Exam Flashcards

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1
Q
  • Define Causation
A

A causal link between the breach of duty and damages suffered must be found for payment of damaged.

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2
Q

Define the good Samaritan principle.

A

Protects the rescuer from from unforeseen consequences of their actions and legal liability if they come to the aid of a person in need.

unforseen circumstances, legal liability

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3
Q

Define employee.

A

Not an independent contractor.
Someone directed by the employer as to what to do how to do it and when to do it.

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4
Q

Define vicarious liability.

A

When employees cause damages while working and cause harm to someone, their employer is responsible for paying for the damage. For example, if a nurse makes a mistake at the hospital and a patient gets hurt, the hospital has to cover the costs.

The hospital usually has more money than the individual

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5
Q

Define non-delegable duty of care.

A

Duty of care owed towards a group of people which cannot be assigned to somebody else, to ensure reasonable care is taken.

Think kids- cant just palm them off

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6
Q

What are the three elements of consent?

A

Must be given freely and voluntarily.

Must be informed and for a specific procedure/ treatment.

The person giving consent must have legal capacity.

free, informed, capable

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7
Q

What are the elements of legal capacity?

A

Must be able to understand and retain information.

Weigh up the information, balancing risks against benefits and the need.

Communicate their decision.

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8
Q

What is the nurses obligation surounding material risks.

A

Practitioners & nurses have a legal duty to warn patients of material risks associated with proposed treatments (Surgery could result in death).

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9
Q

What are the three ways consent can be given?

A

o Implied
o Oral
o Written

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10
Q

Elements of a consent form

A

Before a procedure, the doctor needs to explain the material risks to the patient in writing. Both the patient and the doctor have to sign and date this document. Only the doctor who’s treating the patient can signs the form, not nurses or admin staff. Nurses can witness the patient’s signature, but the doctor has to sign it first. This should be done when the patient is admitted.

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11
Q

Aspects of commmunicating with Linguistically diverse individuals.

A

o Need qualified interpreters from a recognised organisation.

o Don’t use friends or relatives outside of routine ADL’s.

o Preferable to have an in-person interpreter.

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12
Q

Minors- Gillick competence/ Mature minor test.

A

Minors can agree to medical treatment if they’re old enough and understand what’s proposed and express thier wishes. If they’re 14 or older and agree to treatment, they can’t later say it was done without their permission. But if they’re under 16, they can’t refuse treatment.

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13
Q

What do Intellectual disabled individuals need to gain consent?

A

Over 16 years of age require:
A legally appointed gradian
Enduring guardian appointed by the person whilst of sound mind. or
A “person responsible”

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14
Q

Mental health act

A

This law protects people who need care and protection to keep themselves or others safe. It outlines how they can be admitted, treated, and supported in mental health facilities to get better. It also respects their basic rights and provides ways to appeal decisions.

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15
Q

Elements of trespass to the person

A

o Assault
o Battery
o False imprisonment.

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16
Q

What is therapeutic privilege

A

o The withholding of information from a patient when in the patients best interest.

17
Q

Conscientious objection and nurses

A

o The right to refuse to participate in procedures which would violate their reasoned moral conscience. In doing so, they must take all reasonable steps to ensure that quality of care and patient safety is not compromised.

18
Q

Conditions of the principle of double effect

A

o The act must not be morally wrong (usually last resort)
o The person must not intend the bad effect (as an end to be sought)
o The evil effect must not be a means to achieving the good effect.
o The bad effect must not outweigh the good.

19
Q

Describe giving voice to values

A

GVV- post ethical decision-making curriculum that assists in acting in accordance with your values (the ethical decision needs to be made before the GVV is implemented).

20
Q

GVV - pillar 1

A

Values -Set of universally shared socially approved value norms, personal and professional (Honesty, respect, fairness, confidentiality, informed consent)

21
Q

GVV - pillar 2

A

Choice -You have your values already set and you recognise that there is a choice of acting on our values.

o Enabler- makes it easier to choose the value and speak up (support from others). Disabler- things that make it more difficult to voice our values (caught off guard, close friend).

22
Q

GVV - pillar 3

A

Normalisation - Expectancy that it is normal to face value conflict in practice, and we may have to take risks to give voice to our values.

23
Q

GVV - pillar 4

A

Purpose - Internalise and look at oneself, define the professional and personal purpose, what if important and what impact do you want to make.

24
Q

GVV - pillar 5

A

Self- knowledge & alignment

-Reflect on your own strengths and weaknesses so you can lean on your strengths. Generate the narrative consistent with who you are leaning on your strengths and acknowledging your weakness.

25
Q

GVV - pillar 6

A

Voice - Voice develops over time some people can be more direct than others, but it must be used in an appropriate way that appropriate to the situation.

26
Q

GVV - pillar 7

A

Reasons and rationalisation - Reflecting on the reasons people have for doing certain thigs and how they rationalise it to themselves. (how might someone rationalise to you why they are doing something that conflicts with your decided upon ethical value)

27
Q

Medication classes (what are and why)

A

o Classed as therapeutic substances within a list of controlled poisons.

o The posions and therapeutics Act covers substances that are harmful to varying degrees when handled incorrectly.

o Nurses need a nursing license to handle certain medications.

28
Q

Medical records - explain

A

o An accurate and timely record of each episode of a patient’s care must be made in the records so that the record is available at any subsequent point of care or service delivery.

o Must be clear, accurate and unambiguous.

o Contain statement of fact and clinical opinions.

o Must be complete and comprehensive.

29
Q

Define open disclosure.

A

The process for ensuring that open, honest, empathetic and timely discussions occur between patients and/or their support persons and health service staff following a patient safety incident.

30
Q

What are the roles of the coroner?

A
  1. Investigate deaths to find out who, where, why, and how they died.
  2. Investigate fires and explosions to figure out what caused them and where they started.
  3. Make suggestions about public health and safety based on investigation findings.
  4. Make sure an inquest or inquiry happens when necessary.
31
Q

What circumstances does death not need to be reported to the coroner?

A

o Any death that falls out outside of the scope of the coroner’s act.

o When the death occurs in a hospital but is expected and a death certificate can or has been issued (palliative care or end of life)

32
Q

When is cause of death certificate issues?

A

If the death is not reported.

33
Q

Notifications (Complaints)

A

o Any person can make a notification about a nurse or student nurse.

o The health Practitioner Regulation (NSW) required employers and educational bodies to make mandatory notifications to AHPRA if they believe a nurse, midwife or student has behaved in a way that constitutes notifiable conduct.

34
Q

Instances of Notification

A

o Health- if a person’s performance is impaired by their health.

o Performance- is unsatisfactory below the minimum standard of the NMBA code of standards.

o Unsatisfactory conduct- to the point where a nurse may need to be removed from the profession (Professional misconduct).

35
Q

Define bullying

A

o A form of harassment where a person is singled out for negative treatment by others.

36
Q

Utilitarianism

A

Consequences or outcomes that maximise overall “happiness”. It asks: What should I do to achieve the best outcome in this situation?
Focus: consequences of actions.
Claim: The moral action is the one that produces the greatest amount of good.Uses reason to: weigh up which course of action will produce the most “utility”overall.
q Strengths and weaknesses?
q Attempts to ensure a good outcome
q Difficulty of predicting what might be the best outcome in complex cases
A triage nurse is an example of a consequentialist

37
Q

Deontology

A

Duty, obligation and principles-based reasons for right action; divine
command. It asks: What is required of me in the situation?

Claim: You have a non-negotiable duty or obligation to do what is right – no matter what!

38
Q

Virtue ethics

A

Character or agent-based. It asks: What should I do if I’m aiming to
become a particular kind (virtuous) person?

39
Q
A