Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

HLTH 230 > EXAM > Flashcards

EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

What is nutrition

A

Study of nutrients and other biologically active components in food and the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why is nutrition important

A

Leading cause to death: cancer, heart disease and strokes often from diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What affects do diet choices have

A

Short term and long term effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Diseases influenced by diet and genetics

A

cardiovascular, obesity, osteoporosis, diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Nutrigenomics

A

Science of how nutrients affect the activities of genes and how genes affect activities of nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why does the body need nutrients

A

For energy, to move and function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are essential nutrients

A

Those that the body cannot make sufficient quantities of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the energy yielding nutrients

A

Protein, Carbohydrates, Fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Macronutrients

A

Protein, carb, fat. Needed in large amounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Micronutrients

A

Minerals, Vitamins. Needed in small amounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are functional foods

A

Posses nutrients or non-nutrients that might protect against disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are Phytochemicals

A

Non nutrient compounds in plant-derived foods that have biological activity in body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the characteristics of a nutritious diet?

A

-Adequacy
-Balance
-Calorie Control
-Moderation
-Variety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is adequacy

A

Getting all essential nutrients, fibre, energy in amounts to maintain health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is balance

A

Providing many foods in proportion to each other
*Foods rich in some nutrients don’t replace foods rich in other nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is calorie control

A

Control of energy intakes (counting cals)
*Part of a diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is moderation

A

Providing constituents within set limits, not excess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is variety

A

Wide selection of foods from different food groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What impacts foods we choose to eat

A

-TV
-Social Media
-Social pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Estimated Energy Requirement (EER)

A

Average energy intake to maintain body weight and health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Acceptable macronutrient density ranges (ADMR)

A

% in diet that should come from each energy yielding nutrient to reduce risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Daily values (DV)

A

Aim to stay below but some foods need to meet the DV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Nutrition fact tables

A

-serving size
-Calories
-13 core nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

13 core nutrients

A

fat, saturated fat, trans fat, protein, cholesterol, carb, sugar, fibre, sodium, vitamin A, vitamin C, iron, calcium, Potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Types of health claims

A

-Disease risk reduction claims
-Functional claims

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Functional Claims

A

roles of a food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Nutrition functional claims

A

the well-established roles of energy or nutrients that are essential for the maintenance of good health or for normal development and growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Malnutrition

A

deficiencies, imbalances, and excesses of nutrients, any of which take a toll on health over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Why is diet choice important

A

Long term health prospects (smoking and excessive drinking are more influential than diet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Nutritional genomics

A

: how nutrients affect the activities of genes and how genes affect the activities of nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Other lifestyles choices that affect health

A

-PA
-Sleep
-Stress levels
-Working conditions
-Air quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How does body use/store Energy yielding nutrients

A

body can use the energy stored in the carbon-carbon bonds they contain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Function of vitamins and minerals

A

They provide no energy to the body they act as regulators therefore they assist in all body processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What if you don’t get enough essential nutrients

A

Develop deficiencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Importance of digestive organs

A

release hormones in response to food, and send messages to the brain that bring the eater a feeling of satisfaction “full or hungry”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What influences diet people choose

A

Culture, ethnicity, diet restrictions, convenience, social considerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Factors of diet

A

-Physical
-Psychological
-Social
-Cultural
-Philosophical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Nutritional assessment of individuals

A

Essential component of nutritional care (health and diet history, anthropometric measurements, lab test data)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Why are guidelines important

A

Limit potential harmful dietary constituents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Most effective goals

A

Set for specific behaviours not overall outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Nutrient density importance

A

help identify foods that provide bulk without a lot of cals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Who is most reliable for nutritional advice

A

Diet technician, registered (DTR), Nutrition coach (30 hours of nutrition training, Registered dietitian nutritionist (RDN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is absorption

A

Cellular uptake of products of digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Why are digestion and absorption important

A

To get nutrients we need from food to give us energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What would happen without nutrients

A

Become very sick, and ultimately die

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What happens to nutrients from food in our body

A

nutrients in food be transported to the body cells in order for us to survive and thrive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What major hormone makes sure we eat
(Triggers hunger)

A

Gherlin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Fasting state

A

state ghrelin levels rise to promote food intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Digestive tract

A

Muscular tube from mouth to anus (8m)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Enzymes of saliva

A

Lysozymes, Amylase and Lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is lysozyme

A

enzyme that helps destroy bacteria in the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is amylase

A

initiates carbohydrate digestion, breaking down polysaccharides into smaller chains of glucose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is lingual lipase

A

only a small contribution to fat digestion in adults, but it is more significant in infants who receive a large proportion of fat (lipid) from breast milk/formula ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

where do Most significant enzymatic digestive process take place

A

Takes place in the mouth for carbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

4 basic tastes

A

-Sweet
-Sour
-Salty
-Bitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Epiglottis

A

“Trap door”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Function of epiglottis

A

strip of cartilage guards the entrance to the trachea and prevents fluids and foods from entering the trachea, therefore helping to prevent choking. 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is dysphagia

A

difficulty swallowing seen with aging (Parkinson’s, ALS and Alzheimer’s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Role of sphincters

A

contract or relax, allowing entry of food into defined compartments in the body - prevent food moving in the wrong direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Upper esophageal sphincter (UES)

A

top of the esophagus and helps prevent acidic stomach secretions from going up and into the trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Lower esophageal sphincter (LES)

A

prevents the acidic contents of the stomach from “refluxing” back up into the esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Pyloric sphincter

A

allows the chyme from the stomach to enter the intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Interior anal sphincter & External anal sphincter

A

control the release of stool from the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Stomach

A

Holding tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Why is the stomach a strong organ

A

3 layers of wall muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is chyme

A

Partially digested food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What does the stomach release

A

gastric juice which contains enzymes and a very strong acid, hydrochloric acid (HCl). The HCl decreases the pH of the chyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Acidic environment

A

Causes protein denaturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What’s found in the small intestine

A

the ducts from the gallbladder and pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Segments of small intestine

A

duodenum, jejunum, and ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is peristalsis

A

wavelike muscular squeezing, moves the chyme through the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What digestion occurs in the small intestine

A

Enzymatic digestion of carbohydrates, fats and proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Why is the small intestine important

A

major site for nutrient absorption in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Gallbladder function

A

storage site for bile which is made by the liver & empties bile into the small intestine via the bile duct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Why is bile necessary

A

so that fats will make contact with enzymes for their digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Pancreas function

A

secretes pancreatic juice (sodium & bicarbonate) into the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Large intestine function

A

responsible for the reabsorption of water and minerals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What forms feces

A

fibres and undigested materials that remain in the large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Where is feces stored before its released

A

Rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Where does waste products exit the body

A

Anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Where does digestion of starch occur

A

Mouth and stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What happens in the lower stomach

A

hydrochloric acid denatures salivary amylase thereby halting enzymatic digestion of starch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What produces starch-digesting enzyme (pancreatic amylase)

A

Pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What happens to undigested carbs

A

Reach the colon and may be broken down by intestinal bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Fibre breakdown

A

Mouth: crushes it
Stomach: no action
SI, Pancreas, liver & gallbladder: fibre binds cholesterol and come minerals
LI: : Most fibre is excreted with the feces; some fibre is digested by bacteria in the colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Fat breakdown

A

Mouth: lingual lipase fat breakdown
Stomach: some digested by gastric lipase
Liver: secretes bile
Gallbladder: stores & release bile
Pancreas: produces fat-digesting enzymes (pancreatic lipase) and releases them into the small intestine to split fats into their component parts (primarily fatty acids and monoglycerides), which are then absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is last to leave the stomach

A

Fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Protein breakdown

A

Mouth: soften and mix with saliva
Stomach: uncoil protein & activate protein digesting enzymes
SI: Split into smaller fragments into amino acids
LI: Colon reabsorbs some water and minerals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

GI microbes

A

approx 100 trillion in intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Prebiotics

A

substance that mat not be digestible by the host, such as fibre, but serves as food for probiotic bacteria and thus promotes their growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Probiotics

A

Consumable products containing live microorganisms found in sufficient numbers to alter the bacteria colonies of the body In ways believed to benefit health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Digestive problem conditions

A

Hiccups, heartburn, ulcers, choking, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), constipation and diarrhea and IBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are food borne illnesses

A

Food poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What causes food borne illnesses

A

Microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Foodborne infection

A

Caused by eating foods contaminated with infectious microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Foodborne intoxications

A

Caused by eating foods containing natural toxins, or microbes that produce toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Botulism

A

Toxin produced by bacteria. Common in foods with low acidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Foods common cause of botulism

A

corn, peppers, green beans, meat, fish, chicken or garlic, honey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Clostridosis

A

include improperly cooked, or cooled stews, meat and cooked beans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Clostridiosis symptoms

A

abdominal bloating, pain, cramp, watery diarrhea and muscle aches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

E.Coli

A

undercooked ground beef, unpasteurized milk, unpasteurized juice, raw produce like sprouts or romaine lettuce, person to person contact from unwashed hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

E.Coli symptoms

A

include severe bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, vomiting, acute kidney failure; death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Hep A

A

undercooked or raw shellfish; raw or lightly cooked produce, contaminated water, baked goods or other ready-to-eat foods contaminated by infected food handler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Listeriosis

A

raw meat and seafood, luncheon meats, hot dogs, unpasteurized milk, and soft cheeses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Salmonellosis

A

raw or undercooked eggs, meats, poultry, unpasteurized milk products and juices, shrimp, pasta and raw produce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Staphylococcal food poisoning

A

toxin produce by bacteria in meat, poultry, egg products, tuna salad, macaroni salad, potato salad and cream filled pastry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

How can food borne illnesses occur

A

indirectly from other foods, from cross contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

4 main principles to prevent food borne illnesses

A

-Clean
-Separate
-Chill
-Cook

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Danger zone

A

4-60 degrees because bacteria multiplies easily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Fridge temps

A

0-4 degrees celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Risky foods

A

-Raw foods
-Raw produce
-Homemade oils
-Seafood
-Sushi
-Honey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

what are the two groups carbohydrates can be broken down into

A

-Complex carbohydrate
-Simple carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Complex carbohydrates

A

Glycogen, starch, fibre (soluble, insoluble)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Simple carbohydrates

A

Disaccharides and monosaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Carbohydrates

A

Provides the most kcal in diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Roles of carbohydrates

A

Provide energy, feed the brain and Nervous system, allow digestive system to function properly & keep body lean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What are the sugar molecules

A

Monosaccharides & Disaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Monosaccharides

A

Glucose
Fructose
Galactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Disaccharides

A

Maltose
Sucrose
Lactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

How are simple sugars absorbed

A

absorbed directly into the bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

How are disaccharides absorbed

A

Split into 2 monosaccharides by enzymes to be absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

When can absorption not occur

A

When there isn’t enough enzymes present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Starch

A

complex carbohydrate stores carbs in plants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

types of starch

A

Amylose (unbranched), amylopectin (branched)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Why is glycogen important

A

it represents a source of glucose for our body in a time of need

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Where is glycogen found

A

1/3 Liver, 2/3 Muscle tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Examples of fibres

A

Cellulose, hemicellulose, pectin, gums, ligin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Insoluble fibre

A

doesn’t dissolve in water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

soluble fibre

A

dissolves in water, form get, digested in colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Role of soluble fibres

A

-delays glucose absorption into the blood preventing large changes in blood glucose levels
-can lower blood cholesterol levels by binding to bile, causing the bile to be excreted with feces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Insoluble fibres

A

Cellulose, ligin, resistant starch, hemicelluloses, insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Role of insoluble fibres

A

Accelerates GI transit, delays glucose absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Daily fibre intake

A

21-38g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

4 benefits of fibre

A

-Promotion of normal blood cholesterol concentration
-Blunting blood glucose fluctuations and reduced risk of diabetes
-Maintenance of healthy bowel function/healthy digestive tract
-Promotion of a healthy body weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Total sugars

A

all sugars present in foods and beverages regardless of the source. Free and naturally occurring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Added sugars (free sugars)

A

are all sugars added to foods and beverages during processing or preparation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Carb digestion in mouth

A

Amylase starts a small amount of digestion, breaking down polysaccharides into smaller polysaccharides and disaccharides.
Chewing occurs to break it down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Carb digestion in the stomach

A

enzymatic digestion of starch stops as salivary amylase is denatured, and products of starch digestion and fibre are mixed with stomach acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Carb digestion in the small intestine

A

Where majority takes place. - Pancreatic amylase enters the small intestine and breaks polysaccharides into shorter glucose chains and disaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Maltase

A

Cleaves maltose into two molecules of glucose, which are then absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Sucrase

A

cleaves sucrose into glucose and fructose, which are then absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Lactase

A

cleaves lactose into glucose and galactose, which are then absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Resistant starches

A

may resist digestion and undergo some fermentation in the large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Lactose intolerance

A

Inability to develop the enzyme lactase which is responsible for breaking lactose into glucose and galactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Undigested lactose

A

attracts water into the intestine and is a source of food for bacteria - leads to bloating, gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Celiac disease

A

medical condition where the body has an autoimmune response caused by ingestion of a protein called gluten

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is carbohydrates primarily digested into

A

Glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What happens when the body has enough glucose already

A

stored as glycogen in the liver and muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What happens when the body has enough glycogen

A

Stored as fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Gluconeogenesis

A

When the body doesn’t have enough glucose and it breaks down glycogen, or when needed it can make glucose from protein and glycerol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Ketone bodies

A

breakdown product of fat which can be used for energy in the absence of glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Important peptide hormones involved in blood glucose regulation

A

Insulin
Glucagon
-Both secreted from pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What happens when blood glucose levels fall from not eating enough

A

pancreas secretes glucagon it stimulates glycogen breakdown, and fat breakdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Hypoglycemia

A

When blood glucose falls below normal range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Type I diabetes

A

insulin-dependent form, where that person’s pancreas is unable to produce sufficient amounts of insulin to allow for adequate cellular glucose uptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Type II diabetes

A

Not insulin dependent. Developed from obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Is type I or type II more common

A

Type II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Glycemic response

A

extent to which blood glucose concentration is raised by a food, and the extent to which it elicits an insulin response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Glycemic index

A

a ranking of foods according to their potential for raising blood glucose relative to a standard such as glucose or white bread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Refined sugars

A

Not nutrient-dense, “empty cals”, lack of vitamins and minerals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Alternative sweeteners

A

Low calories, Provide 2000 times the sweetness of sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

How much sweeter is aspartame than sucrose

A

200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Sugar has been accused of 5 nutrients problems

A

1.promoting and maintaining obesity
2.causing and aggravating diabetes,
3.increasing the risk of heart disease,
4.disrupting behaviour in children and adults, and
5.causing dental decay and gum disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

DRI for carbs

A

45-65% of daily cals from carbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Benefits of diets rich in carbs

A

May protect against heart disease and strokes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Benefits of diets rich in fibre

A

Help with digestion, they absorb water give the full feeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Role of glucose

A

Fuels work of most body cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What happens when body doesn’t have enough glucose

A

it makes protein make it but then protein cant do its functions (Protein-sparing action)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

How to maintain glucose levels

A

Balanced meals, eaten on a regular schedule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Diabetes

A

person’s own immune system attacks the cells of the pancreas that synthesize the hormone insulin, then pancreas can’t produce insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Pre diabetes

A

impaired fasting glucose (IFG), impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) … each of which places individuals at high risk of developing diabetes and its complications”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Sugar affects on the body

A

might influence behaviour in many ways: by altering the levels of chemicals in the brain that affect mood, by inducing nutrient deficiencies, by stimulating the release of the series of hormones the body secretes after consuming sugar, or by providing pure energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What is the most energy dense nutrient

A

Lipids; provide 9kcals/g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Why are fatty foods good

A

Have high energy density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Role of adipose cells

A

Expand and store fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Importance of fat

A

We use fat for energy when food isn’t available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Energy from fat fuels what

A

muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Role of fat aside from providing energy

A

-serves as a shock absorber for vital organs
-insulates, helping protect the body from outside extreme temperatures
-make up parts of the cell membrane
-dietary fats contain essential fatty acids that are required by the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Cals in fat

A

Twice as many cals in fat than other macronutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Triglycerides

A

Make up almost all of the lipids in foods and lipids in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Triglyceride classification

A

saturated, monosaturated and polysaturated fats depending on the majority of fatty acids that make it up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Triglyceride composition

A

Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Role of phospholipids

A

Maintain cell membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Sterols function

A

Involved in cell membrane structures as well as the synthesis of hormones and vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Polyunsaturated fats

A

usually liquid at room temp (sunflower oils)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Phospholipids

A

soluble in both fat and water which makes them important in cell membranes and food industry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Lecithin

A

Phospholipid in egg yolks, soy, liver, peanuts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Role of phospholipids

A

part of cell membranes to assist with fat loving and water loving particles to move across the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

How are fats effectively digested

A

the body must keep fats mixed in the watery fluids of the gastrointestinal tract to allow enzymes to dismantle triglycerides into smaller molecules the body can use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Lingual lipase

A

present in the saliva, accounts for the small amount of enzymatic digestion. Significant in infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Lipase enzymes function

A

from both the pancreas and the small intestine (pancreatic lipase, intestinal lipase) fully digest the fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Lipoproteins

A

Cluster of lipids associated with protein that serve as transport vehicles for lipids in the lymph and blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

4 lipoproteins

A

Chylomicrons
LDL: Low-density lipoproteins
HDL: High density lipoproteins
VLDL:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Risk of diets high in fats

A

Risk of cardiovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Intake of saturated fats

A

10% of cals from fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Essential fatty acids

A

Linoleic acid and linolenic acid, are 18-carbon, polyunsaturated fatty acids, which must be supplied by the diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Linolenic acid

A

primary member of omega-3-family found in oils (soybean)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Fatty acid deficiency symptoms

A

growth delays/stunting, reproductive failure, skin abnormalities, kidney and liver disorders as well as neurological and vision problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Fat storage

A

Protection mechanism against starvation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

What happens when fat is stored

A

, lipoprotein lipase hydrolyzes triglycerides and fatty acids which are absorbed into the adipose cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

What happens when fat is needed

A

Hormone-sensitive lipase hydrolyzes stored triglycerides and releases fatty acids and glycerol into the blood.

202
Q

Order of fat storage and use

A

-Lipoprotein lipase hydrolyzes triglycerides
-Fatty acids are absorbed into the adipose cell
-Hormones then resemble them back into triglycerides
-Hormone-sensitive lipase hydrolyzes stored triglycerides
-Fatty acids and glycerol are released into the blood

203
Q

Fat replacers

A

Ingredients in a food or artificial fats that mimic some or all of the functions of fat

204
Q

Do fat replacers provide energy

A

Only some do

205
Q

What are fats useful for

A

nutrients, energy, transport, raw materials, sensory appeal, appetite, satiety, and texture

206
Q

Fat characteristics

A

They’re emulsifiers: they have both water loving and fat liking characteristics

207
Q

Omega-3

A

Can improve heart health, could suppress immune function in large amounts

208
Q

Hydrogenation

A

process of adding hydrogen to unsaturated fatty acids to make fat more solid and resistant to the chemical change of oxidation and secretes trans fatty acids

209
Q

What foods have alot of fat

A

meat (lean, medium, extra lean, regular)

210
Q

Fat % in daily cals

A

33%

211
Q

Why are proteins more diverse than carbs and fat

A

They’re made of a combination of 20 amino acids

212
Q

What happens when the body doesn’t have adequate fuel from glucose, protein

A

body can breakdown body proteins to supply energy and amino acids

213
Q

How does the body protect itself

A

breaking down the least essential proteins of the blood and muscles while preserving the heart and other organs

214
Q

How many common nutrition-related amino acids

A

20

215
Q

What does shape of protein depend on

A

Chains of amino acids can then be twisted and folded into a variety of complex shapes, all depending on the amino acid sequence

216
Q

Side groups of the various amino acid chains

A

they attract or repel each other contributing to shape (hydrophobic & hydrophilic)

217
Q

What do some proteins require to activate them

A

minerals

218
Q

Do proteins function together

A

yes in a complex (hemoglobin known as quaternary structure)

219
Q

Does enzymatic digestion of protein occur in the mouth?

A

No

220
Q

What happens to protein in the stomach

A

mixed with hydrochloric acid (HCl) and denaturation occurs

221
Q

What is denaturation

A

irreversible change in a proteins shape and consequent loss of its function brought about by heat, acids, bases, alcohol, salts of heavy metals, or other agents

222
Q

Benefits of denaturation

A

allows enzymes better access to the peptide bonds, so without the effects of acid on protein, maximum digestion of protein could not occur

223
Q

Result of denaturation

A

change in shape, and therefore the loss of function, of that protein

224
Q

digestion of proteins in the small intestine

A

intestinal enzymes and pancreatic enzymes facilitate further digestion of polypeptides into tripeptides, dipeptides, and amino acids

225
Q

enzymes that work in the small intestine to digest protein

A

trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastase, collagenase, and carboxypeptidases

226
Q

what happens on the surface of the small intestine cells

A

tripeptidases and dipeptidases digest these small peptides to amino acids, and the cells absorb them

227
Q

Role of protein

A

involved in growth and maintenance of tissues, such as hair, skin, organ tissues, tissue repair, such as muscle growth or wound healing.

228
Q

Function of proteins

A

act as enzymes, facilitating chemical reactions in the body

229
Q

Protein role in fluid balance

A

Presence of plasma proteins in the blood help prevent leaking of fluids into the interstitial space, thereby preventing edema

230
Q

How are proteins buffers

A

maintain constant pH in body compartments, by ‘soaking up’ excess hydrogen ions in the presence of a pH derangement.

231
Q

Major role of proteins

A

transport of nutrients, hormones, chemicals, waste products and oxygen in the body.

232
Q

What do proteins help prevent

A

Weak immune system, blood clotting

233
Q

What happens to amino acids once a protein is digested

A

Dietary protein is degraded, and the amino acids eventually end up in various cells

234
Q

what are the amino acids used for after protein digestion

A

-To synthesize new body proteins
-To make other needed compounds such as the vitamin niacin
-To make another amino acid by dismantling this amino acid and using the amino group to make another amino acid.
-To provide energy from what remains once the amino group is stripped away.

235
Q

When are amino acids wasted

A

-There is a lack of energy from carbs and fat
-Excess protein is provided by the diet
-Certain single amino acids are overly plentiful (ex. amino acid supplements)
-The essential amino acids are not plentiful enough in the diet

236
Q

High quality proteins

A

proteins derived from animals such as fish, wild game, beef, poultry, eggs, and milk.

237
Q

Most digestible proteins

A

Animal proteins like that in meat or an egg

238
Q

Lower quality proteins

A

plant proteins because of their lower digestibility & they lack some of the essential amino acid

239
Q

Limiting amino acids

A

An essential amino acid present In dietary protein in insufficient amount, thereby limiting the body’s ability to build protein

240
Q

Nitrogen balance

A

amount of protein eaten (nitrogen consumption), compared to the amount of protein catabolism (nitrogen excretion), in a given period of time

241
Q

Nitrogen containing energy-yielding nutrient

A

Protein: can measure intake and catabolism

242
Q

Nitrogen equilibrium

A

If nitrogen intake is equal to nitrogen excretion, person only using what they consume

243
Q

Positive nitrogen imbalance

A

Building more proteins than they are degrading

244
Q

Who is positive nitrogen imbalance common in

A

a growing child, a pregnant woman, a weightlifting athlete in training, or a person recovering from a serious illness

245
Q

Negative nitrogen intake

A

nitrogen intake is less than nitrogen excretion - indicating that the body is degrading more than it is synthesizing.

246
Q

Who is negative nitrogen intake common in

A

people who are starving, have severe burns, illnesses, infections, or a fever

247
Q

Risks from too much protein

A

developing heart disease, cancer and obesity

248
Q

World’s most widespread malnutrition problem

A

deficiency in protein

249
Q

Kwashiorkor

A

: sudden (or acute) protein deficiency or a rapid deprivation of food. 1-3 year olds affected

250
Q

When is kwashiorkor usually developed

A

when a child is weaned off breastfeeding because a second child is born

251
Q

Edema

A

result of albumin and plasma protein loss, thereby contributing to leaking of fluid into the interstitial spaces causes swollen belly

252
Q

Marasmus

A

severe and chronic deprivation of protein and energy, along with vitamins and minerals

253
Q

Who is affected by marasmus

A

children less than 2 years old and results in severe weight loss, muscle wasting, and changes to the skin and hair

254
Q

Recommended protein intake according to AMDRs

A

10-35% of total energy intake be derived from protein

255
Q

Are protein supplements beneficial

A

No

256
Q

Why are Protein supplements harmful

A

made up of a single amino acid may overload the transport protein and, therefore, result in the deficiency of another amino acid.

257
Q

Lacto-vegetarian

A

includes dairy products, vegetables, grains, legumes, fruits, and nuts, excludes flesh, seafood, and eggs

258
Q

Ovo-vegetarian

A

includes eggs, vegetables, grains, legumes, fruits, and nuts
excludes flesh, seafood, and dairy products

259
Q

Lacto-ovo-vegetarian

A

includes dairy products, eggs, vegetables, grains, legumes, fruits, and nuts, excludes flesh, seafood

260
Q

Pesco-vegetarian (pescatarian)

A

includes seafood, dairy products, eggs, vegetables, grains, legumes, fruits, and nuts, excludes meat and poultry

261
Q

Vegan

A

only food from plant sources: vegetables, grains, legumes, fruits, seeds, and nuts

262
Q

Fruitarian

A

includes only raw or dried fruits, seeds, and nuts in the diet

263
Q

Benefits of being vegetarian

A

generally maintain lower and healthier body weights, lower risk of type ii diabetes, lower rates of hypertension and lower blood cholesterol, lower rate of death from heart disease and lower rates of some cancers.

264
Q

Rare-amino acids

A

seleno-cysteine

265
Q

Why are amino acids needed

A

Without them the body cant make proteins it needs to grow and do its work

266
Q

What do proteins need to properly function

A

must be accompanied by array of vitamins and minerals

267
Q

How is quality of protein measured

A

by its amino acids, by its digestibility, and by how well it meets human needs

268
Q

Minimum protein intake

A

10%

269
Q

Protein intake for children and infants

A

35%

270
Q

What are vitamins

A

Organic, essential micronut

271
Q

Role of vitamins

A

Energy metabolism, physiological functioning and deficiency and disease prevention

272
Q

Do vitamins yield energy

A

No

273
Q

Water soluble vitamins

A

Vitamin B, Vitamin C

274
Q

Fat soluble vitamins

A

Vitamin A, D, E and k

275
Q

When are water soluble vitamins required

A

frequently, due to our inability to store them

276
Q

What happens to water soluble vitamins in the body

A

absorbed into the blood, and they circulate freely in water-filled parts of the body until the kidneys filter them during urine production

277
Q

What happens to fat soluble vitamins in the body

A

absorbed into the lymph, travel through the blood via protein carriers and they are stored in fat deposits and in the liver

278
Q

When are fat soluble vitamins needed

A

in periodic doses (weeks to months)

279
Q

Role of vitamin A

A

Involved in vision and maintaining mucus membranes, skin, bone and tooth development and growth, reproduction, gene regulation, and immune function

280
Q

Lack of vitamin A

A

Night blindness - affecting the retina can lead to full blindness with damage to the cornea

281
Q

Xerophthalmia

A

Blindness from Vitamin A deficiency

282
Q

What happens to the eye during Xerophthalmia

A

-cornea becomes dry and hard which is known as xerosis
-softening of the cornea called keratomalacia which then leads to total blindness. 

283
Q

Keratinizatio

A

caused by deficiency in vitamin A which causes rough skin, dry and lumpy

284
Q

How do Vitamin A Deficiency affect digestion

A

damages the cells of the intestine decreasing digestion and absorption of nutrients, worsening malnutrition.  Epithelial tissue defenses weaken increasing the likelihood of infections of the gastrointestinal tract, respiratory tract, vagina and inner ear

285
Q

Main food causing toxicity from vitamin A

A

Liver it causes dry/itchy skin loss of menstruation, jaundice, bone weakening, birth defects

286
Q

Vitamin D

A

Found in animal foods, it’s the most likely to have toxic effects in excess amounts

287
Q

Function of vitamin D

A

involved in bone maintenance and growth and raising blood levels of calcium and phosphorus can do it by increasing absorption from the GI tract, kidney and mobilization into the blood

288
Q

Regulation of vitamin D synthesis

A

Ultraviolet light dependent

289
Q

What does vitamin D function as

A

Hormone

290
Q

Role of vitamin D

A

acting on the heart, stomach, pancreas, skin and reproductive organs.

291
Q

What cells do vitamin d help

A

mature cells, including immune cells

292
Q

Vitamin D deficiency in children

A

Rickets: results in inadequate bone mineralization and subsequent bowing of the legs. 

293
Q

Vitamin D deficiency in adults

A

Osteomalacia: results in softening of bone. 

294
Q

Toxicity of vitamin D

A

high blood calcium, and calcification of tissues such as blood vessels, kidneys, heart, lungs and joints

295
Q

Vitamin E

A

Important antioxidant

296
Q

Role of vitamin E

A

protect a variety of tissues and molecules, including polyunsaturated fatty acids (pufa) and low density lipoproteins (LDL).  By protecting LDL cholesterol from oxidation and reducing inflammation, vitamin E may even reduce the risk of heart disease. 

297
Q

What risks do vitamin E reduce

A

Heart disease

298
Q

High doses of vitamin E

A

could impair blood clotting and enhance effects of anti-clotting medications

299
Q

Vitamin K

A

fat soluble vitamin that helps with blood clotting and synthesis of bone proteins

300
Q

Vitamin K deficiency

A

due to inadequate intake, as a result of hindered fat absorption, or as a result of medications that may kill vitamin K-producing bacteria in the gut

301
Q

Vitamin K deficiency symptoms

A

hemorrhaging, which can ultimately result in death

302
Q

Vitamin K toxicity

A

happen with high doses of vitamin K from supplements. It causes the liver to release bilirubin into the blood, leading to jaundice and potentially brain damage in infants

303
Q

How are vitamins lost while cooking

A

Cooking with boiling water

304
Q

Vitamin C

A

antioxidant main role is in collagen formation and maintenance

305
Q

Who is RDA high in

A

smokers (+35 mg) due to the increased need for the antioxidant effects of vitamin

306
Q

Deficiency of vitamin C symptoms

A

hemorrhages, bleeding gums, joint pain, poor wound healing and frequent infections, can shorten affects of a cold

307
Q

Vitamin B function

A

coenzymes in metabolic processes act to facilitate enzymatic reactions by binding to specific enzymes and forming a recognizable active site for the substrate

308
Q

How toes vitamin B help with reactions

A

produce energy from carbohydrates, fats, and proteins. 

309
Q

Thiamin deficiency

A

rare and limited to those with alcoholism and not access to adequate food can appear as dry or wet beriberi

310
Q

Severe thiamin deficiency & symptoms

A

In Alcoholics - Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.  Symptoms include irritability, disorientation, loss of short-term memory, jerky eye movements and a staggering gait

311
Q

Ricoflavin

A

acts as a coenzyme involved in energy metabolism of all cells (found in milk, eggs, meats)

312
Q

Niacin

A

energy metabolising in every cell (in meat, fish, whole grains)

313
Q

Folate

A

forms part of important coenzymes used in DNA synthesis helps with production of new cells (legumes, bread, cereal, green leafy vegetables)

314
Q

Why do women who want to become pregnant take vitamins

A

to help prevent neural tube defects

315
Q

Vitamin B-12

A

involved in new cell synthesis and maintenance of nerve cells.  It is also involved in the activation of folate.

316
Q

What is B-12 found in

A

Fish, meat, poultry, milk, eggs

317
Q

Deficiency symptoms of B-12

A

Take years for onset but are bad at onset

318
Q

Absorption of B-12

A

depends on the presence of intrinsic factor which is secreted by stomach cells ‘pernicious anemia’

319
Q

Atrophic gastritis

A

condition where the stomach is inflamed and produces less acid and intrinsic factor making vitamin B12 deficiency common in the elderly. 

320
Q

Vitamin B-6

A

synthesis of hemoglobin, roles in immune function and steroid activity, development of brain and NS, Conversion of nonessential amino acids into other nonessential amino acids, Conversion of tryptophan to niacin or neurotransmitters like serotonin (meats, fish, poultry)

321
Q

Biotin

A

Energy metabolism (needed in small amounts)

322
Q

Pantothenic acid

A

energy metabolism, synthesis of fats, neurotransmitters and steroid hormones

323
Q

Pantothenic acid deficiency

A

failure of all body systems because of the vast roles that pantothenic acid has, fatigue and gastrointestinal problems.

324
Q

What found is high in vitamin C and low in D and B 12

A

Oranges

325
Q

What food is high in B12 and vit D

A

Fatty fish

326
Q

Bioavailability of a nutrient

A

how much of the nutrient can be absorbed and used and stored when it is eaten

327
Q

Does exceeding requirements of vitamains through supplements have risk?

A

Yes

328
Q

what is water

A

an essential nutrient and a macronutrient which is needed in a larger amount than any other nutrient

329
Q

is water an energy yielding nutrient?

A

Ni

330
Q

Function of water

A

transporting waste and nutrients, maintain structure of large molecules act as a substrate in chemical reactions, acting as a lubricant and cushion around joints, spinal cord, eyes and organs, regulating body temperature, and maintaining blood volume (blood pressure). 

331
Q

What % body weight is water

A

60%

332
Q

Dehydration

A

Loss of water from the body that is not being replaced

333
Q

Mild dehydration

A

when less than 5% water loss, dehydration starts

334
Q

Severe dehydration

A

when more than 5% body water is lost

335
Q

What part of brain signals thirst

A

hypothalamus

336
Q

How much water do females 19+ need per day

A

2.7L

337
Q

How much water do males 19+ need per day

A

3.7L

338
Q

What gas high water content

A

liquids, vegetables, fruit

339
Q

What has moderate water content

A

meat and poultry

340
Q

What has low water content

A

fats, nuts, cheese, breads, baked goods, grains

341
Q

Overhydration

A

Dangerous dilution of the body’s fluids resulting from excess ingestion of plain water

342
Q

Who often experiences over hydration

A

People with kidney disorders due to lack of urination

343
Q

What can over hydration lead to

A

hyponatremia (a decreased sodium concentration in the blood) which is a dangerous condition often seen in endurance athletes (athletes are also losing sodium in their sweat) and may result in convulsions and death

344
Q

how does water loss occur

A

urination, sweat, loss from respiratory and water present in feces

345
Q

Hard water

A

high in calcium and magnesium

346
Q

Soft water

A

generally sodium

347
Q

How is hard water softened

A

softened with a water softener which removes calcium and magnesium and adds salt

348
Q

Soft water health risks

A

can aggravate hypertension and heart disease

349
Q

how do cells move

A

cells direct the movement of ions/electrolytes and water follows it, movement directed by charge

350
Q

Balance of water

A

inside versus outside of the cell  because  too much water movement into the cell will cause the cell to burst and die

351
Q

How does the body balance fluid imbalances

A

kidneys, brain and GI tract

352
Q

What helps control pH

A

-minerals have an significant role
-The lungs and kidneys also play important roles

353
Q

Where is Calcium found

A

bones and teeth

354
Q

role of calcium

A

-maintaining bone rigidity
-supply for when blood calcium levels are low.

355
Q

How much calcium do adults absorb

A

25%

356
Q

How much calcium do women and children absorb

A

50-60%

357
Q

sources of calcium

A

green leafy vegetables, milk

358
Q

calcium toxicity

A

constipation, increased risk of kidney stones, and decreasing absorption of other minerals like iron and phosphorus.

359
Q

calcium deficiency

A

can result in a loss of bone density, a disease known as osteoporosis, or loss of estrogen production in response to menopause in women

360
Q

risks of Osteoporosis

A

age, low calcium intake, physical inactivity, genetics, lack of vitamin D

361
Q

where is Phosphorus found

A

bone, teeth

362
Q

Most abundant mineral

A

calcium

363
Q

Second most abundant mineral

A

phosphorus

364
Q

What is phosphoric acid and its salts a major part of

A

buffer system in cells

365
Q

Role of phosphorus

A

part of DNA and RNA and is also necessary for the activation of many enzymes and B vitamins, in cell membranes. obtains energy from energy yielding nutrients

366
Q

Phosphorus food sources

A

animal-based foods (meat, milk, eggs, fish)

367
Q

Where is magnesium found

A

in bones other half in soft tissues and muscles, extracellular fluids

368
Q

function of magnesium

A

energy metabolism, muscle contraction, supports normal functioning of the immune system and helps prevent dental caries by holding calcium to the enamel of the teeth.

369
Q

Magnesium toxicity

A

fatal and generally only appears with supplements or salts

370
Q

Magnesium deficiency

A

may occur with alcohol abuse, chronic undernutrition, kidney disease, prolonged vomiting, and diarrhea. tetany, impaired central nervous system activity, and be linked to high blood pressure and heart disease.

371
Q

sodium function

A

maintenance of fluid balance and pH, assists in muscle contraction and neuronal signalling

372
Q

AI for sodium in women & male

A

1500mg never more than 2300mg

373
Q

Risks of increased salt intake

A

hypertension

374
Q

What Is potassium found in & function

A

Found inside cells, helps maintain fluid and electrolyte levels, neuronal signaling and muscle contraction

375
Q

Benefits of diets high in potassium

A

blood pressure-lowering and prevention effect

376
Q

Sources of potassium

A

bananas, oranges, avocados, tomatoes, strawberries, potatoes, and cantaloupe

377
Q

How is potassium lost from the body

A

vomiting, dehydration, diarrhea, use of diuretics, steroids, or laxatives. 

378
Q

Symptoms of potassium deficiency

A

muscle weakness and paralysis.

379
Q

Chloride function

A

maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance; it also forms part of hydrochloric acid in the stomach.  

380
Q

Chloridedeficiency symptoms

A

heavy sweating, vomiting, and diarrhea.  

381
Q

Sulphur role

A

shaping proteins because of sulphur bonds which stabilize the protein’s structure

382
Q

Trace minerals

A

essential nutrients present in smaller amounts in the body than the major mineral.

383
Q

where are trace minerals found

A

as a result of absorption from soil, water, processing and cooking tools

384
Q

iodine function

A

involved in maintaining metabolic rate, temperature regulation, and growth

385
Q

iodine deficiency

A

in enlargement of the thyroid gland (goiter) and decreased synthesis of thyroid hormones, which can affect one’s heart rate, body weight, and energy level. 

386
Q

sources of iodine

A

seafood, milk

387
Q

Iron chief function

A

oxygen delivery as part of the proteins hemoglobin and myoglobin

388
Q

iron deficiency

A

anemia

389
Q

How is iron lost

A

bleeding, sweating, urinating, and sloughing of skin cells. 

390
Q

Heme

A

iron found with hemoglobin in animal sources

391
Q

nonheme

A

found in plant and animal sources and from soil, water sources, and contamination from cooking in iron-based pots and pans

392
Q

sources of iron

A

-Meat, fish, poultry due to improved bioavailability from heme iron
-Legumes and some vegetables can serve as important source of nonheme iron in the absence of meats, fish and poultry

393
Q

Balance of iron

A

regulation of absorption but also regulation of transport, storage, recycling, and losses

394
Q

hormone important for iron balance

A

Hepcidin - produced from liver

395
Q

Who is at high risk of iron deficiency

A

women, pregnant women, infants, children, adolescents

396
Q

most common symptom of iron deficicney

A

anemia - fatigue

397
Q

Stages of iron deficiency

A

Stage 1: iron stores diminish
Stage 2: decrease in transport iron
Stage 3: limited hemoglobin production

398
Q

Zinc function

A

helps a variety of enzymes, growth, energy metabolism, reproduction, transport of vitamin A, taste perception, and wound healing.

399
Q

Foods that contain zinc

A

meats, fish, poultry, milk products, whole grains, and vegetables

400
Q

zinc deficiency symptoms

A

impairs the immune response making infections and GI infections more likely, furthering malnutrition, impaired sperm count, growth delay, altered tase, loss of appetite, poor wound healing

401
Q

Selenium role

A

antioxidant in the body that works with vitamin E to prevent heart disease and cancers

402
Q

Selenium deficiency

A

Keshan disease, changes to the composition and structure of heart tissue.

403
Q

Selenium toxicity

A

Caused by supplements, brittleness and loss of hair and nails, as well as nervous system abnormalities

404
Q

Fluoride role

A

preventing tooth decay

405
Q

Fluoride deficiency

A

result in unhealthy teeth

406
Q

Fluoride toxicity

A

during tooth development associated with a permanent discolouration of teeth, called fluorosis

407
Q

Sources of fluoride

A

tea, seafood

408
Q

Chromium function

A

carbohydrate and lipid metabolism, helping to maintain glucose homeostasis.

409
Q

Chromium deficiency

A

may cause diabetes-like symptoms such as elevated blood glucose or impaired blood glucose tolerance

410
Q

Food sources of chromium

A

unrefined food particularly meat and whole grains.

411
Q

Copper function

A

absorption and use of iron, hemoglobin formation, collagen formation for wound healing

412
Q

Copper deficiency symptoms

A

raises blood cholesterol and damage blood vessels

413
Q

Copper toxicity

A

comes from supplements and may cause liver disease

414
Q

Wilsons disease

A

rare genetic disorder, copper accumulates in the liver and the brain

415
Q

What influences people to drink

A

culture
religious beliefs
friends or family
personal experiences
media/tv

416
Q

what does alcohol contain

A

methanol, ethanol. Hydroxyl group

417
Q

BINGE drinking

A

Consuming 5 drinks or more in a row for a man and 4 drinks in a row for a women

418
Q

% of ethanol in beer

A

4-7%

419
Q

% of ethanol in wine

A

8-12%

420
Q

% of ethanol in spirits

A

40-50%

421
Q

standard drink

A

15mL of pure ethanol

422
Q

When can judgement be impaired with alcohol

A

0.02% blood alcohol concentration

423
Q

When are driving skills impaired

A

.04%

424
Q

When will you become unconscious

A

.30%

425
Q

when is death a potential risk

A

.4-.5%

426
Q

Type of drug is alcohol

A

sedative that sedates some inhibitory nerves as well as excitatory nerves

427
Q

Parts of brain affected with alcohol

A

*Frontal lobe – judgement and reasoning are affected
*Speech and vision centres become sedated
*Large muscle control is affected
*Conscious brain- completely subdued so person passes out
*Deepest brain – respiration and heart rate are affected potentially leading to death

428
Q

Absorption of alcohol

A

some into Stomach and SI, most into blood stream

429
Q

how fast can alcohol reach brain when consumed on empty stomach

A

1 min

430
Q

What breaks down alcohol in stomach

A

an enzyme called alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH)

431
Q

Metabolism of alcohol

A

Once absorbed, blood vessels carry the alcohol throughout the body. 

432
Q

liver role with alcohol

A

elimination of alcohol from the body

433
Q

What happens if liver can’t absorb all the alcohol

A

goes to brain and causes disinhibition (alcohol can act as a “social lubricant”), and problems with speech, coordination, and gait.

434
Q

What metabolizes alcohol in the liver

A

alcohol dehydrogenase and MEOS 1

435
Q

What does alcohol impair production of

A

glucose, and therefore ketosis is favoured since acetyl-CoA is preferentially used to make ketone bodies.

436
Q

What does alcohol increase production of

A

increases the production of lactate, which can lead to lactic acidosis.

437
Q

Effects of alcohol on the brain

A

atrophy (a shrinking of the brain), memory problems, abnormal eye movements, dementia, balance problems, and gait disorders.

438
Q

Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome

A

Develops in chronic users of alcohol and is related to thiamin deficiency. 
-Results in profound memory and coordination problems, and people with this condition often make up very intricate stories as a means to compensate for their problems with short-term memory.

439
Q

Alcohol effects on liver

A

Fibrosis and eventually cirrhosis, where in the normal liver cells become irreversibly damaged and are replaced with scar tissue.

440
Q

Stages of liver deterioration

A
  1. Fatty liver
  2. Fibrosis
  3. Cirrhosis
441
Q

Alcohol Effects on the heart and cardiovascular system:

A

-reduce the risk of heart attacks and strokes when consumed in moderation
-chronic heavy drink can increase risk of high bp, heart attacks and strokes or may contribute to the development of dilated cardiomyopathy (where the heart becomes enlarged and dilated and less efficient at pumping blood).

442
Q

Alcohol Other effects on the body

A

-cancers
-joints affected
-skeletal and heart muscle issues
-osteoporosis
-bone deterioration

443
Q

Recommendations for alcohol

A

reducing alcohol intake to 2 drinks per day or less is recommended to prevent hypertension

444
Q

when do risks develop from alcohol

A

-3-6 drinks/week
-7 drinks/week really increases risk of heart disease or stroke
-2 drinks per occasion
-drinking while pregnant/breastfeeding

445
Q

Reduce long term health risks by drinking no more than

A

-10 drinks a week for women, with no more than 2 drinks a day most days
-15 drinks a week for men, with no more than 3 drinks a day most days

446
Q

Reduce risk of injury from alcohol by consuming how many drinks per occasion

A

-no more than 3 drinks (for women)
-4 drinks (for men)

447
Q

What risks come from obesity

A

hypertension, type ii diabetes, cardiovascular disease, some cancers and respiratory problems

448
Q

Is there increased risk with overweight

A

yes

449
Q

risks with being underweight

A

undernutrition
osteoporosis
infertility
impaired immunocompetence

450
Q

Why do females require higher percentage of fat

A

because of their potential physiological capacity to carry and have children

451
Q

Where is fat necessary for women to act as energy reserves during reproduction

A

hips, thigh, buttocks

452
Q

Location of fat

A

indicator of health status

453
Q

Central obesity

A

more at risk of developing obesity-related diseases, compared to a person with an equal amount of body fat who doesn’t have central obesity

454
Q

visceral fat

A

fat stored within the abdominal cavity in association with the internal abdominal organs” is most dangerous to health

455
Q

waist circumference

A

above 102 cm (40 in.) for men, and 88 cm (35 in.) for women, is associated with an increased risk of developing health problems such as diabetes, heart disease and high blood pressure

456
Q

Edmonton obesity staging system

A

classifies based on presence and severity of risk facts

457
Q

Stage 0 of Edmonton obesity staging system

A

No apparent obesity-related risk factors (e.g., blood pressure, serum lipids, fasting glucose, etc. within normal range), no physical symptoms, no psychopathology, no functional limitations and/or impairment of well being”

458
Q

Stage 1 of Edmonton obesity staging system

A

Presence of obesity-related subclinical risk factors (e.g., borderline hypertension, impaired fasting glucose, elevated liver enzymes, etc.), mild physical symptoms (e.g., dyspnea on moderate exertion, occasional aches and pains, fatigue, etc.), mild psychopathology, mild functional limitations and/or mild impairment of well being”

459
Q

Stage 2 of Edmonton obesity staging system

A

Presence of established obesity-related chronic disease (e.g., hypertension, type 2 diabetes, sleep apnea, osteoarthritis, reflux disease, polycystic ovary syndrome, anxiety disorder, etc.), moderate limitations in activities of daily living and/or well being”

460
Q

Stage 3 of Edmonton obesity staging system

A

Established end-organ damage such as myocardial infarction, heart failure, diabetic complications, incapacitating osteoarthritis, significant psychopathology, significant functional limitations and/or impairment of well being

461
Q

Stage 4 of Edmonton obesity staging system

A

Severe (potentially end-stage) disabilities from obesity-related chronic diseases, severe disabling psychopathology, severe functional limitations and/or severe impairment of well being

462
Q

obesity

A

abnormal or excess body fat that impairs health

463
Q

Can obesity go away

A

a life long disease because our bodies effectively defend our body fat why its called a chronic disease and is often a life long challenge

464
Q

Weight bias

A

negative attitudes and views about obesity and about people with obesity

465
Q

Weight stigma

A

social stereotypes and misconceptions about obesity (Lazy, awkward, sloppy, non-compliant,unitelligent,unsuccessful,lack self discipline and control)

466
Q

Energy equation

A

Changes in energy stores = energy in = energy out

467
Q

What must be considered for weight los

A

energy balacne

468
Q

How to loose stored fat

A

increase kcalorie burning above kcalorie intake, by increasing our activity level or decreasing our energy intake – or both.

469
Q

Principle of weight loss

A

energy output must be greater than energy intake

470
Q

When will weight loss not occur

A

if there is neither a kcaloric restriction, nor an increase in energy expenditure

471
Q

Energy expenditure divided into general components

A

basal metabolism, physical activity, and the thermic effect of food, adaptive thermogenesis

472
Q

What factors are considered when estimating energy requirements

A

sex, age, physical activity, body size

473
Q

Causes of obesity

A

genetics
hormones
environment

474
Q

Genetics and metabolic factors of obesity

A

-Leptin, ghrelin, and uncoupling proteins
-similar weight to parents
-twins likely to be around the same weight
-genetics influence food intake

475
Q

Leptin

A

obesity gene expressed in fat cells and codes for the protein Leptin

476
Q

ghrelin

A

-hormone which is secreted mainly by stomach cells and acts mainly in the hypothalamus
-It increases appetite and decreases energy usage

477
Q

Two types of fat

A

*White fat: stores fat for other cells to use for energy
*Brown fat: releases stored energy as heat

478
Q

what type of disease is obesity

A

heterogeneous disease that can develop via slow and steady weight gain over an extended period or rapid bursts of weight gain.

479
Q

average weight gain in Canada per year

A

0.5kg - 1.0 kg

480
Q

Obesity Management and indigenous peoples

A

Inequities influence food security – access to healthy foods and activities leading to more obesity

481
Q

alcohol effect on body fat

A

slows fat oxidation from the body, therefore leading the body to hold on to its fat stores

482
Q

Fad diet results

A

initial weight loss, followed by regaining that weight and more, upon resuming previous eating patterns. 

483
Q

fad diet

A

based on fasting and starvation, which results in a lowering of the BMR

484
Q

high-protein, low carb diet

A

enough carbohydrates in the diet, the body believes it is starving and resorts to other modes of accessing glucose.

485
Q

what to consider when choosing a diet

A

consider the AMDRs. Does this diet fit within them or have the macronutrients been greatly manipulated

486
Q

Ketogenic diet

A

extremely high fat diet which is exceptionally low in carbohydrate (like that above) and often low in protein.

487
Q

consequences of ephedra/ephedrine

A

cardiac arrest, strokes, seizures, and even death

488
Q

main drugs prescribed for weight loss

A

are Meridia® (sibutramine) and Xenical® (orlistat)

489
Q

Types of weight loss surgery

A

gastric bypass (roux-en-y), gastric banding and the gastric sleeve; reduce the amount you can eat

490
Q

Reasonable first goal for weight loss

A

Weight maintenance

491
Q

What is underweight associated with

A

menstrual irregularities, infertility, and osteoporosis. 

492
Q

Results of inadequate nutrient and energy reserves

A

difficulty fighting a wasting disease or period of illness when energy is not being taken in.

493
Q

Weight gain strategies

A

exercise to build muscle, energy density

494
Q

What is an eating disorder

A

disturbance in eating behaviour that jeopardizes a person’s physical or psychological health

495
Q

3 specific eating disorders

A

anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, and binge eating disorder

496
Q

who is often affected by eating disorders

A

women, athletes, dieting at young age

497
Q

Female athlete triad

A

eating disorder->amenorrhea->osteoporosis

498
Q

who is often affected by anorexia nervosa

A

women; they not only have a distorted body image, but also have pressures and stresses that drive them to starve themselves as a coping mechanism.

499
Q

Bulimia nervosa

A

characterized by repeating episodes of binge eating, purging, and starvation

500
Q

treatment for eating disorders

A

must include attention to changing dietary behavior, changing the perception to image and weight, and changing emotional coping strategies, willingness to get better

501
Q

orthorexia

A

experience emotional satisfaction when they stick to their goals, but intense despair when they fail to do so

HLTH 230 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions