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PACS > Exam 1 (wks 1-3) > Flashcards

Exam 1 (wks 1-3) Flashcards

1
Q

Defined FLACC as a pain assessment tool

A
  • F: face
  • L: legs
  • A: activity
  • C: cry
  • C: consolability
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2
Q

lbs to kg
kg to lbs

A
  • 1 kg = 2.2 lbs
  • 1 lb = 0.45 kg
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3
Q

in to cm
in to mm

A
  • 1 in = 2.54 cm
  • 1 in = 25 mm
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4
Q

C to F
F to C

A
  • (degC x 9/5) + 32 = degF
  • (degF - 32) x 5/9 = degC
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5
Q

define caloric intake

A

the amount of food consumed each day measured in calories

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6
Q

define BMR

A

the rate at which the body uses energy while at rest to keep vital functions going

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7
Q

define thermogenesis

A

production of heat in an organism and byproduct of metabolism

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8
Q

define acromegaly

A

excessive growth and distorted proportions
usually results from pituitary tumor

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9
Q

what causes Cushing’s Syndrome

which hormone

A

due to prolonged, elevated levels of cortisol (glucocorticoids)

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10
Q

define Turner’s Syndrome

A

caused by partial/complete absence of 2nd X chromosome

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11
Q

define hydrocephalus

A

excess CSF in the brain
usually infectious

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12
Q

define failure to thrive

A

downward crossing over the 2% lines on a growth curve

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13
Q

define Prader-Willi Syndrome

A

initial FTT followed by insatiable hunger

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14
Q

define GH deficiency

A

not having enough growth hormone to support growth

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15
Q

define precocious puberty

A

developing of 2nd sex characteristics before 7 in girls and 9 in boys

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16
Q

define obesity

A

excess proportions of body with a majority of adult obesity resulting from childhood obesity

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17
Q

define anorexia nervosa

A

eating disorder of low body weight and distorted body image

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18
Q

define bullimia nervosa

A

eating disorder characterized by overeating and purging

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19
Q

what are the macro molecules? micro molcecules?

A
  • carbs, proteins, fats
  • vitamins, minerals, electrolytes
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20
Q

define exogenous

A

maladjustment between intake and exercise

over eating

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21
Q

define endogenous

A

lowered metabolism due to disturbances in hypothalmic or endocrine function leading to wt gain

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22
Q

give BMI classifications

4 categories

A
  • underweight: BMI less than 18.5
  • normal: BMI 18.5 to 24.5
  • overweight: BMI 25 to 29.9
  • obese: BMI greater than 30
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23
Q

notes for assessing pain in preg pts

A
  • pain to to physiologic changes
  • BP changes throughout pregnancy
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23
Q

notes for assessing pain in kids

A
  • increased pulse & RR
  • decreased BP
  • behavioral cues, cannot modify pain, easily distracted
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24
Q

notes for assessing pain in older pts

A
  • no diminished perception of pain
  • decreased pain threshold
  • pain from chronic conditions
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25
Q

what do pain impulses from the injury synapse onto?

A

dorsal horn of spinal cord & brain (large myelinated A-delta fibers and small unmyelinated C-polymodal fibers)

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26
Q

when are pain impulses reduced?

A

when non-pain impulses compete to transmit senstation along spinal pathways to brain

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27
Q

signs of pain

10

A
  1. guarding
  2. facial mask of pain
  3. vocalization
  4. body movement
  5. vital sign changes (increased HR, RR, decreased BP)
  6. pallor, diaphoresis
  7. pupil dilation
  8. dry mouth
  9. reduced attention span, confusion
  10. irritability
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28
Q

what are standard precautions?

A
  • hand washing often
  • proper PPE (gloves, gown, mask, eye protection, face shield)
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29
Q

describe rxn to latex in allergic pts. who is at highest risk for latex allergy?

A
  • rash, itching, blistering, asthma, GI sx, lung damage, anaphylaxis
  • healthcare workers and pts with multiple surgeries
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30
Q

what is the scale used for?

A

measuring wt

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31
Q

what is stadiometer used for?

A

measuring ht in kids

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32
Q

what is doppler used for?

A

pick up pulses not heard with a stethoscope

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33
Q

what is a fetoscope and leff scope used for?

A

monitoring fetuses

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34
Q

what is tympanometry used for?

A

to assess the function of the eustachian tube and TM

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35
Q

what is transillumination used for?

A

used to determine whether a cavity contains fluid, air, or tissue

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36
Q

what is a goniometer used for?

A

examines degree of joint flexion and extension

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37
Q

what is wood’s lamp used for?

A

used to determine presence of fungi, bacteria, and pigment changes of lesion or corneal abrasion

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38
Q

what is monofilament used for?

A

test for sensation on body parts like the plantar surface of the foot

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39
Q

what is scoliometer used for?

A

measure the degree of rotation in the spine

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40
Q

how to know if BP cuff is the right size?

A

BP cuff should encircle more than 80% of arm’s circumference. if the cuff is too small, there will be an elevated BP

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41
Q

when is the snellen chart used?

A

far vision
20 ft away

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42
Q

what is the rosenbaum chart used for?

A

near vision
14 in away

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43
Q

which arm will have a higher BP?

A

L arm due to proximity to heart

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44
Q

order of PE components

A
  1. inspect
  2. palpate
  3. percuss
  4. ascultate
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45
Q

normal adult:
* pulse
* BP

A
  • pulse: 60-100 bpm
  • BP: 120/80
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46
Q

IBW for men vs women

A
  • men: 106 lbs + 6 lbs for every inch over 5 ft
  • women: 100 lbs + 5 lbs for every inch over 5 ft
  • subtract 10% for small frame, add 10% for large frame
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47
Q

equation for BMI

A
  • kg / (ht in meters)^2
  • if not converted to kg/meters, then do (lbs/in^2) * 103
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48
Q

describe the triceps skinfold measurement

A
  • measure on arm halfway between elbow and acromial process of scapula
  • males: 12 mm
  • females: 23 mm
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49
Q

describe waist-to-hip circumference ratio

A
  • males: less than 0.9
  • females: less than 0.8
  • apple shaped bodies have bigger waist than hip: at risk of obesity, chronic conditions (DM, HTN, ARF, metabolic syndromes)
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50
Q

describe role of eccrine sweat glands

A
  • found in dermis of skin, essential for thermoregulation by producing sweat and diffusely spread throughout the body
  • begin to function at 1 mo
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51
Q

describe role of apocrine sweat glands

A
  • enlarge and become active during adolescence
  • found in groin, axilla, breasts
  • why we are smelly
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52
Q

describe the role of sebaceous glands

A
  • found in the dermis
  • produce an oily fluid to lubricate the skin/hair
  • activated during adolescence in response to elevated androgen levels
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53
Q

describe expected findings for:
* moisture
* temp
* texture
* turgor
* mobility

A
  • moisture: minimal perspiration or oiliness
  • temp: change in temp along extremities (dorsal side of hand, to finger tips/toe tips)
  • texture: smooth, soft, even
  • turgor: tented if pt is dehydrated or has edema
  • mobility: skin moves easily when pinched, but goes back in place
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54
Q

describe primary lesions

A

spontaneous manifestations within the skin, pathological process

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55
Q

describe secondary lesions

A

evolution of a primary lesion from aggravation or trauma

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56
Q

primary lesions

define macule

A
  • flat, non-palpable lesion
  • less than 1 cm in size

freckle, mole, measles

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57
Q

primary lesions

patch

A
  • flat, non-palpable, irregularly shaped lesion
  • greater than 1 cm in size

larger macule

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58
Q

primary lesions

papule

A
  • raised, solid, palpable lesion
  • less than 1 cm in size

wart, mole

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59
Q

primary lesions

plaque

A
  • raised, firm, rough lesion
  • flat surface
  • greater than 1 cm in size
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60
Q

primary lesions

wheal

A
  • elevated, irregular area of edema
  • transient with variable presentation

bug bite, allergic rxn

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61
Q

primary lesions

nodule

A
  • raised, firm, circumscribed lesion
  • mid to deep dermis
  • 1-2 cm

lipoma

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62
Q

primary lesions

tumor/mass

A
  • raised, solid lesion
  • may or may not be clearly demarcated
  • deep dermis
  • greater than 2 cm
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63
Q

primary lesions

vesicle

A
  • raised, circumscribed
  • superficial lesion
  • filled w/ clear to yellow serous fluid
  • less than 1 cm in diameter
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64
Q

primary lesions

bulla

A
  • raised, circumscribed
  • superficial
  • filled with clear/yellow serous fluid
  • greater than 1 cm in size

blister

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65
Q

primary lesions

pustule

A
  • raised, superficial lesion
  • filled with purulent fluid
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66
Q

primary lesions

cyst

A
  • raised, circumscribed, encapsulated lesion
  • dermis or subQ layer
  • filled with liquid or semisolid material
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67
Q

primary lesions

telangiectasia

A
  • fine and irregular red lines produced by capillary dilation from rosacea
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68
Q

secondary lesions

scale

A
  • keritanized cells that are flaky
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69
Q

secondary lesions

lichenification

A
  • rough, thickened epidermis
  • from persistant inflammation, rubbing, irritation
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70
Q

secondary lesions

keloid

A
  • irregular, raised, enlarging scar that grows beyond boundaries of the wound
  • from excessive collagen formation during healing
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71
Q

secondary lesions

excoriation

A
  • superficial abrasion in the epidermis
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72
Q

secondary lesions

scar

A
  • thin to thick fibrous tissue that replaces normal skin after injury or laceration to dermis
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73
Q

secondary lesions

fissure

A
  • longitudinal crack in epidermis and dermis
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74
Q

secondary lesions

erosion

A
  • loss of some part of the epidermis
  • leaves a depressed, moist, glistening surface

ruptured bulla

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75
Q

secondary lesions

ulceration

A
  • loss of epidermis and dermis
  • caved in surface of various sizes
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76
Q

secondary lesions

crust

A
  • dried serum, blood, or purulent exudate
  • slightly elevated
  • varying color

scab

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77
Q

secondary lesions

atrophy

A
  • thinning of the skin surface and loss of skin markings leading to translucent and paper like skin
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78
Q

vascular skin lesions

petechiae

A
  • red/purple
  • non-blanchable
  • less than 5 mm from intravascular defects or infections
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79
Q

vascular skin lesions

purpura

A
  • red/purple
  • non-blanchable
  • greater than 5mm from infection or intravascular defects
80
Q

vascular skin lesions

ecchymoses

A
  • red/purple
  • non-blanchable
  • variable size from vascular wall destruction, trauma, vasculitis
81
Q

vascular skin lesions

spider angioma

A
  • red, central bodied with radiating legs that blanch with pressure
  • caused by vit B deficiency, liver disease, or can be idiopathic
82
Q

vascular skin lesions

venous star

A
  • blue-ish spider
  • linear or irregular
  • non-blanchable
  • caused by increased pressure on superficial veins
83
Q

vascular skin lesions

capillary hemangioma

A
  • red
  • irregular macular patches
  • from dilation of dermal capillaries
84
Q

lesions of older adults

cherry angioma

A
  • tiny, bright red to dark blue rounded papules
  • brown over time
85
Q

lesions of older adults

seborrheic keratoses

A
  • pigmented, raised
  • warty lesions on trunk of body
  • brown
86
Q

lesions of older adults

sebaceous hyperplasia

A
  • yellowish
  • flattened papules
  • central depressions

appear like BCC

87
Q

lesions of older adults

cutaneous tags

A
  • small, soft
  • skin colored peduncluated papules
  • neck, upper chest
88
Q

lesions of older adults

cutaneous horns

A
  • small, hard
  • projections of epidermis
  • forehead, face
89
Q

lesions of older adults

senile lentigines

A
  • irregular
  • gray/brown macules
  • ocur from sun exposure

sun spots

90
Q

non-malignant skin lesions

corn

A
  • found on pressure points
  • slightly raised, circumscribed, painful lesions
91
Q

non-malignant skin lesions

callus

A
  • type of corn
  • non-tender
  • not painful
  • found on wt bearing surfaces
92
Q

non-malignant skin lesions

eczematous dermatitis

A
  • inflammatory skin disorder
  • can result from contact dermatitis, allergic contact dermatitis, atopic dermatitis
93
Q

non-malignant skin lesions

furuncle

A
  • deep seated infection of the pilosebaceous unit
  • erythema and purulent filled vesicle
94
Q

non-malignant skin lesions

cellulitis

A
  • diffuse, acute, infection of skin and subQ tissue
  • leads to edema, erythema, itchiness from swelling
  • hot to touch and tender
95
Q

non-malignant skin lesions

folliculitis

A
  • inflamation and infection of the hair follicle and surrounding dermis
  • warm to touch
  • erythematous
96
Q

non-malignant skin lesions

tinea infections

A
  • group of non-candida infections
  • invovle the corneum, nails, pedis, hair, etc
97
Q

non-malignant skin lesions

pityriasis rosea

A
  • self-limiting inflammation of unk cause w/ possible pruritis
98
Q

non-malignant skin lesions

psoriasis

A
  • chronic & recurrent disease of keratinocyte proliferation
  • scaly
99
Q

non-malignant skin lesions

rosacea

A
  • chronic, inflammatory disorder
  • no itching
  • result of sun exposure, hot beverages, flushing from embarrassment, spicy food
100
Q

non-malignant skin lesions

drug eruption

A
  • cutaneous rxn to meds
  • can last up to several wks
101
Q

non-malignant skin lesions

herpes zoster

A
  • VZV infection found along dermatomes (DOES NOT CROSS MIDLINE)
  • painful, itchy, burning pustules
102
Q

non-malignant skin lesions

herpes simplex

A
  • HSV infection
  • HSV 1: oral
  • HSV 2: genitalia
  • tenderness, pain, burning, vesicles
103
Q

hair conditions

alopecia areata

A
  • sudden, rapid, coin shaped hair loss
  • scalp/face
104
Q

hair conditions

scarring alopecia

A
  • replacement of hair follicles w/ scar tissue
105
Q

hair conditions

traction alopecia

A
  • hair loss that is a result of prolonged, tightly pulled back hairstyles
106
Q

hair conditions

hirsutism

A

growth of terminal hair in women in the male distrubtion pattern on the face/body/pubic areas

107
Q

nail conditions

ingrown nails

A
  • lateral nail fold grows into the dermis
108
Q

nail conditions

subungual hematoma

A
  • trauma to the nail plate severe enough to lead to immediate bleeding/pain
109
Q

nail conditions

onycholysis

A

loosening of nail plate from nail bed w/ eventual separation at distal groove

110
Q

nail conditions

koilonychia

A

central depression of the nail with lateral elevation of the nail plate

due to deficiencies, hypothyroidism

111
Q

nail conditions

beau lines

A

transverse depressions/pitting of the nails
from systemic disorders (infection, surgeries)
indicate the nail completely stopped growing, ON ALL NAILS

112
Q

nail conditions

white banding

A

white spots/bands on nail

113
Q

findings on face/hair for:
* normal
* Cushing’s
* Addison’s

A
  • normal: even distribution, no infestations, thick/thin, texture
  • Cushing’s: moon shpaed face, dense w/ extra fat; thin, erythematous skin
  • Addison’s: very moist skin, fine/thin hair, lid retration with more prominent eyes
114
Q

where are palpebral fissures and nasolabial folds?

A
  1. palpebral fissure is the innermost corner of the eye adjacent to the nose
  2. nasolabial fold is the area under the cheek extending frmo the nose toward corners of mouth
115
Q

describe abnormalities w/ CN V and VII paralysis

A
  • CN V and VII innervate the facial muscles
  • can paralyze the corner of the mouth, flat nasolabial fold
  • eyes unable to close, eyeballs rolled up
  • forehead cannot wrinkle, eyebrow cannot raise
116
Q

describe the anterior cervical triangle

A
  • contains the hyoid bone, cricoid cartilage, trachea, thyroid
  • formed by the medial border of teh sternocleidomastoid, mandible, and midline
  • contains anterior cervical lymph nodes
117
Q

describe the posterior cervical triangle

A
  • contains the hyoid bone, cricoid cartilage, trachea, thyroid
  • formed by the trapezius, sternocleidomastoid, and clavicle
  • contains posterior cervical lymph nodes
118
Q

where do you check for bruits in head/neck region?

3 spots

A
  1. carotid arteries
  2. thyroid
  3. in infants: just over the orbit to idetnify cerebral aneurysm
119
Q

what are you looking for when you inspect the neck?

7 components

A
  • muscle symmetry
  • trachea alignment (midline)
  • landmarks of the triangles
  • fullness at base of neck
  • masses, webbing, lesions
  • carotid artery prominence, jugular vein distension
  • range of motion
120
Q

what is the most inferior landmark to use when palpating the trachea?

A

sternal notch/clavicles depending on what you are palpating!

121
Q

describe normal thyroid:
* size
* shape
* configuration
* consistency
* tenderness

A
  • not visible
  • buterfly shaped
  • two lobes, isthmus
  • firm yet pliable
  • non-tender
122
Q

describe Battle’s sign

A
  • bruising over mastoid
  • may have internal brain injury
123
Q

describe CSF leaks

A
  • drainage from nose
  • salty/metallic mouth taste
  • drainage down back of throat
124
Q

what could tenderness over temporal arteries mean?

A
  • decreased blood flow to head/brain
125
Q

brudzinski sign

A
  • flexing neck causes knees to flex unintentionally (sign for meningitis)
126
Q

describe the lacrimal canaliculi

A

tubes connecting the puncta to the lacrimal sac to clear tears from the eyes

127
Q

describe the canthus

A

lateral and medial corners of the eye where the upper and lower lid connect

128
Q

describe the caruncle

A

red medial portion of the eye next to the medial canthus

129
Q

function of cornea

A
  • continuous w/ sclera
  • exposed to environment on anterior eye
  • clear, rich, sensory innervation
  • avascular
  • functions to refract light into the eye
130
Q

function of the bulbar conjunctiva

A

prevents microbial enterance into eye

131
Q

function of the palpebral conjunctiva

A

lubricates eye

132
Q

function of the limbus

A
  • forms border between the transparent cornea and opaque sclear
  • contains the pathway of aqueous humor outflow
  • site of surgical incisons
  • acts as a barrier to epithelial cells preventing them from migrating onto corneal surface
133
Q

function of sclera

A
  • dense avascular structure that appears anteriorly to white of eye
  • supports internal eye structure
134
Q

function of choroid

A
  • pigmented, richly vascular layer that supplies O2 to outer part of retina
135
Q

function of macula

A
  • section of retina responsible for color vision & fine detail processing
136
Q

what CN does vision?

A

CN II

137
Q

describe visual fields by confrontation

A
  • bilateral
  • pt and provider mirror each other
  • move finger in all fields
  • tests peripheral vision
  • CN II
138
Q

what should be examined during external eye exam?

anatomy, not what you’re inspecting for

A
  • eyelid
  • conjunctivae
  • iris/pupil
  • lens
  • sclera
  • lacrimal apparatus
139
Q

eye abnormalities

exophthalmos

A

bulging of eye anteriorly out of orbit

140
Q

eye abnormalities

acute purulent conjunctivitis

A

infection of the conjunctiva

141
Q

eye abnormalities

subconjunctival hemorrhage

A
  • bright red blood that profuses through the conjunctiva
  • result of violent coughing, sneezing, straining, vomiting, randomly in pregnancy
142
Q

eye abnormalities

pterygium

A
  • abnormal growth of the conjunctiva that extends over the cornea
  • usually near the nasal side, causes blindness
143
Q

eye abnormalities

xanthelasma

A
  • elevated plaques of cholesterol deposited in the eyelids by macrophages
144
Q

eye abnormalities

lagophthalmos

A

closed eyelids that do not completely shut

145
Q

eye abnormalities

abnormal globe firmness

A

indication of glaucoma

146
Q

eye abnormalities

hypertelorism

A

wide spacing of the eye

147
Q

eye abnormalities

ptosis

A

drooping of the upper eyelid usually from an acquired weakness of levatator muscle

148
Q

eye abnormalities

extropion

A

outward turning of lower eyelid
lead to excess tearing because punctum cannot drain the eye

149
Q

eye abnormalities

entropion

A

inward turning of lower eyelid
eyelashes may cause corneal and conjunctival irrtation

150
Q

eye abnormalities

hordeolum

A
  • aka stye
  • acute infection of the sebaceous gland leading to ingrown hair
151
Q

describe corneal touch reflex & which CN

A
  • corneal sensitivity to touch w/ cotton wisp
  • CN V and VII
152
Q

what CN for direct and consensual response?

A

CN III

153
Q

what CN does accomodation test?

A

CN III

154
Q

what CN are associated with EOM?

A
  • Oculomotor: CN III
  • Trochlear: CN IV
  • Abducens: CN VI
155
Q

eye abnormalities

lid lag

A

delay in the movement of the eyelid as the eye moves downward and is common in thyroid diseases

156
Q

eye abnormalities

nystagmus

A

involuntary, side to side, up/down, circular motion of eye

157
Q

eye abnormalities

end-gaze nystagmus

A

associated with extreme positions in EOM

158
Q

describe red reflex

A

occurs when light is illuminating the retina and should be red
if black, opacity such as glaucome

159
Q

what should A:V ratio be in retina

A
  • arterioles smaller than venules by ratio of 3:5 or 2:3
160
Q

cup to disc ratio

A

should be measured to determine extent of glaucoma

161
Q

disc venous pulsations

A

pulsation of the retinal vein can indicate increased IOP

162
Q

mongonlian vs anti-mongolian slant

A
  • mongolian: lateral canthi above medial
  • anti-mongolian: medial canthi above lateral
163
Q

eye abnormalities

miosis

A
  • pupillary constriction where it is less than 2mm or pinpoints
  • indicated opiod abuse
164
Q

eye abnormalities

mydriasis

A
  • pupillary dilation usually more than 6mm from lesions, hypoxia, glaucoma, stimulant
165
Q

eye abnormalities

anisocoria

A
  • unequal size of pupils of the eye that is normal as long as the eye responds appropriately to light reflexes
  • if not, note which was slower
166
Q

eye abnormalities

Argyll Robertson Pupil

A
  • bilateral, miotic w/ irregular shaped pupils that do not construct w/ light
  • caused by syphilis lesions in midbrain
167
Q

eye abnormalities

tonic pupil

A
  • affected pupil is dilated & reacts slowly to light or not at all
  • can respond to convergence from post-gangliionic PSNS impairment
168
Q

eye abnormalities

horner syndrome

A
  • interruption of SNS innervation to the eye that can be inherited or from a lesion, stroke, trauma
  • leads to ipsilateral miosis and hemifacial sweating
169
Q

eye abnormalities

vitreous hemorrhage

A
  • red haze
  • if pre-retinal hemorrhage, ruptures through hyaloid membrane
170
Q

eye abnormalities

pre-retinal hemorrhage

A
  • subhyaloid, bowl or boat shaped
171
Q

eye abnormalities

superficial intraretinal hemorrhage

A
  • flame or splinter
  • follow lines of nerve fiber layers
172
Q

eye abnormalities

deep intraretinal hemorrhage AKA

A

blot hemorrhages

173
Q

eye abnormalities

subretinal hemorrhage

A
  • irregular, sharp border
  • dark/green
  • located beneath rods/cones
174
Q

eye abnormalities

hard exudates

A

white clumps of lipid deposits

175
Q

eye abnormalities

cotton wool patches

A
  • fluffy, white, diffuse borders
  • localized retinal ischemia
  • HTN
176
Q

eye abnormalities

drusen bodies

A
  • pink/yellow spots that occur w/ aging
  • often seen in macula, indicates macular ddamage
177
Q

eye abnormalities

bergmeister’s papilla

A
  • optic cup embryological remnant
178
Q

anatomic divisions between external, middle, and inner ear

A
  1. outer ear: auricle all the way to the TM
  2. middle ear: consists of the tympanic cavity w/ the ossicles and portions of the semi-circular ducts
  3. inner ear: consists of the cochlea, cochlear nerve, and auditory tube
179
Q

how to pull ear adult vs peds

A
  1. adult: pull ear up & back & out
  2. peds: pull ear down & back & out
180
Q

what could tenderness or pain of pinna or tragus suggest?

A
  • otitis externa if paired with pain and discharge
  • if mastoid is also tender, then infection may have spread
181
Q

describe conductive hearing loss

A
  • inability for sound waves to make it through the middle ear to the inner ear usually from occlusion
  • causes: cerumen impaction, tympanosclerosis, calcification
182
Q

define sensorineural hearing loss

A
  • reduced transmission of sound within only the inner ear due to cochlear deformities, CN VII problems, congenital infection, genetic syndrome, ototoxic medications, trauma, tumors, degeneration, systemic disease
183
Q

Weber Test
* normal
* conductive loss
* sensorineural loss

A
  • normal: heard at midline
  • conductive: lateralize to ear w/ conductive loss
  • sensorineural: lateralize away from ear with loss
184
Q

Rinne Test
* normal
* conductive loss
* sensorineural loss

A
  • normal: 2:1
  • conductive: BC > AC
  • sensorineural: AC > BC
185
Q

Schwabach Test
* normal
* conductive loss
* sensorineural loss

A
  • normal: examiner & pt hear for same duration
  • conductive: pt hears longer than examiner
  • sensorineural: examiner hears longer than pt
186
Q

these tests:
1. Nylen-Barany
2. Cold Calorics
3. Dix-Hallpike
test for what?

A

vertigo sx

187
Q

describe the cold caloric test

A
  • cold water enters the ear canal
  • causes fast, side to side eye movements, nystagmus
  • assesses damage to CN VIII
188
Q

where do the nasolacrimal duct and paranasal sinuses drain?

A
  1. nasolacrimal: inferior meatus
  2. paranasal: middle meatus
189
Q

which CN for smell?

A

CN I

190
Q

ADA tooth numbering

A
  • # 1 is upper right
  • # 16 is upper left
  • # 17 is lower left
  • # 32 is lower right
191
Q

tongue extension shows which nerve is intact?

A

CN XII

192
Q

uvula movement shows which nerves intact?

A

CV IX and X

193
Q

gag reflex sows which CN in tact?

A

CN IX and X

194
Q

describe mallampati oropharynx classification

A
  • class 1: soft palate, uvula, pillars visible
  • class 2: soft palate, uvula visible
  • class 3: soft palate, base uvula visible
  • class 4: only hard palate visible
195
Q

describe tonsil grades

A
  • 0: absent
  • 1+ : visible
  • 2+ : halfway between tonsillar pillars and uvula
  • 3+ : nearly touching uvula
  • 4+ : tonsils and uvula touch each other
196
Q

abnormal mouth

4

A
  • TMJ popping
  • occulsion, loose teeth, dental abornmalities
  • palates: torus palatinus
  • buccal muosa: fordyce spots
197
Q

abnormal throat findings

3

A
  1. tonsils inflammed/swollen
  2. no gag reflex
  3. uvula doesn’t rise w/ soft palate
198
Q

abnormal neck findings

6

A
  1. masses
  2. brudzinski sign
  3. tracheal tugging
  4. trachea not mobile or midline
  5. thyroid gland mass upon palpation
  6. carotid bruits

PACS (5 decks)

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