Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

Gross anatomy, or macroscopic anatomy, considers:

A

features visible with the naked, or unaided, eye.

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2
Q

The human form shown upright, hands at the sides, palms forward, and feet together is in the _______ position.

A

anatomical

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3
Q

A person lying face down is in the _______ position.

A

prone

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4
Q

A person lying face up is in the ________ position.

A

supine

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5
Q

The frontal plane divides the body into the _______ and _______ portions.

A

anterior, posterior

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6
Q

The diaphragm separates the abdominopelvic and _______ cavities.

A

thoracic

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7
Q

The layer of the pericardium covering the heart is the _______ pericardium.

A

visceral

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8
Q

The pericardium lies within the:

A

mediastinum

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9
Q

________ is an anatomical term meaning “toward an attached base.”

A

Proximal

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10
Q

_______ is an anatomical term meaning “above or at a higher level.”

A

Superior

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11
Q

The term _______ means “the study of internal and external structures and the physical relationships between body parts.”

A

Anatomy

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12
Q

_______ is the study of how living organisms perform their vital functions.

A

Physiology

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13
Q

The _______level is comprised of the smallest stable units of matter.

A

Molecular

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14
Q

_______ are the smallest living units in the body.

A

Cells

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15
Q

The pleural cavity surrounds what organ?

A

Lung

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16
Q

The abdominopelvic cavity can be divided into either four or nine regions. (True or False)

A

True

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17
Q

The axial skeleton includes all limbs and supporting bones and ligaments. (True or False)

A

False

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18
Q

Bone marrow acts as the primary site of red and white blood cell production. (True or False)

A

True

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19
Q

The pituitary gland controls other endocrine glands and regulates growth and fluid balance. (True or False)

A

True

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20
Q

The sagittal plane runs along the long axis of the body, extending anteriorly and posteriorly and dividing the body into left and right portions. (True or False)

A

True

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21
Q

________ processes require the cell to expend energy to move ions or molecules across the cell membrane, usually in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

A

Active

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22
Q

A(n) ________ is a subatomic particle with a negative charge.

A

Electron

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23
Q

________ are atoms or molecules with an electric charge.

A

Anions, Cations, Ions

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24
Q

________ are chemical bonds created by the electrical attraction between anions and cations.

A

Ionic Bonds

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25
Q

________ is stored energy.

A

Potential Energy

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26
Q

________ are the essential elements and molecules obtained from the diet.

A

Nutrients

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27
Q

________ are compounds that stabilize pH by either removing or replacing hydrogen ions.

A

Buffers

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28
Q

Sodium, potassium, calcium, and magnesium are examples of:

A

Cations

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29
Q

What reaction breaks molecules into smaller fragments (for example, AB ——-> A + B)?

A

Decomposition Reaction

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30
Q

Inorganic compounds do not contain hydrogen and ________ atoms.

A

Carbon

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31
Q

________ is a form of decomposition reaction.

A

Catabolism, Digestion, Hydrolysis

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32
Q

________ is the net movement of molecules from an area of relatively high concentration to an area of relatively low concentration.

A

DIffusion

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33
Q

What is the diffusion of water across a cell membrane called?

A

Osmosis

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34
Q

Which solution does not cause the net movement of water into or out of a red blood cell?

A

Isotonic

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35
Q

Which solution causes the movement of water into a red blood cell, causing it to swell and possibly lyse, or burst?

A

Hypotonic

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36
Q

Which solution causes a red blood cell to lose water, causing the cell to shrink and dehydrate?

A

Hypertonic

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37
Q

Glucose is passively transported across the cell membrane by binding to a receptor site on a carrier protein in a process called:

A

Facilitated Diffusion

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38
Q

Lactated Ringers and normal saline are examples of what type of IV fluid?

A

Crystalloid

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39
Q

The organelles that manufacture proteins, using information provided by the DNA of the nucleus, are called what?

A

Ribosomes

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40
Q

What is an essential function of epithelial cells?

A

Control permeability, produce specialized secretions, Provide physical protection

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41
Q

________ is an example of a connective tissue.

A

Blood, bone, fat

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42
Q

________ are responsible for engulfing damaged cells or pathogens that enter the tissue.

A

Macrophages

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43
Q

________ are proteins that destroy invading microorganisms.

A

Antibodies

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44
Q

The watery matrix in blood is called:

A

Plasma

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45
Q

What type of muscle is also known as striated voluntary muscle because it is controlled by the nervous system and has a striated appearance?

A

Skeletal

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46
Q

________ is a brown, yellow-brown, or black pigment that accumulates in the epidermal cells.

A

Melanin

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47
Q

Reddish-purple blotches due to leakage of blood from an artery or vein are called:

A

Ecchymosis

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48
Q

________ is the medical condition characterized by the eruption of groups of vesicles along the dermatome of a sensory nerve.

A

Herpes Zoster

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49
Q

The integument contains two types of exocrine glands, sweat and:

A

Sebaceous

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50
Q

The primary function of merocrine sweat glands is what?

A

To cool the surface of the skin

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51
Q

A blood clot consists mainly of an insoluble network of:

A

Fibrin

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52
Q

An ________ is an injury where a flap of skin and tissues are torn loose or torn off.

A

Avulsion

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53
Q

Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?

A

The production of red blood cells within the red marrow

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54
Q

What is the expanded portion at each end of a long bone called?

A

Epiphyses

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55
Q

The outer surface of a bone is covered by a(n):

A

Periosteum

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56
Q

Which of the following plays an important part in normal calcium metabolism?

A

Vitamin D3

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57
Q

Which of the following works with parathyroid hormone (PTH) to elevate calcium levels in the body?

A

Calcitriol

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58
Q

A partial displacement of a bone end from its position within a joint capsule is a what?

A

Subluxation

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59
Q

A ________ fracture has multiple bone fragments at the fracture site.

A

Comminuted

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60
Q

The pelvic girdle is included in what division of the skeleton?

A

Appendicular

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61
Q

The ________ connects the cranial cavity with the spinal cavity and has the spinal cord passing through it.

A

Foramen Magnum

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62
Q

Which of the following is suspended below the skull and serves as a base for muscles associated with the larynx, tongue, and pharynx?

A

Hyoid

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63
Q

What is the fibrous connective tissue connecting the bones of the skull at birth called?

A

Fontanels

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64
Q

The ________ is the projection on the axis (C2) that forms a pivot joint with the atlas (C1) to allow a person to rotate their head side to side.

A

Dens and Odontoid process

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65
Q

The superior portion of the sternum is called the what?

A

Manubrium

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66
Q

The arm, or brachium, contains what single bone?

A

Humerus

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67
Q

The head of the femur connects with what curved surface of the pelvis?

A

Acetabelum

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68
Q

Which of the following is a function of skeletal muscle?

A

To produce movement of the skeleton, to maintain body temperature

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69
Q

________ is the “key” that “unlocks” the active site of an actin molecule.

A

Calcium

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70
Q

________ is the neurotransmitter or chemical released by a motor neuron to communicate with other cells.

A

Acetylcholine

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71
Q

Arm muscles, after being in a cast, can develop smaller and weaker muscle fibers in a condition called:

A

Atrophy

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72
Q

The breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid in the cytoplasm of the cell is called:

A

Glycolysis

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73
Q

The specialized sites that are contacts between cardiac muscle cells are called what?

A

Intercalated discs

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74
Q

The specialized cells that determine the timing of cardiac muscle contractions are called what?

A

Pacemaker Cells

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75
Q

Which muscle separates the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities?

A

Diaphragm

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76
Q

All neural tissue outside of the brain and spinal cord makes up which nervous system?

A

Peripheral

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77
Q

Information is carried to the CNS by the ________ division, and motor commands are carried to muscles and glands via the ________ division.

A

Afferent, Efferent

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78
Q

_______ increase(s) the speed at which the action potential travels along the axon of an oligodendrocyte.

A

Myelin

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79
Q

Which of the following is an example of a demyelination disorder?

A

Multiple Sclerosis

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80
Q

What is a shift of membrane potential toward 0 mV called?

A

Depolarization

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81
Q

__________ is when a cell membrane cannot respond normally to further stimulation.

A

Refractory Period

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82
Q

Synapses that release norepinephrine are called:

A

Adrenergic

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83
Q

The three layers of specialized membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord are the:

A

Meninges

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84
Q

Which part of the brain controls conscious thoughts, sensations, memory storage, and complex movements?

A

Cerebrum

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85
Q

The hypothalamus is connected to what glans, which is the primary link between the nervous and endocrine systems?

A

Pituitary

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86
Q

Which region of the brain is responsible for control of autonomic functions such as heart rate, blood pressure, and digestive activities?

A

Medulla Oblongata

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87
Q

Which of the following is caused by an imbalance in the amount of CSF produced and the rate at which it is absorbed?

A

Hydrocephalus

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88
Q

The _________ division of the autonomic nervous system stimulates tissue metabolism, increases alertness, and prepares the body to deal with emergencies.

A

Sympathetic

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89
Q

The stimulation of beta 1 receptors causes which of the following?

A

An increase in cardiac contractility, An increase in heart rate, An increase in cardiac conduction

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90
Q

The parasympathetic nervous system has nicotinic and __________ receptors.

A

Muscarinic

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91
Q

What are the chemical messengers of the endocrine system called?

A

Hormones

92
Q

The __________ provides acts as an important link between the nervous and endocrine systems?

A

Hypothalamus

93
Q

The hormones released by the ___________ control other endocrine glands.

A

Anterior pituitary gland

94
Q

Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin are released by which gland?

A

Posterior pituitary gland

95
Q

What is the primary function of the antidiuretic hormone?

A

To decrease the amount of water lost in urine

96
Q

Which disease occurs when the kidneys cannot respond to ADH or there is inadequate release of ADH into the body, which may be a result of trauma to the hypothalamus?

A

Diabetes insipidus

97
Q

Which corticosteroid affects the electrolyte composition of body fluids?

A

Aldosterone

98
Q

Which of the following promotes the conversion of lipids to glucose?

A

Cortisone

99
Q

Epinephrine is secreted by which gland?

A

Adrenal medulla

100
Q

The endocrine cells of which organ produce & secrete glucagon and insulin?

A

Pancreas

101
Q

The alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans produce & secrete which hormone?

A

Glucagon

102
Q

Which hormone secreted by the kidneys stimulates the production of red blood cells?

A

Erythropoietin

103
Q

In a(n) __________ effect, one hormone must be present for another hormone to work?

A

Permissive

104
Q

In a(n) __________ effect, one hormone must be present for another hormone to work?

A

Permissive

105
Q

A(n) _________ effect can result in two hormones having a net effect greater than the sum of their individual effects.

A

Synergistic

106
Q

Blood reduces fluid loss at an injury site by which of the following?

A

Clotting

107
Q

What are special proteins that attack invading organisms called?

A

Antibodies

108
Q

What is the average pH of whole blood?

A

7.35 to 7.45

109
Q

Which of the following is the most abundant plasma protein and the one responsible for the osmotic pressure of plasma?

A

Albumin

110
Q

Which plasma protein is responsible for antibodies and transport proteins?

A

Globulins

111
Q

Which of the following is called a drifting blood clot?

A

Embolus

112
Q

Which plasma protein is involved in blood coagulation?

A

Fibrinogens

113
Q

_________ bind(s) and transport (s) carbon dioxide and oxygen

A

Hemoglobin

114
Q

The ________ is the percentage of whole blood volume occupied by cellular elements.

A

Hematocrit

115
Q

Which surface antigen on red blood cells determines blood type?

A

A, B, Rh

116
Q

What is thrombocytopenia?

A

Low Platelet Count

117
Q

Which chambers of the heart are associated with the pulmonary circuit?

A

Right atrium, right ventricle

118
Q

Which connective tissue divides the thoracic cavity into two pleural cavities and encloses the heart?

A

Mediastinum

119
Q

The muscular wall of the heart is called what?

A

Myocardium

120
Q

Which of the following is true of the foramen ovale?

A

Closes at birth, penetrates the interatrial septum and connects the atria, allows blood flow from the right atrium and left ventricle

121
Q

The valve between the left atrium and left ventricle is the:

A

Mitral valve, Left atrioventricular valve, Bicuspid valve

122
Q

The right coronary artery divides into what branches?

A

Marginal and posterior interventricular

123
Q

What is an area of dead tissue caused by interruption in cardiac blood flow called?

A

Infarct

124
Q

The influx of _________ rapidly depolarizes the cardiac contractile cells.

A

Sodium

125
Q

Pulmonary veins carry blood to which of the following?

A

Heart

126
Q

The normal rate of contraction of the heart is established by _________ cells.

A

Pacemaker

127
Q

_________ form branching networks and are barely the diameter of a single red blood cell

A

Capillaries

128
Q

Which layer of a blood vessel contains smooth muscle tissue?

A

Tunica Media

129
Q

The formation of lipid deposits in the tunica media associated with damage to the endothelial lining is called what?

A

Atherosclerosis

130
Q

Which of the following controls the flow of blood into the capillary?

A

Precapillary Sphincter

131
Q

________ connect arterioles and venules, acting as shunts of the capillary beds.

A

Arteriovenous anastomosis

132
Q

________ is the resistance to flow resulting from interactions among molecules and suspended materials in a liquid.

A

Viscosity

133
Q

________ is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures.

A

Pulse Pressure

134
Q

Which of the following affects tissue perfusion?

A

Cardiac Output, Blood Pressure, Peripheral Resistance

135
Q

Which portion of the brain has the cardiac and vasomotor centers?

A

Medulla Oblongata

136
Q

Receptors sensitive to chemical stimuli are called what?

A

Chemoreceptors

137
Q

The perception of pain coming from parts of the body that are not actually stimulated is called what?

A

Referred Pain

138
Q

Which of the following monitor changes in pressure, such as in the carotid artery and aorta?

A

Baroreceptors

139
Q

The chemoreceptors that monitor pH, oxygen levels, and carbon dioxide levels in the blood are located in the:

A

Carotid Bodies

140
Q

The clear fluid that fills the anterior chamber of the eye and helps give it its shape is called?

A

Aqueous Humor

141
Q

Which of the following photoreceptors provides color vision?

A

Cones

142
Q

______ is caused by an elevation in the pressure inside the eye from a blockage of the scleral venous sinus.

A

Glaucoma

143
Q

_________ is the body’s ability to resist infection and disease through the activation of specific defenses.

A

Immunity

144
Q

Which type of lymphocyte directly attacks foreign cells or body cells infected by viruses?

A

T Cells

145
Q

Which type of lymphocyte can differentiate into plasma cells, which produce and secrete antibodies?

A

B Cells

146
Q

The largest collection of lymphoid tissue in the body is found where?

A

Spleen

147
Q

_________ is the process of removing foreign particles from the lymph and the blood.

A

Phagocytosis

148
Q

A reaction to antigen-antibody coupling in which macrophages and neutrophils are attracted, is referred to _________.

A

Chemotaxis

149
Q

_______ is the process of NK cells constantly monitoring normal tissues.

A

Immunological Surveillance

150
Q

________ are small proteins released by activated tissue cells infected with viruses.

A

Interferons

151
Q

Which chemicals initiate the inflammatory process?

A

Histamine and Heparin

152
Q

The _______ acts as the body’s “thermostat.”

A

Hypothalamus

153
Q

Which proteins reset the hypothalamus and cause a rise in body temperature?

A

Pyrogens

154
Q

Which of the following are small organs that are found along lymphatic vessels?

A

Lymph Nodes

155
Q

________ Immunity appears after exposure to an antigen as a consequence of the immune response.

A

Naturally Acquired Active

156
Q

When antibodies produced by a mother protect her baby against infections, it is called ______ immunity.

A

Naturally Acquired Passive

157
Q

A(n) __________ process requires oxygen.

A

Aerobic

158
Q

The right lung is divided into how many lobes?

A

3

159
Q

The division of the trachea into the right and left primary bronchi occurs at the:

A

Carina

160
Q

Which of the following is the presence of air in the pleural sac and breaks the fluid bond between the pleurae?

A

Pneumothorax

161
Q

Which of the following is treated by a pleural decompression?

A

Tension pneumothorax

162
Q

________ is the process that involves gas exchange and gas transport.

A

Respiration

163
Q

What is the physical movement of air into the and out of the lungs called?

A

Ventilation

164
Q

Which of the following is a type of obstructive lung disease?

A

Chronic Bronchitis, Emphysema, Asthma

165
Q

________ levels are responsible for regulating respiratory activity under normal conditions.

A

Carbon Dioxide

166
Q

_______ is the chemical breakdown of food into small organic fragments.

A

Digestion

167
Q

What are the waves of muscular contractions that move along the length of the digestive tract called?

A

Peristalsis

168
Q

Which nerve controls the stomach and initiates the production of gastric juice?

A

Vagus

169
Q

Which condition is caused by abdominal organs sliding into the thoracic cavity through the esophageal hiatus?

A

Hiatal Hernia

170
Q

The ________ is the second segment of the small intestine and does the bulk of chemical digestion and nutrient absorption?

A

Jejunum

171
Q

Which of the following portions of the small intestine is attached to the pylorus of the stomach?

A

Duodenum

172
Q

The cystic duct leaves the liver and leads to the:

A

Gallbladder

173
Q

Which of the following is a general function of the liver?

A

Bile production, Metabolic regulation, Hematological regulation

174
Q

What is the most common cause of cirrhosis of the liver?

A

Chronic Alcohol Abuse

175
Q

The human liver is composed of how many lobes?

A

4

176
Q

What is a common cause of chronic viral hepatitis in the United States?

A

Hepatitis C

177
Q

Carbohydrate digestion begins in which of the following parts of the digestive tract?

A

Mouth

178
Q

The parietal cells secrete which of the following?

A

Hydrochloric Acid

179
Q

The renal tubule is responsible for:

A

Reabsorbing useful organic molecules, secreting any waste products missed by the filtration process, reabsorbing water

180
Q

Filtration membranes allow the passage of:

A

Water, Ions, and Glucose

181
Q

In the proximal convoluted tubule, water moves out of the tubular fluid by what process?

A

Osmosis

182
Q

The ascending limb of the loop of Henle actively transports:

A

All needed ions

183
Q

The hormone erythropoietin and the enzyme renin are secreted in response to:

A

Hypotension

184
Q

Which is a metabolic waste product of the breakdown of amino acids?

A

Urea

185
Q

Which hormone, when at lower levels, decreases water permeability in the distal convoluted tubule and the collecting duct?

A

ADH

186
Q

The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism is the body’s main mechanism for which of the following?

A

Increasing blood pressure

187
Q

Which of the following is a major hormone involved in regulating kidney function?

A

Aldosterone, Angiotensin II, ADH

188
Q

Atrial natriuretic peptide is released by _________ when blood volume and blood pressure are too high and opposes the actions of the renin-angiotensin system.

A

Atrial cardiac muscle cells

189
Q

Kidney stones consisting of ________ are common?

A

Calcium Salts

190
Q

The _________ and kidneys play key roles in maintaining the acid-base balance of body fluids.

A

Lungs

191
Q

If extracellular fluids (ECF) become hypertonic, when compared to the intracellular fluid (ICF), water will move in which direction?

A

From the cells into the ECF

192
Q

In response to circulating aldosterone, the kidneys ________ sodium ions.

A

Reabsorb

193
Q

Severe acidosis can cause what effect on the body?

A

CNS deterioration, Peripheral vasodilation, Weak cardiac contractions

194
Q

_______ occurs when alveolar ventilation is increased, resulting in excess elimination of CO2.

A

Respiratory Alkalosis

195
Q

The _______ buffer system depends on the ability of amino acids to respond to changes in pH by accepting or releasing hydrogen ions.

A

Protein

196
Q

Cells break down organic molecules to obtain energy usually in the form of:

A

ATP

197
Q

The synthesis of new organic molecules that involves the formation of new chemical bonds is called ___________.

A

Anabolism

198
Q

The liver stores ________ in case of depleted nutrients in the blood stream.

A

Triglycerides and Glycogen

199
Q

After the catabolism of glucose, a typical cell has gained ______ molecules.

A

36 ATP

200
Q

In glycolysis, glucose is broken down into what acid?

A

Pyruvic

201
Q

What is a lack of oxygen that inhibits or stops the TCA cycle called?

A

Hypoxia

202
Q

_________ is the synthesis of glucose from protein or lipid precursor molecules/non-carbohydrate molecules.

A

Gluconeogenesis

203
Q

Glucose enters the cells via facilitated diffusion, which is largely enhanced by which of the following?

A

Insulin

204
Q

This is a result of metabolism of certain organic bases in nucleic acids?

A

Uric Acid

205
Q

Which type of diabetic patient requires insulin?

A

Type I

206
Q

__________ is the result of conductive heat loss to the air that overlies the surface of an object.

A

Convection

207
Q

Where are the heat-loss and heat-gain centers are located (the thermostat of the brain)?

A

Hypothalamus

208
Q

Which of the following occurs during glycolysis?

A

One molecule of glucose is converted into two molecules of pyruvic acid

209
Q

The carbon dioxide of respiration is formed during:

A

The TCA Cycle

210
Q

Parasympathetic innervation of the penile arteries that release ________ at their synaptic knobs causes the smooth muscle in the arterial walls to relax, resulting in erection.

A

Nitric Oxide

211
Q

Sickle cell disease, spinal anesthesia, and drugs can cause a prolonged, usually painful, penile erection

A

Priapism

212
Q

During fertilization, the embryo implants into which layer of the uterus?

A

Endometrium

213
Q

After which day of development is the fetus considered “full term”?

A

266

214
Q

The __________ is marked by the detachment of the functional layer of the endometrium.

A

Menstrual Phase

215
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of bleeding during the third trimester of pregnancy?

A

Placenta Previa

216
Q

A zygote contains_____ chromosomes.

A

46

217
Q

In an ectopic pregnancy the fertilized egg is implanted where?

A

Ovary, Abdomen, Fallopian Tube

218
Q

Which of the following is a chemical that causes malformation of a fetus?

A

Teratogen

219
Q

Rising oxytocin levels stimulate what?

A

Force and frequency of uterine contractions

220
Q

The _______ stage of labor begins with the onset of labor, as the cervix dilates and the fetus begins to slide down the cervical canal

A

Dilation

221
Q

By which week of pregnancy may the external reproductive organs be distinguished as either male or female?

A

12th

222
Q

Fetuses born before _______ weeks have a poor chance of survival.

A

27

223
Q

At which of the following of stages of labor is the “afterbirth” expelled?

A

Placental

224
Q

The mammary gland cells produce _______, which is ingested by the breastfed newborn during the first two to three days of life.

A

Colostrum

225
Q

Which of the following is not a risk factor for preeclampsia?

A

Hypercalcemia