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Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Fisher-Race terminology for R0?

A

Dce

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2
Q

Which of the following tests can be used to determine the dosage of Rh-immune globulin needed for a postpartum woman to prevent Rh sensitization?

A

Kleihauer-Betke assay

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3
Q

All of the women described below are Rh-negative, weak D-negative, and delivered Rh-positive infants. Identify the woman who wound NOT benefit from the administration of Rh-immune globulin (RhIg)?

A

Group B; positive antibody screen; anti-D indentified; did not receive antepartum RhIg

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4
Q

Which of the following matings has the potential to result in hemolytic diseases of the newborn (HDN) due to antigens in any of the systems identified?

A

Mother’s phenotype: V, dce; Father’s phenotype: O, DCce

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5
Q

What should be done when a woman who is 24 weeks pregnant has a positive antibody screen?

A

Perform an antibody identification panel; titer if necessary

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6
Q

Should an A-negative woman who has just had a miscarriage receive RhIg?

A

Yes, but only if she does not already have anti-D from a previous pregnancy

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7
Q

Which of the following patients would be a candidate for RhIg?

A

O-negative mother; A-positive baby; second pregnancy; no anti-D in mother

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8
Q

All of the following tests are routinely performed on a cord blood sample except:

A

Antibody screen (DAT, Rh typing, and Forward typing ABO are performed)

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9
Q

Blood for intrauterine transfusion should be all of the following except:

A

More than 7 days old (it should be: irradiated, leukoreduced, and screened for CMV)

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10
Q

Kernicterus in newborns is caused by effects of:

A

unconjugated bilirubin

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11
Q

When determining the ABO group, both red blood cell and serum/plasma testing are performed in order to:

A

confirm RBC and serum results

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12
Q

If you detect an ABO discrepancy, what is the first step in its resolution?

A

Perform a clinical check and repeat testing

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13
Q

Mixed field agglutination may be observed in the following situations:

A

Hematopoietic progenitor cell (HPC) transplantation; A3 cells reacting with conventional anti-A; chimerism

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14
Q

Because the antibody screen was positive, a panel was performed. Anti-P1 was identified. The cause of the ABO discrepancy and positive antibody screen are most likely the same

A

TRUE

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15
Q

Of the following, which additional test should be performed to resolve the ABO discrepancy?

A

Repeat reverse grouping with P1 negative units

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16
Q

The injection of antibody into a person to provide temporary immunity is classified as:

A

Artificially acquired passive immunity

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17
Q

Antibodies are also known as:

A

immunoglobulins

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18
Q

Which antibody is able to cross the placenta?

A

IgG

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19
Q

The mating of a rr individual with a R1R2 individual can produce offspring with which of the following phenotypes?

A

D+ C= c+ E+ e+

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20
Q

Le(a-b+) individuals will usually have a naturally-occurring anti-Lea

A

FALSE

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21
Q

Which of the following is the correct conversion of r1 to fisher Race nomenclature?

A

dCe

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22
Q

The K antigen is highly immunogenic

A

TRUE

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23
Q

What is an allele?

A

observable expression

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24
Q

Which antibody class is present as a pentamer?

A

IgM

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25
Q

what is the necessary precursor substance for ABO antigens?

A

H

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26
Q

Which of the following is true for newborns?

A

Tests for antibodies are not reliable until 6 months of age

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27
Q

When testing with antiglobulin reagent, all negative tests

A

must have IgG coated cells added to the test system

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28
Q

At what temperature Celcius do IgM antiboides react best

A

20

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29
Q

Generally, most non-ABO clinically significant antibodies are what class?

A

IgG

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30
Q

Which blood group system is NOT manufactured by the red blood cells?

A

Rh

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31
Q

The K antigen is not well-developed at birth.

A

FALSE

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32
Q

Mixed field reactions could be caused by

A

recent transfusion

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33
Q

The Fy(a-b-) phenotype:

A

is observed in the majority of the African American population

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34
Q

Which of the following have been shown to cause hemolytic transfusion reactions?

A

Anti-Fy(a); Anti-K; Anti-c

35
Q

IgM antibodies can readily agglutinate red blood cells

A

TRUE

36
Q

Poly Anti Human Globulin reagent contains antibodies to

A

IgG, C3d

37
Q

A test used to detect antibody coating in vivo is

A

DAT

38
Q

You are performing an antibody screening test using the tube method. After reading the antiglobulin phase, you add IgG-sensitized cells and get a negative reaction. All of the following are possible explanations EXCEPT:

A

Failure to add potentiator cells

39
Q

Which of the following constitutes and auto control

A

patient’s plasma mixed with patient’s red cells

40
Q

To identify an anti-Fya, testing should be performed at which phase?

A

IAT

41
Q

Dosage refers to an antibody reacting:

A

weaker with a heterozygous cell

42
Q

What does anti-Human Globulin (AHG) reagent do?

A

Cross-links RBCs that have become sensitized with antibody or complement

43
Q

A gene that produces no detectable product is referred to as:

A

An amorph

44
Q

If you are crossmatching for a patient who has an antibody to an antigen present in 50% of the population, how many units do you need to test to find 5 units?

A

10

45
Q

When loci are on different chromosomes they are said to be in:

A

trans position

46
Q

A patient has the phenotype D= C+ c= E= e+. If transfused with blood from many O negative donors, the patient is most likely to develop which antibody?

A

Anti-c

47
Q

Which genotype is heterozygous for E?

A

R2r

48
Q

Anti-k (KEL2) is not a common cause of transfusion reactions because:

A

The corresponding antigen is common

49
Q

What is the function of an elution

A

To remove antibody from the red blood cell surface to identify the antibody specificity

50
Q

A cord blood sample was sent to the blood bank for an ABO type and DAT. Cells were washed 6x with saline before testing. The forward grouping typed as blood group O and there was no agglutination of the baby’s cells with anti-D. The DAT was 3+ with polyspecific AHG. What is the Rh type of the baby?

A

Rh type cannot be determined

51
Q

The term used to describe when a pair of identical alleles are inherited from the parents:

A

homozygous

52
Q

A doctor has ordered four units of red blood cells for a patient with anti-E in his serum. The frequency of the E antigen in the general donor population is 29%. How many units would have to be screened to yield four E-negative units?

A

6

53
Q

A patient has the following genotype: AO, sese, Lele, Hh. Which of the following soluble antigens would be present in the saliva?

A

Lea

54
Q

GVHD is prevented by:

A

irradiating cellular products prior to transfusion

55
Q

Which of the following is NOT a cause of hemolysis after red cell transfusion

A

patient has IgA deficiency

56
Q

Acute hemolytic transfusion reactions are most often caused by:

A

ABO incompatibility

57
Q

Which of the following are symptoms of a hemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

fever, chills, hypotension, chest pain, hemoglobinuria

58
Q

which of the following is NOT characteristic of delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?

A

association with leukopenic patients

59
Q

Which of the following are NOT true concerning nonhemolytic transfusion reactions

A

associated with temperature increase of >1 degree F

60
Q

Febrile reactions may be prevented by:

A

transfusion of leukocyte depleted products

61
Q

Most allergic reactions can be prevented by the use of :

A

antihistamines

62
Q

TRALI may be fatal if caused by:

A

antibodies in donor plasma interact with recipient leukocyte antigens

63
Q

anaphylactic reactions may occur when;

A

An IgA deficient patient has anti-IgA that reacts with transfused plasma

64
Q

What is the 1st action that should take place when a transfusion reaction is suspected

A

stop the transfusion

65
Q

hives and itching are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions

A

allergic

66
Q

which of the following reactions is characterized by chills, fever, hemoglobinuria, back pain, DIC, and renal failure

A

hemolytic

67
Q

In a delayed transfusion reaction, the causative antibody is generally too weak to be detected in routine compatibility testing and antibody screening tests but becomes detectable at what point after transfusion?

A

1-5 days

68
Q

What is the most common cause of hemolytic transfusion reactions (HTR)

A

clerical errors

69
Q

What would be the result of group A blood given to a group O patient

A

immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction

70
Q

what is the terminal sugar of the precursor substance for ABH antigens

A

D-galactose

71
Q

what is the necessary precursor for ABO antigens

A

H substance

72
Q

What is meant by “forward typing”

A

testing donor/patient cells with Anti-A and Anti-B reagent

73
Q

The majority of ABO typings are performed at what temperature

A

20-24 degrees C

74
Q

All persons who are group O make which antibodies

A

Anti-A, Anti-B, and Anti-A,B

75
Q

What do ABH genes code for

A

enzymes

76
Q

ABH antibodies may be difficult to observe in which of the following populations

A

elderly and very young infants

77
Q

A patient’s red cells react with commercial Anti-A and the plasma reacts with commercial group B red cells. What is the patient’s blood type

A

A

78
Q

What color is the anti-B reagent

A

yellow

79
Q

which lectin agglutinates A1 red blood cells

A

Dolichos biflorus

80
Q

A technologist requires 2 more A2 positive cells to finish testing an ABO discrepancy. How many A units would they need to screen to find 2 A2 positive units

A

10

81
Q

Which reaction is typical of the A3 subgroup

A

mixed field agglutination with Anti-A reagent

82
Q

Which of the following donor cells will give the STRONGEST reaction with anti-H

A

A subgroups

83
Q

which of the following would be useful in determining the presence or absence of H antigen on a red blood cell

A

Ulex europaeus

84
Q

All persons with the true Bombay phenotype have antibodies against which antigens?

A

H

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