C. Haz Mat 1 sec 1.4.3 D. Usually the vapor area. HM 1 1.4.7
Gas leaks are a common response for FD units. Proper knowledge of shutting gas valves down is an important aspect of our job. Which unit operated correctly?
A: Lad 100 shut down the head of service valve because the exterior gas riser valve had a leak.
B: Lad 200 knew that street valves and curb valves are never shut down by FD units.
C: Lad 300 knew Meter Valves, Master Meter and Exterior Gas Riser Valves are all 1/4 turn to shut down.
D: Lad 400 stated gas riser valves from the master meters are typically found in the 1st floor ceiling.
C-
Explanation:
EMERGENCY PROCEDURES NATURAL GAS 3.5
A. ***Acronym- All Men Honestly Expect Casual Sex
Priority valve shutdown is- Appliance, Meter, Head of Service Valve, Exterior Gas Riser Valve, Curb Valve, Street Valve
B. Curb valves can be shut down
C. Also appliance valves are 1/4 turn
D. Basement ceiling
Members are critiquing a fire that broke out on the 11th floor of an 18 story project type MD. Which member added incorrect information?
A: Vertical ventilation shall only be performed at the direction of the IC.
B: In most cases, the hoseline shall not enter the apartment until the ladder company locates the fire.
C: Ladder officer shall consult with the engine officer before selecting an attack stairway.
D: Attack stairway must be equipped with a standpipe outlet and evacuation stairway door kept closed.
D-
Explanation:
A. MD 6.13.5 B
B. MD 6.7.3
C. MD 6.13.2 C
D. The attack stairway need not be the stairway with a standpipe outlet MD 6.7.2
***Attack stairs in High Rise Office MUST have a standpipe. HR Office 8.3.1 E
Ladder 67 is the 2nd arriving truck at a 4 story brownstone top floor fire. Their inside team correctly operated in which choice?
A: Go into the fire building, checking the floors below to insure fire did not start on lower floor
B: Go into the most severe exposure, checking the top floor for extension
C: Remain on the stairs below the top floor and go to the top floor to assist first truck if needed
D: Reported to the roof to assist in ventilation
A-
Explanation:
A. Brownstones Page 23
B. OV FF-For a top floor fire, after checking the rear, report to the roof to assist in ventilation and opening up of the roof, or go into an exposure as directed by their officer. Page 25
C. Units should remain on the floor below until needed. They shall not block the stair or hallway leading to upper floors. Page 23
The FDNY has equipped some ladder and engine companies, as well as all special units, with ice/cold water and surf rescue equipment. As the officer working in a water rescue engine, you would know which is incorrect?
A: You should remove a victim to a warm shelter to prevent further body cooling and do not massage or rub the victim because rough handling could cause cardiac arrest.
B: Any entry into the water or onto ice should be considered as a last resort.
C: Members wearing Bunker Gear with or without an SCBA can become totally submerged in under 1 minute.
D: It would be good practice to assign your primary water rescuer as a riding position.
D-
Explanation: Water Rescue 1 sect 5.1.2 sect 2.1 sect 4.3 sect 3.2 It would NOT be good practice to assign your primary water rescuer as a riding position.
As the Lt of a busy Tower Ladder located in the Bronx, you realize the importance of training your members in proper Tower Ladder positioning. After Mult-Unit-Drill, your members made a number of comments regarding proper positioning of the apparatus on a slope. Which comment below contains the most correct information?
A: When positioning on hills, if possible, apparatus should be facing “up-hill” with the turntable before the objective
B: Set the parking brake and chock all four wheels after setting all jacks and outriggers
C: Grades up to a 5% slope may be treated as level ground
D: Position the apparatus parallel to the direction of slope
D-
Explanation:
A) “down-hill” with the tunrtable past the objective
B) prior to setting all jacks and outriggers
C) 4%
TL 3.4.1, 3.4.2, 3.4.5
A member operating at an “all-hands” fire puts on her mask and notices her Heads-Up-Display showing one green LED light. She was correct in thinking:
A: Full cylinder remains
B: ¾ cylinder remains
C: ½ cylinder remains
D: Vibra alert has a full battery
B-
Explanation:
TB SCBA 3.8.9 B
Members of SOC, operating at a collapse, see a V that is circled with a horizontal line through it. They know this void ___
A: Has been searched and a dead victim remains inside
B: Has been searched and a dead victim has been removed
C: Has been searched and no victims were found
D: Has been searched and vermin was found
A-
Explanation:
Paint a horizontal line through the middle of the “V” when the victim is confirmed deceased. Collapse 5.4
Answer the following question according to Chief Vincent Dunn (Collapse of Burning Buildings 2nd edition.) You receive a response for a fire on the 15th floor at the intersection of 31 ave and 86th street. There is no additional information available. Upon arrival you realize the building is under construction and the construction workers are waving their hands in the air stating that there is a fast moving fire on the 15th floor. The workers are also directing you to the two construction hoist elevators to use. Select the correct choice below reflecting proper procedures on the use of these hoist elevators.
A: Firefighters should use the hoist elevator car designed for materials
B: The hoist elevator cars are not to be used by Firefighters
C: The hoist elevator car built to lift materials is designed the same as the hoist elevator to lift personnel. Firefighters can use both
D: Firefighters should use the hoist car designed for use by construction workers
D-
Explanation:
Ch 16
A) Firefighters are to use the car designed for workers only. This elevator has built-in safety brakes to stop the car from free falling.
B) Firefighters can use the car designed for construction workers
C) The material car is built different than the car used for workers. It has no safety brakes, may only be supported by 1 or 2 steel cables. note: The material car uses a bell system at each upper story. The bell system signal sounds like the low air warning on SCBA. An operator on the ground hearing an SCBA alarm might mistake it for the hoist bell and move the car when a member is entering or leaving causing him to lose balance and fall
The handie talkie LED light is flashing green while transmitting. What does this indicate?
A: Radio is transmitting and receiving
B: Battery too low to transmit, but reception is possible
C: Radio is considered dead
D: Battery is between ½ and ¾
B-
Explanation:
A. Steady Red
B. Communications Ch 11 Page 8
*Flashing Red while transmitting- Low battery or when the radio voltage temporarily drops below the preset alert level
The Chief in charge of a fire on the 10th floor of a 20-story fireproof MD decides it is necessary to deploy a WCD (wind control device) to control the fire. Which member is responsible to coordinate this evolution?
A: 2nd due Ladder company officer
B: 1st due Ladder company officer
C: FAST truck officer
D: Squad or Rescue company
A-
Explanation:
Firefighter procedures MD fires pg 62
When operating with a Department-issued Thermal Imaging Camera (TIC), a knowledgeable Lt would be most correct in which statement below?
A: Thermal Imaging will see through clear glass, but not plastic
B: The average field of view of the TIC is approximately 30 degrees
C: The focal point of a TIC is approximately 3 feet from the camera lens
D: Operators of TICs should stay low and slowly scan the area, beginning at floor level and using a side-to-side scanning motion slowly working toward the ceiling
C-
Explanation:
A) Does not see through clear glass or plastic. These act as a mirror
B) Appx 50 degrees
D) Beginning at the ceiling level and using a side-to-side scanning motion slowly working toward the floor
TB Tools 27 3.3, 4.1, 4.4, 4.5
Ladder Company 456, an aerial ladder, arrives second-due for a fire on the top floor of a brownstone building. The first arriving ladder’s aerial is positioned to the roof of the fire building. Which member of Ladder 456 operated incorrectly at this fire?
A: The inside team checked the floors below to insure the fire did not start on a lower floor. They then remained on the floor below the fire until needed.
B: The chauffeur placed Ladder 456’s aerial to the roof of the exposure, then teamed up with the 1st chauffeur for top floor VES of the fire building.
C: After checking the rear, the OVM reported to the roof to assist in ventilation and openeing up the roof.
D: The roof firefighter reported to the roof with a saw and halligan hook to assist in ventilation and opening up.
B-
Explanation:
B) The 2nd arriving LCC will position the apparatus and place in Power Take Off (PTO) for use by the roof firefighter. Then team up with the 1st LCC for top floor VES. Brownstones (2.7)
It is Tuesday, April 4th, and your unit is assigned to an emergency indicating an accident on the Airtrain, enroute from Kennedy Airport. You mentally review operational procedures for this type of incident while responding and know that the most correct information is portrayed in which choice?
A: Airtrains can reach speeds of 100 MPH and normally travel at 2-4 minute intervals at peak hours
B: The location of the third rail within the guideway varies and can be found on either side of the tracks as its location changes frequently throughout the system
C: Every Airtrain has two sets of passenger doors (one on each side)
D: Blue Light Station Power Removal Boxes are located every 600 feet along the guideway
B-
Explanation: A) 70 MPH C) Four Sets (two on each side) D) 800 feet AUC 207 Add 12 3, 6, 7
As the Lt of Ladder 500, you decide to conduct a drill with your members on FAST Truck operations utilizing the FAST PAK. Your members were correct in only one statement regarding this valuable piece of equipment. Indicate the correct statement.
A: When the FAST PAK is being used, one member must utilize the vibra-alert to monitor remaining air
B: The 5 foot high pressure hose will equalize air in both cylinders in approximately 30 seconds
C: If the dust cap on the Universal Air Connection (UAC) on the member’s SCBA is missing you must immediately use one of the low pressure methods
D: The FAST PAK assigned to the FAST Unit shall not be deployed to provide an air supply to non-FDNY members
D-
Explanation:
A) The FAST PAK is not equipped with a vibra-alert or heads up display. The ONLY way to monitor the air pressure is the cylinder gauge
B) Appx 60 seconds
C) Quickly examine and remove any visible debris. If the UAC is IMPACTED or BLOCKED with debris, use one of the low pressure methods
TB SCBA Add 1 4.1, 5.3, 5.4.6, 7.1
As the Officer in Charge of a special-called Ladder Company responding to a 10-76 in a 23-story high-rise building, you would be most correct to know which unit is operating in accordance with FDNY standard operating procedures?
A: The FAST Unit shall be assigned to the Forward Staging Area Supervisor
B: The CFR Engine company, with all CFR-D equipment and forcible entry tools, shall be assigned to the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director
C: The 2nd arriving Ladder Company shall be assigned to search and evacuate the floor above
D: The 4th arriving Ladder Company shall be assigned to search and evacuate the floor above the fire
B-
Explanation:
A) to the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director
C) Augment the search and evacuation of the fire floor
D) Assigned to operate on the upper floors and to initiate the search of the attack stairway
FFP HR OB 5.3.1 B
Arson is a serious crime in New York City and it is imperative that all officers be alert to signs indicating a suspicious fire. A competent Lt would be most correct when he made which statement below?
A: Absence of a “V” Pattern always indicates an incendiary fire
B: Small crazing indicates remoteness from the point of origin and/or relatively slow heat build up
C: Heavy smoke stains, remote from the point of origin, usually indicate a rapid build up of fire
D: Checkering of glass usually results from water being applied to heated glass and indicates the window was still in place when firefighters operated at the fire
D-
Explanation: A) COULD mean an accelerant was used B) Large crazing indicates this C) Usually indicate a SLOW fire build up TB Arson 6.5.4, 6.7.2, 6.7.3
Company Commanders have numerous responsibilities especially when it comes to their apparatus and special unit apparatus stored in quarters. Company Commanders shall arrange to test the operation of all motors and pumps of special unit apparatus when?
A: Monthly during the 9x6 tour
B: Each Monday during the 9x6 tour
C: Each Tuesday during 9x6 tour
D: Quarterly during the 9x6 tour
B-
Explanation:
Regs ch 13 sec 13.2.13
Company Commanders shall cause a thorough monthly inspection of Aerial, TLs, and portable ladders.
Also, doors or windows of apparatus shall not be removed without written permission from the officer in command of Division of Fleet Maintenance (Regs 13.2.16)
Also, Company apparatus may be utilized for the purpose of procuring required food. Units are to complete this procedure within 45 minutes and are LIMITED TO THEIR FIRST DUE RESPONSE AREA. If needed to go outside first due area, Company Commanders shall forward a request stating specific reasons for the variance. Intermediate endorsements required (Regs 13 sec 13.3.1.E)
During a busy summer day tour, members of your unit discuss FDNY operations at transformer fires and emergencies. Understanding that all members must exercise extreme caution when these incidents occur, you know one statement contained incorrect information. Indicate the incorrect statement.
A: Subsurface structures, known as transformer vaults, come in various sizes but a typical vault is approximately 12’X4’
B: All transformers that are in vaults contain dielectric oil, which acts as a coolant, in amounts ranging from 200 gallons to 600 gallons
C: The greatest hazard in a transformer vault is the possibility of explosion
D: Stretch a precautionary handline. Due to the amount of flammable liquid contained in these transformers, Engine Companies shall also be prepared to initiate a foam operation if the need arises
C-
Explanation:
C) The amount of electricity contained in these vaults
AUC 180 3.1 A, D, 3.2 D, 3.3 B
The discharge range of the AFFF extinguisher is ___-___ feet.
A: 35 to 40
B: 25 to 30
C: 20 to 30
D: 12 to 20
A-
Explanation:
TB Foam Addendum 2 sec 1
Company Commanders shall ensure their lieutenants. upon receipt of a complaint or notification from any source relating to conditions involving possible violations of law at premises or locations within the unit’s administrative district, cause prompt inspection to determine the actual condition. These complaints must be investigated within _______hrs and be completed within _______ hrs.
A: 24, 72
B: 24, 48
C: 48, 72
D: 72, 96
A-
Explanation:
BISP ch 5 ref 2.2 sec 2
Complaints shall be investigated promptly, but MUST be investigated within 24 hrs. At least one attempt per day shall be made to complete the investigation within 72 hrs. If the investigation cannot be completed after the 72 hour time limit, a phone notification shall be made to the BISP unit.
you may or may not receive this as a reference
Members of Squad 41 were drilling on unconscious firefighter removal and proper procedures to be taken upon reaching the downed member. The proper order of concern is correctly stated in which answer?
A: Air- Immediate medical care- Removal- Fire
B: Fire- Immediate medical care- Air- Removal
C: Fire- Air- Immediate medical care- Removal
D: Air- Removal- Immediate medical care- Fire
C-
Explanation:
F-A-I-R. When first arriving at scene depress your EAB on handie talkie give IC information on downed member, reset EAB and then asses FAIR
MMID
Engine 32 responds to an EMS-911 call and finds a 12-year-old boy who has a broken finger. His father is on scene and states he will fix it himself and there’s no need for medical care. Eng 32 acts correctly in all choices below except?
A: Eng 32 waits for EMS arrival before returning to service
B: Contact FDNY/EMS Telemetry directly
C: Notify the dispatcher of the events unfolding and have them notify EMS
D: If child abuse is suspected, contact PD
D-
Explanation:
D. When the CFR-D Unit suspects child abuse, the circumstances of the suspected abuse shall be reported to EMS personnel at the scene. CFR Ch 2 sec. 6.1.1 D
As the Lt of Tower Ladder 400, you would be most correct to allow which one of the following members to operate on your unit’s pedestal?
A: FF Smith, detailed from Engine 501
B: FF Yurba, a company-trained LCC from Aerial Ladder 205
C: FF Grimm, a probationary firefighter assigned to Tower Ladder 250
D: FF Jones, assigned to Engine 501 but detailed to Tower Ladder 250 for the past 12 months
C-
Explanation:
Detailed members cannot operate on the pedestal unless they are presently assigned to a Tower Ladder or are a Qualified (school-trained) Chauffeur-Tillerman
TL 2.9.2
At the end of each month, Probationary Firefighters must complete a 20 question quiz to be in compliance with the Probationary FF Development Program (AUC 323). Probationary Firefighters get three attempts to pass each quiz. If a passing mark is not attained after the third attempt, the program will be temporary locked out and will require the company officer to contact who?
A: Administrative Battalion
B: Administrative Division via chain of command
C: Computer unit via Email
D: Probationary Firefighters Development Program Group via Email
D-
Explanation:
AUC 323 2.1
If a passing mark is not attained after the third attempt, the program will be temporary locked and will require the company officer to contact the Probationary Firefighters Development Program Group via email to 323PDPGrp@fdny.nyc.gov to re-activate
Engine 99 responds to a report of a “pedestrian struck” on the Grand Concourse. When they arrive they find 4 patients that were struck by an out-of-control car. EMT’s from a Fire Department ambulance and volunteer Paramedics are already on scene. Soon after, ESU arrives on the scene. Who is in charge of all patient care decisions at this scene?
A: Engine 99’s Officer
B: FDNY EMT’s
C: Volunteer Paramedics
D: ESU
C-
Explanation:
A. When units of both Fire and EMS are operating at an incident, the ranking Fire officer is the IC. CFR Chapter 2 (8.2)
C. They are in charge of all patient care decisions because they are trained to a higher level than EMT’s **Don’t be fooled by “volunteer” CFR Ch 2 8.3
D. ESU are trained to the EMT level
Aerial Ladder 166 is well know for fighting fires in project type buildings as they respond to many Low Rise FPMD’s. L166 was 1st due to another LRFPMD and their LCC operated correctly in all choices below except?
A: She surveyed the outside of the building from the opposite direction of the OV
B: She realized that a 4th floor fire can often be reached with a 35’ portable ladder
C: As no outside operations were needed, the LCC proceeded to the fire floor to assist in the search of the fire floor hallway and fire apartment
D: As the 2nd ladder company was delayed and not on scene, the 1st LCC was be ordered to the roof by her officer
D-
Explanation:
When the 2nd ladder company is delayed and not on scene, the Officer may order this team (OV/LCC) to the apartment directly above the fire
MD 7.7.2 E
The Pressure Reducer Assembly (PRA) on all SCBAs are labeled with both unit identification and sequential numbering within the unit for quick identification as well as individual assignment at the start of the tour. Which choice below contains a correctly labeled PRA?
A: Squad: Orange background
B: Battalion spare: Yellow background
C: Marine: Blue background
D: MSU Spare: Black background
D-
Explanation: A) yellow B) orange C) green TB SCBA 10.3
You are the Roof FF of TL 22 who was special called to vent the roof of an Old Law Tenement of questionable stability. Full use of the personal harness and life saving rope shall be used to limit travel of the operator of the tool to a radius of no more than how many feet from the basket?
A: 5
B: 10
C: 15
D: 20
B-
Explanation:
Tower Ladders Sec 4.1.4
While working a day tour in Engine 356, Lt Jameson walks into the firehouse kitchen and finds 2 members drinking alcohlol while on duty. Lt Jameson would be correct to make which one of the following notifications regarding this incident?
A: Written notification to the Inspector General
B: Written notification to BITS
C: Immediate telephone notification to the Inspector General
D: Immediate telephone notification to BITS
D-
Explanation:
D) 7 situations that require IMMEDIATE TELEPHONE notification to BITS:
1) Alcohol use on duty
2) Drug Use on duty
3) Physical altercation among members
4) Serious confrontation with civilians
5) Dangerous misuse of Department vehicles
6) Arrest of member
7) On duty confrontation with NYPD or other governmemt agency which may lead to possible disciplinary action
AUC 268A (3.1)
For a cellar fire in a peaked roof private dwelling, when the decision has been made to advance the first hoseline through the main entrance and down the interior cellar stairs to extinguish the fire, it would be appropriate for the first arriving ladder company to take all of the following actions except?
A: The first arriving ladder company inside team will perform a primary search of the first floor prior to descending into the cellar to perform the primary search and examination of the cellar.
B: If the engine company requires assistance in order to advance the line through the cellar, one member of the interior team shall be sent to provide assistance, while the ladder company officer and the other member complete the primary search of the first floor.
C: Attempting to descend the cellar stair without the protection of a hoseline may be necessary in order to quickly locate the fire and effect prompt extinguishment.
D: If a chief officer is not on the scene, communication between the first and second arriving ladder company officers is essential to identify areas on the first floor and floor(s) above that may require a primary search.
C-
Explanation:
C) It is critical at cellar fires that the first ladder inside team operate in a manner that supports the first hoseline in quickly applying water on the fire. Often, the cellar stair is narrow, confined and problematic for ladder members to descend without the protection of a hoseline. Attempting to descend the cellar stair without the protection of a hoseline may actually DELAY the engine company advance.
FFP PDs 10.4.1
You are working a day tour in Engine 322 and respond to a CFR-D run for a “pedestrian struck.” After arriving, you find a patient with life-threatening injuries and EMS is not on scene yet. When requesting an ambulance to the scene, you must provide all but which one of the following to the dispatcher for relay to the EMS Dispatcher?
A: CUPS Status
B: Mechanism of injury
C: Pulse and respiratory rate
D: Patient’s age
B-
Explanation:
Required information is CUPS Status, Age, Chief Complaint, Pulse and Respiratory Rate and whether or not CPR is initiated. Two choices examiners try to bait you on are Gender and mechanism of injury.
CFR-D Manual Chapter 2 (3.1)
Ladder 113 and Ladder 132 respond to a fire on the 2nd floor of a 4 story Brownstone. The Roof FFs of the 1st and 2nd due trucks performed the following actions. In which action was a mistake made?
A: After arriving on the roof, the 1st due Roof FF noticed the roof level skylight was tarred over. He notified the incident commander and called for a saw
B: The 2nd due Roof FF, after hearing a call for a saw on the roof, ascended the 2nd artiving aerial ladder to the roof with a saw
C: After completing roof duties and realizing there was no rear fire escape, the 1st due Roof FF descended his aerial ladder then teamed up with the chauffeur for top floor VEIS
D: After completing roof duties, the 2nd due Roof FF checked for extension in a similar attached exposure, through the common cockloft
D-
Explanation: A. Brownstones/ Rowframes p 17 note B. Page 21 #7 C. Page 17 # 6 D. No common cockloft in a Brownstone. When there is no apparent need for presence on the roof, reports to officer, via HT, for further duties. Page 21 #5
Your unit, Tower Ladder 466, arrives first-due with 5 firefighters for heavy fire on the 2nd floor of a 3-story Brownstone building. The first-due Engine has also arrived but second-due units will be delayed as they are coming from another Box at the far end of their district. As your unit and the Engine are the only units on scene at this serious fire, member’s actions were most correct in which choice?
A: A woman was visible and in need of assistance on the 3rd floor so your OV FF took immediate action to enter the window alone and begin rescue
B: The Engine’s Control FF and Backup FF became the Safety Team
C: The Safety Team must ensure the dispatcher is notified if and when they are entering the building to render assistance
D: In all incidents of individual action taken by a member at this fire, the Incident Commander shall forward a report detailing the full particulars to the Chief of Safety
A-
Explanation: B) Control FF and LCC C) Ensure the IC is notified D) Chief of Operations FFP Managing Members in Distress ch 1 1.4, 2.1.1
You are the Lt of Engine 350, ariving first-due for fire out the windows on the 5th and 6th floors of a 6 story Old Law Tenement (OLT). You would be most correct to transmit/call for?
A: Special call an extra Engine and Truck
B: Consider a 2nd alarm
C: Transmit a 2nd alarm
D: Transmit a 2nd alarm and make sure at least one of the ladders is a TL
A-
Explanation:
FFP MDs 3.4.6
Four Lieutenants were discussing engine operations and pump idle pressure. With a hydrant pressure of 50 psi and the apparatus in volume, which Lieutenant correctly stated the pump idle pressure?
A: Lt Rex 55
B: Lt Tuna 60
C: Lt Bell 105
D: Lt Pope 110
C-
Explanation:
C. Pump idle pressure always equals the pressure the pumps provide at its lowest RPMs (around 55 psi in volume or around 110 psi in pressure) plus the water intake pressure received from a water source (e.g., hydrant pressure 50 psi plus pump pressure in volume 55 psi will equal a pump idle pressure of 105 psi). Training Bulletins App P-3 1.7
Engine Company 111 just operated at a fire in which the officer used his PSS to escape a wind driven fire. After returning to quarters, the officer contacted the Division for a replacement system, because their spare PSS repacking kit was already in use. While waiting for the replacement, Engine 111 received a phone alarm for a report of a fire in a brownstone. The officer would be correct to notify the dispatcher that Engine 111 is ______.
A: responding 10-14
B: responding “with 4 Firefighters”
C: responding “Under Staffed”
D: out of Service for all responses
D-
Explanation:
When a Battalion Chief or Company Officer needs a PSS replacement, the unit will be out of service until the replacement is received.
Rope 4(6.16)
1 spare PSS repacking kit has been issued to each firefighting unit up to and including Battalion Chief. The spare PSS can be worn by a member while their PSS is being repacked or while awaiting a replacement PSS.
Rope 4 sec 6.1
Answer this question according to Chief Dunn’s book “Collapse of Burning Buildings” 2nd edition. Chief Dunn discusses several key factors for the first arriving officer to consider upon arrival at places of worship. Choose the incorrect one.
A: If extinguishable, the first line should be taken through the front or side door to attack the seat of the fire
B: Stretch a 1 3/4 handline because maneuverability is a factor in these types of building
C: The 2nd large diameter hose should immediately backup the the 1st hose line
D: The primary vent should be the Rose Window at the front of the church
E: Fire reaching the attic space of most places of worship cannot be extinguished by hand held hose lines because there is only one small door and no possibility to vent
B-
Explanation:
Ch 8 Stretch the largest size hose—Maneuverability is NOT a factor. What is needed is large amounts of water, and a high pressure stream with maximum reach.
In addition: The tower and steeple is most unstable, followed by the chimney, then the free-standing parapet wall.
Lt Garcia is drilling with his members on the FAST Unit and Unconscious Firefighter Removal. In which statement was the Lt incorrect?
A: Packaging a conscious member is not always required for removal
B: If possible, position an unconscious member with their back facing toward the direction of removal prior to starting the packaging process
C: The FAST Unit shall remain intact and not split up when dealing with any commercial or complex buildings
D: The member assigned to monitor the EFAS shall remain in the Battalion vehicle, even if the FAST Unit is given an assignment
C-
Explanation: A. MMID Chapter 3 (11.2) B. MMID Chapter 3 (11.4) C. They shall remain together and not split up when dealing with LARGE commercial or complex buildings. MMID Chapter 2 (7.4) D. MMID Chapter 2 (5.1)
What does the following picture depict?
A:✔Tunnel-to-Tube Transition Area
B: NYCT Emergency Exit
C: NYCT Crossovers
D: Subway Station Platform
Under River Rail Ops 2.4 Fig 3A
After a recent “All-Hands” fire on the 3rd floor of a 6-story old law tenement, the 1st arriving ladder company officer asked his roof firefighter what actions he performed. The officer should notify the roof firefighter that he performed which action incorrectly?
A: When momentarily blinded by smoke on the roof and not in immediate danger, the roof firefighter knew it was necessary to crawl toward the front parapet of the building.
B: Since smoke and fire conditions were obviously heavy, the roof firefighter vented the skylight prior to the removal of the scuttle.
C: After performing his duties on the roof, the roof firefighter teamed up with the 1st OV to VEIS the fire floor.
D: When his duties were complete, the roof firefighter reported back to his officer.
A-
Explanation: A. When momentarily blinded by smoke or darkness, and there is no immediate danger, it may be best for the member to remain in place until visibility is restored. Ladders 3 (5.2.3) B. Ladders 3 (Page 18) C. Ladders 3 (Page 16) D. Ladders 3 (Page 16)
Which statement concerning basic pumping operations is correct?
A: After water is introduced into the pump, before increasing pump pressure and opening any discharge outlets, the primer pump must be utilized to expel air from the pump chamber.
B: When residual pressure drops below 20psi on the intake pressure gauge, augmentation will be required.
C: Engaging the pumps is recommended before hooking up to and opening the hydrant.
D: When in-line pumping operations are implemented, 2 1/2” hose shall be the initial supply line.
A-
Explanation: A. TB Apparatus P-3 (8.1) B. below 15 psi TB Apparatus P-3 (6.4) C. Hooking up to and opening the hydrant is recommended before engaging pumps. TB Apparatus P-3 (6.4 Note) D. 3 1/2" hose TB Apparatus P-3 (4 f)
Ladder Company 100 is at the Fire Academy to participate in a drill on the Portable Power Saw. When discussing using the saw for roof operations, members of Ladder 100 made the four following statements. In which one were they incorrect?
A: During roof cutting operations, everyone in the vicinity of a saw in operation shall observe as near as possible a 20 foot radius Circle of Danger from the point where the blade of the saw is in operation.
B: If the guide man slaps the operator on the back with 2 slaps, the operator should perform a cut.
C: If leaving the saw unattended while running, ensure it is left in a safe area, away from operating personnel.
D: The saw shall never be refueled while running.
C-
Explanation: A. Training Bulletin Tools 9 (4.7) B. Training Bulletin Tools 9 (4.4.6) C. The saw shall ALWAYS be shut down when unattended. Training Bulletin Tools 9 (4.8.3) D. Training Bulletin Tools 9 (4.16.1)
Ladder Company 197 is operating at the scene of a 2nd alarm in a one-story taxpayer. The officer, can firefighter and irons firefighter are working in the rear of the 1st floor. The Roof firefighter and LCC are on the roof towards the front of the building, operating a power saw. The unit responded without an OV firefighter due to medical leave earlier in the tour. After a partial collapse of the roof occurs, the IC orders all members out of the building and directs another Chief officer to conduct an Emergency Roll Call. The officer of Ladder 197 would be correct to give which response when called by the Roll Call Officer (RCO)?
A: “Ladder 197 to RCO, all members of Ladder 197 are accounted for”
B: “Ladder 197 to RCO, we have 4 firefighters; my can and irons firefighters are accounted for”
C: “Ladder 197 to RCO, we have 4 firefighters, we are riding without an OV, my can and irons firefighters are accounted for”
D: “Ladder 197 to RCO, all members of Ladder 197 are accounted for; were are riding with 4 firefighters, we do not have an OV”
C-
Explanation:
Communications Chapter 9 Addendum 2 (5.4)
Every handie-talkie (HT) has a 7-digit numeric internal identification code. The following HT transmitted a mayday identified as 7099003. The fast radio FF correctly identified this member as?
A: Ladder 99 Roof FF
B: Ladder 99 OV FF
C: Engine 99 Nozzle FF
D: Engine 99 Back Up FF
A-
Explanation: A. Communications Ch 11 4.3 B. 7099004 C. 5099003 D. 5099004
Prior to Multi-Unit Drill, two probationary firefighters ask you about building types and related number of apartments per floor. You were most correct to tell them?
A: Old Law Tenements have one to two apartments on each floor
B: New Law Tenements have six to seven apartments on each floor
C: Row Frames that have three windows across the front, with no rear fire escape, generally have one apartment per floor
D: Row Frames that have four windows across the front, with a rear fire escape, generally have one apartment per floor
C-
Explanation: A) Two to four B) Five to Six D) Two apartments per floor FFP RF 5.1.2, MDs 2.1, 2.2
Units are operating at a 3rd alarm taxpayer fire which has extended into multiple occupancies. Members are now using plain speak because it will benefit fire operations. Which choice below is incorrect when using plain speak terminology?
A: It should only be used when it enhances our ability to properly identify exposures.
B: The intent of plain speak is to replace the standard exposure identification system.
C: Plain speak shall only be used for fireground communications.
D: Plain speak is the process of identifying occupancies by name, occupancy type, address or any other distinctive characteristic.
B-
Explanation:
B. The intent of plain speak is NOT to replace the standard exposure identification system.
Communications Ch 10 Add 2 10.1
Your unit, Ladder 215, is the second arriving Ladder operating on the floor above a 3rd floor fire in an Old Law Tenenment. As you are searching the rear bedroom, one of your members points out two exposed roof beams above you that you believe indicates a non-imminent danger of collapse. You would be most correct to transmit which of the following?
A: “Ladder 215 to Command, URGENT - COLLAPSE DANGER”
B: “Ladder 215 to Command, URGENT - COLLAPSE FEARED”
C: “Ladder 215 to Command, URGENT - COLLAPSE IMMINENT”
D: “Ladder 215 to Command, MAYDAY - COLLAPSE FEARED”
B-
Explanation:
Comm 9.4.2 D 1
On arrival at a 2nd alarm, you notice a number of victims that have been triaged. As an experienced Lt you know which choice below contains correct information regarding civilian casualties/injuries?
A: A black tag indicates a life-threatening injury
B: A red tag indicates a non-life threatening injury
C: A yellow tag indicates a non-life threatening injury
D: A green tag indicates a non-life threatening injury
C-
Explanation: A) Deceased B) Life threatening D) Non-serious/ambulatory Comm 8 pg 8-13
It is 2300 hours on a Saturday evening and Capt Peters is reviewing the Citytime marks for his company for the previous week. Capt Peters notices that Lt. Clem gave himself a PCOT entry for a 6x9 tour during the week that he did not work. Capt Peters decided to look at previous weeks on Citytime and notes that Lt. Clem has given himself overtime entries for tours which he did not work numerous times. Capt Peters felt this was not an emergency and would be correct to take which action?
A: Immediately notify the IG via their direct telephone number
B: Immediately notify BITS via the Fire Department Operations Center
C: Immediately notify the IG via the Fire Department Operations Center
D: Wait until Monday 0900 hours, then notify the IG via their direct telephone number
D-
Explanation:
D. During normal business hours, notifications should be made directly to the Inspector General’s Office by phone. In cases of EMERGENCY, the Inspector General’s on-call supervisor should be contacted through the Fire Department Fire Operations Center
Since this is not an emergency, you call during normal business hours.
There are no written notifications to the IG.
AUC 268A (2, 2.1)
While responding to a report of a heavy fire in a vacant structure, you mentally review search procedures for such a building. You would be most correct to know which of the following is in accordance with FDNY standard operating procedures?
A: One member should be assigned to search all floors below the operating force for the presence of other fires or conditions not yet detected
B: Ladder company members should be particularly careful in searching above the fire. Use masks, vent windows as you go, and move slowly feeling for holes in the floor
C: Since vacant buildings have high victim potential, all searches should be thorough and systematic
D: If TL outside streams are anticipated, ensure all members are brought to the floor below the fire floor
B-
Explanation:
A) Two members
C) Low victim potential…searched within the limits of safety after building conditions evaluated and the fire has been largely extinguished
D) The floor below the fire is not a safe area in a weakened structure furing a TL operation. All members should be outside
FFP Vacants 4.2.1, 6.5, 6.9, 6.18, 8.1
You would be most correct to realize that Vacant buildings in NYC shall be marked in the following size and color:
A: Lime Green reflective paint. Square shaped, 24 inches x 24 inches with lines 2 inches wide
B: Lime Yellow reflective paint. Square shaped, 24 inches x 24 inches with lines 2 inches wide
C: Lime Green reflective paint. Square shaped, 18 inches x 18 inches with lines 2 inches wide
D: Lime Yellow reflective paint. Square shaped, 18 inches x 18 inches with lines 2 inches wide
D-
Explanation:
FF Procedures Vacants 1.3.2
The next 4 questions will be answered according to this ticket. The fire scenarios for each question are different, but the ticket remains the same: UCT-911 E400 E401 E402 L200 L201 BC88 Residential 77 PARK AVE CALLER STATES-Fire in a High Rise Office Building CIDS- PG OFFICE BLDG 53 STY 100X150 CL1 ACCESS STAIRS FLS 23-25 AND 38-39 3 ELEVATOR BANKS SERVING FLOORS 1-20, 20-40, 40-53 Engine 400 arrives first-due and sees smoke from the skin of the building on the 3rd floor. The officer would be most correct to initially transmit which signal?
A: 2nd alarm
B: 10-75
C: 10-76
D: 10-77
A-
Explanation:
High Rise Office 5.2.2 B
A second alarm is warranted for ANY visible fire or smoke emanating through the exterior skin of the building or when a serious fire has been verified.
FYI- Communications Ch 8 states the 2nd alarm as 10-76/2nd alarm.
UCT-911 E400 E401 E402 L200 L201 BC88 Residential 77 PARK AVE CALLER STATES-Fire in a High Rise Office Building CIDS- PG OFFICE BLDG 53 STY 100X150 CL1 ACCESS STAIRS FLS 23-25 AND 38-39 3 ELEVATOR BANKS SERVING FLOORS 1-20, 20-40, 40-53 Ladder 200 recalls the elevators at 77 Park Ave and members make their way up to fight a fire on the 26th floor. They correctly get off on the __ floor.
A: 20
B: 21
C: 23
D: 24
D-
Explanation:
TB Emergencies 1 6.1
A. Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within 5 floors of the FIRE floor.
D. Select a floor at least two floors below the fire floor or two floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest.
***Access stairs were thrown into this question, but had no bearing on the floor choice.
UCT-911 E400 E401 E402 L200 L201 BC88 Residential 77 PARK AVE CALLER STATES-Fire in a High Rise Office Building CIDS- PG OFFICE BLDG 53 STY 100X150 CL1 ACCESS STAIRS FLS 23-25 AND 38-39 3 ELEVATOR BANKS SERVING FLOORS 1-20, 20-40, 40-53 Units have just finished operating at a fire on the 25th floor of this 53-story high rise office building. The IC is conducting a critique of the fire with the operating units. Which unit did not operate correctly at this fire?
A: The FAST Unit was assigned to the Incident Command Post
B: The second arriving ladder augmented the search and evacuation of the fire floor
C: The third arriving ladder proceeded to the floor above the fire via a stairway other than the attack stairway
D: The fourth ladder operated on the upper floors of the elevator bank serving the fire floor
A-
Explanation: A) The FAST unit shall be assigned to the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director. High Rise (5.3.1 B8) B) High Rise (5.3.1 B5) C) High Rise (8.5.1 B2) D) High Rise (8.6.1 H)
UCT-911 E400 E401 E402 L200 L201 BC88 Residential 77 PARK AVE CALLER STATES-Fire in a High Rise Office Building CIDS- PG OFFICE BLDG 53 STY 100X150 CL1 ACCESS STAIRS FLS 23-25 AND 38-39 3 ELEVATOR BANKS SERVING FLOORS 1-20, 20-40, 40-53 After arriving at this 53 story building, a fire is confirmed on the 30th floor. In order to establish a communications link between the lobby and the fire area, what action should be taken?
A: E400 should take the Post Radio from BC88 to the vicinity of the standpipe outlet from which the first handline is stretched
B: E401 should take the POST Radio from BC88 to the vicinity of the standpipe outlet from which the first handline is stretched
C: E400 should take the Post Radio from BC88 to the vicinity of the standpipe outlet from which the second handline is stretched
D: E401 should take the Post Radio from BC88 to the vicinity of the standpipe outlet from which the second handline is stretched
B-
Explanation:
B) The 2nd arriving engine will bring the POST Radio to the vicinity of the standpipe outlet from which the first handline is stretched. High Rise (9.4.1 B)
Upon arrival on the floor below the fire, the 2nd engine officer shall establish contact with the IC on the COMMAND channel via the POST radio, then use their handi-talkie on the tactical channel to announce to units that a communications link with the ICP has been established. (Communications Chap. 12 (6.2.4 and 6.2.5)
You are the 1st due chauffeur of Ladder 32, an aerial ladder, arriving at a top floor fire in an H-Type Multiple Dwelling. You would be correct to ______.
A: Place your aerial ladder to the roof, then use it for venting windows. After window ventilation is complete you return it to the roof
B: Place your aerial to the roof. You knew that it could not be moved except for life
C: Place the aerial ladder to the roof, then reposition it to the top floor and team up with the 2nd due chauffeur for VEIS
D: Always place your apparatus away from the building to leave room for a tower ladder
A-
Explanation:
A. Multiple Dwellings Sec 5.4.3
B. See choice A
C. Once the windows are vented, the aerial should be returned to the roof. It can be used as a means of escape for members operating on the roof. Multiple Dwellings Sec 5.4.3
D. When possible, this position should be taken by a tower ladder. If rescue operations must be performed, the aerial shall, of course, be positioned to carry out this function. MD 5.4.2
The chauffeur position in a tower ladder usually requires the chauffeur to remain on the turntable but there are times were he is not required to remain there. Which of these choices does not comply with department procedures?
A: At a fire on the 2nd floor of a peaked roof private dwelling, the chauffeur left the turntable to enter the dwelling to assist his company with searches and overhauling. He did this when the fire had been controlled and the members inside the building were not in immediate danger that would require the use of the bucket
B: While operating at a fire in a Con Edison substation were water was applied to energized electrical equipment, the tower ladder chauffeur removed himself from the turntable once the basket was raised to the operating position and before the stream was applied
C: At a confined space incident where the tower ladder was being used as a high point anchor, the tower ladder chauffeur shut off the engine and remained on the turntable to insure the bucket was not accidentally moved
D: At a fire in a NYC bulk oil storage facility, the tower ladder chauffeur moved the tower ladder as close to the tank as possible. He then remained on the turntable to control movement of the tower ladder bucket when the foam supply was established
C-
Explanation:
A. Private Dwelling Sec 5.4 B 3
B. AUC 338 Sec 5.4.5
C. All personnel must be removed from the turntable and the engine shut off. TB Confined space Sec 4.4
D. TB Foam Sec 8.10, TB Foam Evolution 3 Sec 2.5 note
Safety is the responsibility of every officer. Which would NOT be an accurate safety consideration while operating in tenement fires?
A: Hanging ends of cable such as electric (BX), telephone and coaxial television shall be secured near the ceiling
B: Loops of cable hanging down shall be secured near the ceiling
C: No material shall be thrown onto roof of buildings or into narrow shafts or setbacks.
D: A member should always be posted in the yard or street below to prevent injuries to anyone from falling material.
B-
Explanation: Lad-3 Tenements A. sect 8.10 B. sect 8.10 - Loops of cable hanging down shall be pushed up out of the way. C. sect 8.13 D. sect 8.13
When placing a portable ladder to the roof of a building, the tip should be at least __ feet above the roof or parapet.
A: 1
B: 2
C: 5
D: 7
B-
Explanation:
Ladders 1 7.4
Tip shall be at least 2 feet above the roof or parapet.
The FDNY has many different methods of forcible entry. As the Lt of your busy truck company, you shall know which of the following locks is not described correctly?
A: Mortise lock - designed to fit into a cavity in the edge of a door
B: Rim lock - fits on the inside surface of the door with the cylinder visible from the outside
C: Fox locks - The lock is not necessarily centered in the door but easily recognizable by the large plate covering the lock
D: Police locks - aka vertical bar locks are also rim locks and are usually found in tenement areas on wooden or kalamein doors
C-
Explanation:
A. Training Bulletins Forceable Entry 4.2 A
B. TB FE 4.2 B
C. This is the Multi lock definition TB FE 9.1
D. TB FE 4.2 B 5
Fox lock aka double bar lock - location of the cylinder is the center of the door.
While investigating a complaint in a building where approximately 80 people have gathered for a Communiy Board meeting, the Officer of L139 discovers four abandoned LPG cylinders in the cellar. From the choices listed below, choose the only FDNY vehicle approved for removal and transportation of contraband material/cylinders when a vendor is unable to do so.
A: HazMat Company 1
B: Fleet Services
C: The HazMat Battalion
D: The HazMat Operation Logistics Vehicle
D-
Explanation:
When contraband material is to be removed and no vendor is identified or responds, the IC shall notify the HazMat Battalion to arrange for assessment and removal of the material. The HazMat Operation Logistics Vehicle is the only FDNY vehicle approved for removal and transportation of contraband material/ cylinders.
BISP Ch 4 Add 6 3.1
You just conducted Roll Call in E-100 and was informed by the members that the unit has morning BISP. You write the Roll Call and head upstairs to the office to prepare for this inspection. While conducting BISP, you and your members come across an approved, installed sprinkler system in an occupied residential building that was shut down without prior notification to the Fire Department. Shutdown of a sprinkler system is in clear violation of the New York City Fire Code. From the duties listed below, choose the choice that contains the most correct information.
A: Serve an immediate summons (for “failure to notify”), issue a forthwith V.O. (for restoration of system), forward an A-8 to the Bureau of Fire Prevention, Suppression Unit if serviceability is in doubt, and forward an A-500 to the Division Commander.
B: Do NOT serve an immediate summons for “failure to notify”, issue a forthwith V.O. (for restoration of system), in all cases forward an A-8 to the Bureau of Fire Prevention, Suppression Unit, and and forward an A-500 to the Division Commander.
C: Serve an immediate summons (for “failure to notify”) and issue a forthwith V.O. (for restoration of system). No further notifications or paperwork are required.
D: Simply forward an A-8 to the Bureau of Fire Prevention, Suppression Unit. Summons and V.O.s are not necessary.
A-
Explanation:
A. This was a recent change to the books when this exam was given BISP Ch 5 Ref 1.1 Sec 4
Lt Sipowiz has just received a telephone call from FF Hill who is assigned to her company and is currently on non-service connected medical leave. FF Hill states he has just been arrested for DWI. Lt Sipowiz would be most correct if she took which one of the following actions?
A: Inform FF Hill that he shall complete the Arrest of Member Report (Form BP-66) on his next return date to BHS.
B: During normal business hours Lt Sipowiz shall immediately notify the Borough Commander. During non-business hours, the Command Chief should be notified via the Fire Department Operations Center (FDOC).
C: Prepare a written report with full particulars of the incident and forward the report to the Inspector General.
D: Inform FF Hill that he could have notified his union trustee or attorney instead of notifying the officer on duty in his assigned unit.
A-
Explanation:
A. Regulations Chapter 25 (25.4.2)
B. An arrest requires an immediate notification to BITS. Regulations 25 (25.4.2)
C. An Arrest of Member Report will be completed by the member and forwarded to the Bureau of Personnel. Regulations Chapter 25 (25.4.2)
D. A member who is arrested shall immediately notify the officer on duty in the member’s assigned unit. This obligation is not fulfilled by informing a union trustee or attorney. Regulations 25 (25.4.2)
You, as the newly assigned Captain of Ladder 99, were approached by Probationary Firefighter Green who was inquiring how many RSOT tours he is eligible for this year. Probationary Firefighter Green was appointed 2/17/2018. You would be correct to tell this member he is eligible for how many scheduled RSOT tours in calendar year 2018?
A: four (4) day 9x6 and three (3) night 6x9 tours
B: one (1) day 9x6 and two (2) night 6x9 tours
C: two (2) day 9x6 and one (1) night 6x9 tours
D: one (1) day 9x6 and one (1) night 6x9 tour
C-
Explanation:
Upon completion of the first six (6) month period, the Probationary Firefighter will be eligible for scheduled RSOT depending on the “remaining months” in the calendar year. The definition of a month in this case is based on the appointment date of the Firefighter. A full month will be counted only if the appointment date was on or before the l6th of a month. Since February doesn’t count (appointed on the 17th) this leaves March through August making up the six months. Thus, he has 4 months left (September through December) resulting in TWO 9X6 days and ONE 6X9 night as per the chart in PAID 1-90 Add 5
PAID 1-90 Add 5
A newly promoted Captain was incorrect in which of his statements regarding the FDNY’s “Social Media Policy”?
A: No Department-related social media site or application is to be created or maintained, except as authorized by the Fire Commissioner and Office of Public Information (OPI). This includes pages and sites dedicated to individual companies.
B: Employees are prohibited from engaging in any type of social media contact with patients or fire victims. This policy does not prohibit social media contact with other members of the public with whom members interact with in their capacity as FDNY employees.
C: Employees are prohibited from engaging in any type of social media contact (e.g., “friending,” or “following”) with minors with whom they interact in the course of their FDNY employment, unless specifically authorized by a Department Assistant Commissioner (or higher rank) or Deputy Chief (or higher rank).
D: Employees are prohibited from posting on the Internet nonpublic items (e.g., information about, or photos or videos of, patients or fire scenes) that were obtained as a result of their position with the Department.
B-
Explanation:
Employees are prohibited from engaging in any type of social media contact with patients, fire victims or “any members of the public with whom they interact in their capacity as FDNY employees”, to the same extent contact is prohibited by other means of communication.
PAID 2-13 4.1.2, 5.2.6, 5.2.7, 5.2.8
An officer would be correct to inform his/her members that a report of hazing and/or bullying may be made to any of the following except?
A: Through the chain of command by notifying your immediate supervisor.
B: BITs
C: The EEO Office
D: The Inspector General (IG)
D-
Explanation:
PAID 1-13 4.3
All of the following choices contain correct information regarding the FDNY’s “Workplace Violence Prevention Policy” except?
A: In the event of a workplace violence emergency, employees are instructed to first report the emergency by calling 911, and then report to their supervisor or the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinater.
B: An employee who has secured an Order of Protection and is concerned that the person from whom protection has been sought may attempt to contact the employee at his/her work location should submit a copy of such Order to the Bureau of Fire Investigation.
C: If an employee reasonably believes in good faith that submitting a Workplace Violence Prevention Report to a supervisor would not result in corrective action, the employee may submit the Workplace Violence Report directly to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator.
D: Every supervisor who has received a Workplace Violence Report shall ensure that it is forwarded via the chain of command to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator. All supervisors within the chain of command shall ensure time is taken for proper endorsements, even if this means withholding the report. This does not apply to verbal reports.
D-
Explanation:
Every supervisor who has received a Workplace Violence Report (or a verbal report) shall ensure that it is forwarded via the chain of command to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator. All supervisors within the chain of command shall ensure that the report is forwarded on an expedited basis.
PAID 1-2011 1.6, 9.1, 10.4.1, 11.1.1
It is 1100 hours on Monday, July 19th when FF Blue approaches you and states he was just informed that his adoptive father has passed away that morning at a reported time of death of 1030 hours. All of the following choices are correct regarding FDNY’s Bereavement Leave policy with the exception of which choice?
A: FF Blue’s Bereavement Leave will be not more than two 15-hour tours, or two 9-hour tours and one 15-hour tour, and is granted by the Deputy Chief.
B: Bereavement Leave may not be less than four (4) calendar days.
C: FF Blue’s Bereavement Leave will begin immediately and shall be no less than 4 calendar days; he is expected to return to full duty on Friday.
D: You must prepare a report (in duplicate) to the Bureau of Personnel. Forward one copy immediately and the other copy with the transcript of death.
C-
Explanation:
A member receiving a death notification when on duty will be “promptly excused” by the immediate superior officer on duty. However, Bereavement “Leave” will begin at 0900 hours following the “time of death”, which in this case would start FF Blue’s Bereavement Leave 0900 hours on Tuesday, giving him off until Saturday at the earliest.
PAID 4-89 2.1, 2.5, 2.6, 2.7, 4
As the Commanding Officer of Ladder 99, a single Truck Company, you should know all of the following to be correct regarding construction work being done in your quarters with the exception of which choice?
A: The Commanding Officer of the affected unit will be consulted, but Facility staff has final determination with regard to construction projects in FD facilities.
B: An FDNY Project Manager will be assigned to each project and will be the point of contact for the Officers of the affected unit. Members should not contact the project Engineers, Contractors or Architects directly; all communication from the field regarding the project should be through the Officer/Supervisor to the FDNY Project Manager.
C: All requests from the unit for additional work must be submitted in writing in an envelope marked “confidential” to the First Deputy Fire Commissioner.
D: Members should not direct a contractor to stop working. The only exception is in the event of an imminent health or safety issue. Any such occurrence must be followed by an immediate notification to the Assistant Commissioner of Facilities or their designee.
C-
Explanation:
All requests from the unit for additional work must be submitted in writing through the chain of command to the Assistant Commissioner of Facilities.
AUC 358 2
The BISP Unit will contact a unit by telephone when addresses on the monthly Structural Integrity Report are found in that unit’s administrative district. The BISP Unit will schedule structural integrity inspections in RBIS after a phone conference. BISP will also follow up with a unit to ensure the inspections were completed and if CIDS was necessary. Officers should know that all structural integrity inspections need to be completed within?
A: 14 calendar days from the date of notification.
B: 14 business days from the date of notification.
C: 14 business days from the start of construction.
D: 5 business days from the date of notification.
B-
Explanation:
BISP Ch 5 Ref 9.4 3.2
