Exam? Flashcards

1
Q

How many fixed oxygen systems are on the A/C

A

2

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2
Q

How many oxygen masks to the Pilots have and how many bottles feed them

A

3 Fixed Oxygen Masks, 1 Bottle

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3
Q

How many fixed oxygen masks do the rear crew have and how many bottles feed them

A

3 Bottles, 20 Fixed oxygen masks

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4
Q

Nominal pressure in the oxygen system

A

1850 psi

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5
Q

How many portable oxygen systems are on the A/C

A

5 portable

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6
Q

Where is there an additional portable oxygen system, how long does it last and what is its limitation

A

In the Toilet, 5 Mins, Can’t use it for fire fighting duties

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7
Q

What are some conditions for the emergency lights in the MEL

A

MEL = Minimum Equipment List
2 Adjacent lights
The most forward or aft
Any lights with red/red arrow

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8
Q

How long do the emergency exit lights last, and how long does it take for them to recharge?

A

10 min endurance

90 min recharge

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9
Q

What does the grey chicklet mean

A

No response

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10
Q

What does the white chicklet mean

A

Parametric/software transition

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11
Q

Where is the pilots oxygen bottle that feeds their oxygen system enclosed?

A

The electrical equipment bay

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12
Q

How many med kits are on the A/C

A

3 (2 daily use, 1 egress)

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13
Q

What colour are the oxygen bottles

A

Green

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14
Q

Where are the oxygen bottles stored for the rear crew oxygen masks

A

The oxygen enclosure (3 bottles)

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15
Q

What is the black folder known as and what do we find inside it

A

F700 -

Acceptable deferred faults

Limitation log

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16
Q

Where do we find the oxygen pressure values

A

F705 - flight service certificate

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17
Q

What is the nominal pressure in the oxygen systems

A

1850 PSI

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18
Q

What indications are given when the oxygen pressure switch is on

A

3 hi/low chimes

Don oxygen light

‘Don oxygen’ x 2 audio (if CSU is on)

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19
Q

How would you describe the oxygen system and what is it’s pressure

A

A ring main system, 100 psi

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20
Q

What are the three options on oxygen masks

A

Normal (air mix)

Emergency (over pressure)

100% oxygen

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21
Q

How many portable oxygen systems are there

A

5

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22
Q

What does operating the cut off switch on a rack do

A

Everything within the rack will change to ‘locked out’ on SPDS

23
Q

What indications do we get when a smoke detection system within a rack detects smoke?

A

Warning horn will sound

Lights corresponding to each rack on E810

Smoke button on rack will flash

24
Q

What pumps cool air around the aircraft and how many system?

A

2 air con systems

25
Q

How is cool air drawn into E860?

A

ECS drawthru causes negative pressure within E860b for cool air to enter via the grill

26
Q

How does the SPS work and how many antennas are there?

A

Time delay beam-forming

4 antenna array (120deg)

27
Q

What does the QEP do, and where is it located

A

Quad external pre-amplification

Conditions and amplifies signal by
36dB +- 2

Behind E840 floor level

28
Q

3 ways to shut off the QEP

A

E840 cut off switch
E860 cut off switch
SPDS

29
Q

What does the receiver do

A
Demodulation 
RFI Mitigation 
Analogue to digital 
ATSG 
Measures RF Scan 
SPS
30
Q

What is the ATSG, where is it sent, what channel and how is it indicated as complete

A

Acoustic test signal generate
Sent to the QEP
Channel 11
Score of 32 with a ‘Pass’

31
Q

What does the processor do

A
Manages system resources 
Manages ADDs
processes acoustic signals 
Manages OMI
Diagnostics 
EADR
32
Q

What does the diagnostics of rapidR mean?

A

PBIT
CBIT
E2E

33
Q

What are the 2 SSDs in the EADR and how much storage is on them

A

1 - acoustics operational flight program 60 min passive recall/all active recall

2-records 64 buoys, raw acoustic data and 2 ICS nets (net 2/3)

512 gb

34
Q

What is the acoustic processors name

A

AN/AQQ-2(V)1

35
Q

Bathy designator

A

AN/SSQ 36B

36
Q

DIFAR designator

A

AN/SSQ 53 G

37
Q

DICASS

A

AN/SSQ 62 F

38
Q

What is the range gate blanking range for CW1.0 and how do you work it out?

A

1667 yards

SOS = distance in 1 sec (half it)

39
Q

What types of ADDs are there?

A

Grams, ALI, BTH

40
Q

What type of integration does MB use and what are its update rates

A

STI - 1.25/2.5

41
Q

What type of integration is appropriate to verniers

A

LSTI - 2.5/5/10

42
Q

What are the update rates for LTI

A

10, 30, 60, 120, 240, 300

43
Q

What integration is appropriate for ALI and BTH displays (and what is the default update rate)

A

LTI (10 secs)

44
Q

3 types of alerts on the system

A

Mission, system, operator

45
Q

How many ambient noise frequencies can you input in the AN table

A

10 (55, 305, 850, 950, 1150)

46
Q

What is the CPA Process?

A

Measure, xfer, report, seed f0, log.

47
Q

How do you work out ODR and what is it used for

A

Time from fade in til F0 = bow
Time from f0 til fade out = stern
Bow+stern / 2 = ODR
X spacing = 1xODR, Y spacing = 2xODR

48
Q

Joystick function of the red button

A

Slews

49
Q

Joystick function of the circular one

A

Slew transducer

50
Q

Joystick function of the HAT switch (+)

A

Zoom = up down

Focus trim = left right

51
Q

Name all the components of the joystick

A

Red button

Trigger

Pinkie switch

HAT Switch

Slew transducer

52
Q

What colour are warnings

A

Red

53
Q

What colour are cautions

A

Yellow

54
Q

What colour are notes

A

White