Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Phagocytosis

A

“To eat”. The process by which a cell engulfs a large particle e.g. bacteria, dead tissue, small particles (> 0.5uM) into a phagosome by wrapping plasma membrane around the material and internalizing it. Early innate immune defense performed by phagocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Neutrophils as phagocytes

A

patrol blood stream and migrate rapidly to tissue during infection. Phagocytosis and intracellular killing. Granules with proteolytic enzymes and ROS. Antimicrobial peptides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Monocytes as phagocytes

A

In the blood. Migrate into tissue and differentiate to macrophages.
Macrophages- tissue resident that sense infection and kill microbes by phagocytosis. Aided by complement. Produce inflammatory mediators/cytokines to recruit/activate other cells. Antigen presentation to effector T cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Dendritic cells as phagocytes

A

Process antigen and present it to T cells. Provide co-stimulation and activate T cells. Produce ROS, IFN, Cytokines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What role does C3 play in an immune response?

A

C3 is a central protein in the complement system that is cleaved in all three complement pathways by a C3 convertase. When complement pathways are activated it is cleaved into C3a and C3bàInflammation, opsonization, lysis by MAC.
C3a is an anaphylotoxin (inflammation). C3b acts as an opsonizing agent (phagocytosis) and is needed to cleave C5 which allows assembly of the membrane attack complex (bacterial lysis).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What consequences would C3 deficiency likely have for a person?

A

People with defective C3 are susceptible to bacterial infection. Severe, pyogenic infections early in life. Recurrent infection by Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Neisseria meningitides due to lack of MAC formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Dendritic cells are often referred to as the cells that bridge innate and adaptive immunity. Briefly explain why these cells have earned this description

A

Dendritic cells are innate immune cells that phagocytose microbes, but they are also important for initiating the adaptive immunity since they are crucial presenting antigen and in providing the costimulation needed to activate CD4 T cells, and thereby mount an adaptive immune response that provides memory. Thus, they bridge innate and adaptive immunity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe two main roles of MHCI (major-histocompatibility complex I).

A

Ag presentation: Display foreign peptide on MHCI to show that the cell is infected and to engage Tc cells
* Display self on MHCI to demonstrate that the cell is healthy (NK cells)
* To display a self-peptide to test developing T cells for autoreactivity (primary lymphoid
organs; thymus and BM)
* Display self-peptide to maintain tolerance to self (secondary lymphoid organs; lymph
nodes, spleen +++)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which cells express MHCII (major-histocompatibility complex II)

A

Macrophage, B cells and Dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How are antigens loaded onto MHCII? 1

A

Peptides are generated from internalized antigens in endocytic vesicles. Particles are taken in within endosomes and endoscopes are fused with lysosome. The contents are degraded Simultaneously, MHC class II molecules are produced and exported from the ER
in vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How are antigens loaded onto MHCII? 2

A

Invariant chain guides transport of class II MHC molecules to endocytic vesicles
– Invariant chain (Ii, CD74) prevents peptides from binding to the groove too early in the ER
– Ii also uses sorting signals in its cytoplasmic tail to direct MHCII–containing vesicles to peptide-containing endocytic compartments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How are antigens loaded onto MHCII? 3

A

Peptides assemble with class II MHC molecules
– Ii is initially degraded by proteolytic activity within endocytic compartments to
class II–associated invariant chain (CLIP)
– HLA-DM exchanges CLIP out of the groove for a peptide fragment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which cells recognize antigen presented on MHCII?

A

CD4+ T helper cells by recognizing Ag with TCR (signal 1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe two additional signals that trigger survival, proliferation and differentiation of these cells. 2 + 1.5 +1.5

A

Co-stimulation through B7(CD80/CD86) ++
à Survival and proliferation à IL-2 transcription
à Stabilization of IL-2 mRNA
3. Cytokine release (IL12, IFNg; IL4; IL23; IL6 etc)
à Direct differentiation of Th cells à Th1, Th17, Th2, TFH, Treg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the process of positive selection of thymocytes

A

CD4+CD8+ DP thymocytes undergo positive selection - Selects for thymocytes with receptors that can bind self-MHC with low affinity: «self-MHC restriction» Thymocytes are constantly in contact with cTECs (cortical thymic epithelial cells) that express MHC I and II DP thymocytes can have one of three fates:
1. TCR does not bind to any of the MHC/self-peptides during selection => apoptosis («death by neglect»)
2. TCR binds with very high affinity to MHC/self-peptides => apoptosis («clonal deletion») 3. TCR binds with ”just the right” affinity to MHC/self-peptide complexes: Cells receive survival signal («positive selection») and mature to single positive CD4+ or CD8+ T cells (lineage commitment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Explain the term “Self- MHC restriction”.

A

T cells are restricted to recognizing peptides presented in the context of self MHC alleles
– only processed antigen peptide fragments presented by APC can be recognized
– T cells recognize antigen specifically.
– Antigen must be presented by self MHC alleles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why are loss-of-function mutations in the autoimmune regulator AIRE associated with autoimmune disorders?

A

AIRE is important in Negative selection (“self-tolerance”) in the thymus which involves eliminating autoreactive T cells which have high-affinity receptors for self-MHC/selfpeptide complexes
AIRE: Autoimmune regulator, transcription factor with the unique ability to turn on expression of tissue-specific proteins that would normally not be found in the thymus -> thymic cells can present tissue-specific auto-antigens
Negative selection is responsible for central tolerance; errors in negative selection can cause autoimmune disorders (e.g. Type I diabetes) since T cells won’t be negatively selected for
recognition of self proteins found outside the thymus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

HIV-infection eventually leads to progressive loss of CD4+ T cells. Why is this this loss fatal?

A

CD4+ T cells are essential for mounting an adaptive immune response which provides memory. Without these cells, no effector CD4+ T cells; Th1, Th2, Th17, Tfh, Treg
Affects B2 cells and humoral response and memory since Tfh are needed.
Affects activation of macrophages and recruitment of neutrophils.
Affects activation of CD8+ T cells since this requires CD4+ Th cells as well. Loss of effector cytokines produced by the CD4+ Th subsets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe the main characteristics Th1 cells and their role in an immune response.

A

TH1 regulate immunity to intracellular bacteria and viruses
* Differentiation induced by IL12, IFNg
* Help macrophages to destroy intracellular pathogens (e.g. mycobacteria)
Macrophage presents antigen to Th1 cell and gets activating signals back: – T cell cytokines (IFNg)
– CD40-CD40L interaction
àphago-lysosome fusion, ROS production, increased expression of MHC class II, B7, CD40…
* Major effector cytokine: IFN-γ
* Provide help to activate CD8+ T cytotoxic cells (co-stimulation and IL2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a hematopoietic stem cell?

A

a stem cell that can differentiate to any blood cell (myeloid or lymphoid).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are two important abilities of hematopoietic stem cells?

A

Self-renewing – they can divide into clones
- Multipotential – they can divide to form daughter cells that are more differentiated -> can de-
velop to all cells of the blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Briefly describe five mechanisms that generate antibody diversity in naive B2 cells during development.

A

Combinatorial diversity of multiple gene segments. V, D and J for heavy chain, V and J for light chains loci.
2. Heavy chain - Light chain combinatorial diversity
- Independent combination of different heavy and light chains
3. P-nucleotide addition. P=palindromic. Result of assymetric cleavage of hairpin-sealed DNA by Artemis
4. Loss of nucleotides at V-D-J and V-J junctions due to exonucleases
5. N-nucleotide addition by TdT. N=nontemplate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why is class-switch rearrangement important for mounting an effective humoral response?

A

Class-switch rearrangement provides the generation of all the isotypes of antibodies, IgGs, IgA, IgE, in addition to IgM. All have different functions depending on which FC receptor they bind and which effector cell expresses the given effector response. This provides the great variety in antibody-mediated effector responses that can be mounted (neutralization, opsonization, complement activation and ADCC).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

IgM

A

pentavalent “5-armed” with 10 Ag binding sites in total.
a. First Ab produced in a primary response
b. Tend to be lower affinity
c. Very good at complement fixation leading to MAC formation and target lysis
d. Also efficient at forming dense Ab-pathogen complexes that are efficiently engulfed
by macrophage (agglutination)
e. Large. Cannot cross placenta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

IgA

A

IgA1 monomer (serum), IgA2 dimer (secretions)
Major isotype found in secretions
Effective at neutralizing toxins and pathogens
Protects epithelial surfaces from infectious agents
Does not fix complement, so does not drive inflammation
Long half-life in secretions due to protease-resistant amino acid sequence in Fc region
Mediates ADCC
Triggers degranulation of granulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

List three cellular locations of PRRs. Give one example of a PRR in each location and name
a pathogenic structure that it recognizes

A

Compartments: Cell surface (examples TLR1,2,4,5,6… + ligand), endosome (examples TLR7,8,9 + ligand), cytosol (NLRs, RIG-I, MDA5, cGAS/STING… + ligand), 0.5P for each location, 0.5P for a PRR example in each location and 0.5P for a correct ligand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Inflammasomes

A

Inflammasomes are cytosolic multiprotein complexes of the innate immune system that induce inflammatory responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The general activation process and the outcome of Inflammasomes

A

Nod-like receptors (NLRs) family of cytosolic sensors, recognize intracellular PAMPs. Inflammasome consists of NLR, adaptor Ask and caspase-1, activation of Il-1beta and IL-18 (at least IL-1beta should be mentioned), two signals are required for activation – one drives expression of IL-1beta and the second signal induces inflammasome assembly and cleavage/activation of IL-1beta. Major outcome is release of IL-1b (and IL-18).
Terms that should be mentioned to get all points: NLRs (1P), (cytosolic) assembly of multiprotein complex (1P), 2-step process/caspase cleavage (1P), IL-1b release (1P)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Name the three different pathways by which the complement system can be activated.
What is the initiation event in each of the three pathways?

A
  • Lectin pathway: initiated by mannose binding lectin (MBL or MBP) which binds to man-nose on microbes
  • Classical pathway: initiated by C1 complex when C1q binds directly to surface compo-nents of some bacteria (e.g. lipoteichoic acid of G+ bacteria) or to CRP that binds bacte-rial surface
  • Alternative pathway: initiated by C3b binding to microbial surfaces. C3b can be generat-ed in two ways: by the classical pathway or the lectin pathway, and by spontaneous hy-drolysis of serum C3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

One risk factor for the autoimmune disease Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is a
hereditary deficiency of one or several complement proteins. Briefly explain why
deficiencies of complement factors C1q, C2 and C4 may induce autoimmunity?

A

These proteins are important for clearance of apoptotic cells and immunocomplexes (1P). If these are not cleared the risk of activating self-reactive lymphocytes is increased

31
Q

Explain why patients with C5 deficiency suffer from recurrent infections with Neisseria
bacteria.

A

Without C5, there won’t be formation of the terminal complement components (C5-C9) that forms the membrane attack complex (MAC), and consequently not bacteria lysis.

32
Q

Polymorphy:

A

MHC genes are polymorphic-many alleles for each gene

33
Q

Polygeny:

A

Several different genes for MHC (e.g. HLA-A,B,C for MHC I)

34
Q

Codominant expression:

A

Paternal and maternal genes expressed

35
Q

Promiscuity:

A

Each combination can recognize many different peptides

36
Q

Peptides from endocytosed antigens are usually presented on MHC class II on antigen-
presenting cells (APCs). However, some APCs can present peptides from endocytosed antigens on MHC class I as well. How is this process termed, in which cells does it occur and why is it important for activating CD8+ T cells?

A

Cross-presentation. Described mainly in (conventional) dendritic cells. CD8+ T cells need “licensing” by CD4+ T cells: CD4+ T cells and CD8+ T cells recognize peptides from the same antigen/pathogen via MHC II and MHC II on the DC, CD4+ Th cell gives signals to the DC and CD8+ T cell (cytokines/CD40/CD40L interaction) that further activates the DC and the CD8+ T cell (“licenses” the CD8+ T cell to differentiate into CTL)

37
Q

In the defense against which type of pathogen is secretion of type I interferons (IFNs)
critical and what are the major effects of type I IFNs?

A

To fight viruses.
Main effect is the induction of ISGs: Genes that restrict viral replication, enhances anti-viral defense by induction of set of anti-viral genes, can act autocrine or alert neighboring cells and immune cells. Some ISG examples would be nice (not required).

38
Q

How can cytokines from innate immune cells shape the activation of the adaptive CD4+ T
cell response during an infection?

A

Cytokines from innate immune cells in the surrounding of differentiating T cells act as “polarizing cytokines”. Also termed “signal 3” in T cell activation

39
Q

Why is interleukin-2 (IL-2) important during CD4+ T cell differentiation?

A

IL-2 signaling induces T cell proliferation/cell division (1P) of activated T cells. 1P for some explanation: Leads to clonal expansion of activated T cells (T cells also upregulate CD25/IL-2Ra chain and are more responsive to IL-2 in this phase, make IL-2 themselves→not required to get full points)

40
Q

Differentiated CD4+ T helper cell lineages produce different types of effector cytokines.
Which CD4+ T helper cell lineage can help macrophages to fight intracellular bacterial infections? Which is the main cytokine produced by this CD4+ T helper cell lineage?

A

Th1 cells, IFNg

41
Q

Tolerance

A

Different definitions may be given such as “Tolerance is a state of unresponsiveness of the immune system to agents that are able to elicit an active immune response”, absence of inflammatory response

42
Q

What type of immune response (“module”) is induced by a helminth (worm) infection?

A

Type II immune response

43
Q

How does cleavage of complement C5 into C5a and C5b contribute to limiting infection?

A

C5a – Anaphylatoxin. Induces inflammation and promotes phagocyte recruitment and activity
C5b- triggers the assembly of the membrane-attack complex (MAC) which leads to lysis of bac- teria by forming pores in the bacteria’s membrane

44
Q

Name 5 families of signaling PRRs

A

Toll-like receptors (TLRs)
NOD-like receptors (NLRs, NODs and NLRPs) C-type lectin receptors (CLRs)
RNA helicases/RIG-I-like receptors (RIG-I, Mda5) Cytosolic DNA-sensing receptors (CDSs)

45
Q

Name two different signaling PRRs that sense double-stranded RNA during vi- ral infection.

A

RIG-I/Mda5 and Toll-like receptor 3 sense double-stranded RNA
The receptors both sense dsRNA, but sense dsRNA present in different cellular compartments. The receptors use different adaptor molecules, but induce similar cytokine response – antiviral response.

46
Q

Briefly describe how a naïve CD4+ T helper cell is activated.

A

During an immune response, professional antigen presenting cells take up foreign mate- rial, process it and present it on MHCII to CD+T cells that express the specific TCR against the peptide/MHC complex. Activation is induced when the CD4+ Th TCR com- plex recognizes the antigen on APC MHCII. The CD4 co-receptor also binds to MHC and triggers intracellular signaling.

47
Q

Th1 – (IFNg, IL12)

A

regulate immunity to intracellular bacteria and viruses. License den- dritic cells for cross-presentation.

48
Q

Th17- (IL17, IL22)

A

regulate immunity to extracellular bacteria and fungi, produce proin- flammatory cytokines, recruit neutrophils and mediate tissue inflammation, contribute to inflammatory disease

49
Q

Th2 – (IL4, IL5, IL10, IL13)

A

Regulate immunity to worms, humoral immunity, eosino- phils, basophils, mast cells, allergy

50
Q

Treg – (TGFb, IL10)

A

Immune suppression, tolerance. Terminate immune responses and inhibit autoimmunity

51
Q

Tfh – (IL21, ICOS)

A

regulate humoral immunity (B cells). Provide B cell help in humoral immunity (B cell follicles). Provide help during clonal selection after affinity maturation.

52
Q

Explain how a licensed dendritic cells can activate a naïve CD8+ T cells, even when the dendritic cell is not infected.

A

A licensed dendritic cell can present antigen derived from extracellular sources on MHCI through the process of “cross-presentation”. Cross-presentation allows DC to acquire an- tigens from other infected cells, present these exogenous antigens on MHCI and prime CD8+ T cells.
Licensed dendritic cells also express the co-stimulatory molecules (CD80/CD86 ++) needed to activate a given CD8+ T cell that recognizes the antigen that is presented.

53
Q

Why is phagocytosis important for host defence?

A

Function: Remove bacteria, dead cells ++, Processing antigens for presentation.

54
Q

Briefly, describe the phagocytosis process.

A

Phagocytosis is an important process in inflammation, involving the uptake of microbes by phagocytic cells at the site of infection. Steps: Uptake into phagsomes includes binding to PRRs, phagosome fusion with lysosome, degradation in lysosomes/phagolysosomes, products released or presented on MHC

55
Q

Phagocytosis directly route of activation.

A

Soluble proteins (CRP, MBL) – opsonins- bind microbes and mark them for phagocytosis
* Opsonins are recognized by phagocytes and trigger phagocytosis

56
Q

Phagocytosis indirectly route of activation.

A

Receptors on phagocytes recognize microbes directly and trigger phagocytosis
* Mediated by PRRs

57
Q

What is antigen presentation?

A

Antigen presentation is the process by which a cell presents processed antigen (or antigen peptides) bound to major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules on its cell surface to T cells

58
Q

Which cells express Major Histocompatibility Complex II (MHCII) and which cells recognize foreign antigen bound to MHCII?

A

Antigen presenting cells (dendritic cells, macrophages and B cells) express MHCII and present antigen to CD4+ T helper cells

59
Q

Briefly, explain how cytosolic antigens are processed and presented. Which type of effector cell recognizes these antigens?

A

Antigens originating in the cytosol are degraded by the proteasome, processed by the endogenous pathway and are assembled on MHCI in the ER. Antigens are presented on MHCI to CD8+T cells

60
Q

How are CD8+ T cells primed (activated)? Which cell type mediates this?

A

These cells are primed (through cross-presentation in which licensed dendritic cells take up extracellular antigen and present these) by antigen presented by professional APCs on MHCI to
CD8+ T cells, usually DCs. This process requires licensing of dendritic cells by CD4 T cells for
optimal priming and for the development of memory

61
Q

Describe the three signals that are required to fully activate a CD4+ T cell. Which processes are initiated in the CD4+ T cells by these signals?

A
  1. TCR signal from recognizing peptide on MHC II (ag-specific signal). 2. Co-stimulatory signal (CD80/86 on APCs interacts with CD28 on T cells). 3. Cyokine signal (cytokines in the surrounding affect differentiation into different CD4+ Thelper effector cell subsets). Induced processes: Activation, proliferation, effector cell differentiation
62
Q

Briefly, describe how cytotoxic T cells and NK cells kill their target cells.

A

Both cytotoxic T cells (CTLs) and NK cells induce cell death by apoptosis (1 p) in their target cells. CTLs can induce apoptosis through the FAS/FASL pathway and by the perforin/granzyme pathway (2 p). NK cells induce apoptosis by releasing perforins/granzyme (

63
Q

Describe how cytotoxic T cells and NK cells differ with respect to how they identify their target cells.

A

CTLs recognize antigen presented on MHCI (1 p). NK cells are activated when they detect the absence of MHCI on a target cell (1,5 p), or when their FC receptors (FcγRII/CD16) bind by binding antibody-coated target cells (antibody-mediated cellular cytoxicty (ADCC))(1,5 p)

64
Q

Name the major CD4+ T helper cell subsets.

A

Th1, Th2, Th17, Treg, Tfh

65
Q

What are the main characteristics of a mature, naïve conventional B-2 cell?

A

ature, naïve conventional B-2 cells express high levels of surface IgD and IgM (1 p), and rearranged light and heavy chains (1 p). Recirculate between blood and lymphoid organs (1 p). (also express CD45R, BAFF-R, CD19, CD21, CD40).

66
Q

What is an antibody?

A

Antibodies are also known as immunoglobulins. These are glycoproteins secreted by differentiated B cells (plasma cells) which recognize antigen.
Antibodies are large Y shaped proteins consisting of two large heavy chains and two light chains.
The light chains consist of a variable region, and a constant region which is either ĸ or λ. The heavy chains consist of a variable region and a constant domain.
The constant regions (Fc) are identical in all antibodies of the same isotype, but differ between antibody isotypes. The constant regions mount specific immune responses by binding complement factors and Fc receptors on effector cells.
The variable regions (Fab) of the light and heavy chain make up the antigen-binding site and recognize a specific antigen. The variable regions differ between antibodies produced by different B cell clones.

67
Q

Briefly, describe the most important steps in a T-dependent B-2 cell response.

A

B cells bind antigen through their Immunoglobulin- /B cell receptor in the lymph nodes or spleen. This induces initial activation and proliferation and the formation of primary foci and germinal centers. Some antigen is internalized, processed and presented on MHCII to CD4 T helper cells (follicular T cells) that recognize the same antigen. This interaction occurs at the border between the follicle in the lymph nodes where B cells reside, and the paracortex of the lymph nodes where the T cells reside. Interaction with helper T cells provides the B cell with CD40 ligation and cytokines that support survival, proliferation and further differentiation to plasma cells or memory cells.
Some B cells form primary foci and differentiate to plasmablasts that start producing antibodies right away. Other B cells enter B cell follicles and form germinal centers and continue to differentiate with the help of follicular Th cells and follicular dendritic cell (FDC). In germinal centers the B cells go through affinity maturation which increases the affinity of the immunoglobulin receptor. Affinity maturation involves Somatic Hyper Mutation and clonal selection of B cells with higher affinity for antigen. In germinal centers B cells can also receive costimulatory signals from Th cells to engage Class Switch Recombination which changes the Ig isotype produced by the B cell.
Some germinal center cells complete their maturation as plasma cells which secrete antibody, while some become memory B cells which can respond faster and more effectively to a later encounter with the antigen since their Ig-receptors have already gone through SHM and CSR.

68
Q

Briefly, describe how IgM and IgG can activate complement during bacterial infections. Which immunoglobulin is more effective at activating complement and why?

A

IgM and IgG can bind antigen on bacterial surfaces and recruit complement C1q (2 p). IgM and IgG must be bound to antigen on a surface (not in solution) (1 p). Two or more IgGs are required to bind C1q, while only one IgM is required to bind C1q since it forms pentamers which potentially can bind to 10 antigens on a surface (2 p). This induces a conformational change in the antibody which allows efficient binding of C1q.

69
Q

What are the main differences between antibodies produced as a result of B-1 activation and antibodies produced in a T-dependent B-2 cell response?

A

B1 cells primarily produce IgM upon activation (1 p). These antibodies have not gone through T cell dependent affinity maturation and class switch recombination in the germinal centers (1 p) and typically have less affinity for antigen and mount a fast, but limited set of responses (0,5 p). Antibodies produced in a T-dependent B-2 cell response have gone through affinity
maturation (somatic hyper mutation and clonal selection) and class switch recombination (1 p). These antibodies will therefore typically have higher affinity for antigen (0,5 p), and will be produced as different isotypes (1 p), which are further effective in mounting different effector responses.

70
Q

Explain the structure of the B cell receptor.

A

The B-cell receptor consists of an immunoglobulin (1p) with a hydrophilic spacer segment, a hydrophobic transmembrane segment of aprox 25aa (1p), and a short cytoplasmic tail at the carboxyl terminus, due to alternative splicing.

71
Q

The B cell receptor requires receptor-associated molecules to propagate signaling. Briefly, explain how Igα/Igβ mediate signaling from the B cell receptor.

A

ITAM residues (2p) on these co-receptors can be phosporylated by Src family kinases (1 p) and recruit adaptor proteins and signaling molecules with binding sites for phosphorylated tyrosine (1 p).

72
Q

Modification of membrane components plays an important role in immune signaling. Briefly, explain how modification of phospholipids in the plasma membrane can lead to increased cytosolic Ca2+ levels.

A

Phospholipase C gamma, PLCɣ (1p) can cleave PIP2 (1p) in the plasma membrane into DAG and IP3 (1p). IP3 binds to calcium channels (1p) in the ER (1p), leading to release of Ca2+ into the cytosol.

73
Q

Explain how increased Ca2+ levels in the cytosol can lead to activation of NFAT.

A

Calcium binds to Calmodulin (1p), and leads to a conformational change (1p) and activation of this protein. Calmodulin binds and activates Calcineurin (1p), which de-phosphorylates (1p) NFAT, allowing for its relocalization to the nucleus (1p).