Exam 1-Vocabulary Flashcards

1
Q

Litigation: The process of __________ a dispute through the _____ system.

A

resolving, court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pleadings: _______ by the ________ and the _________ that details the ____, ______, and _______ of a case.

A

statement, plaintiff, defendant, facts, charges, defenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Complaint: The ______ made by the _______ alleging _______ on the part of the defendant. When filed with a court, the _______ initiates a ______.

A

pleading, plaintiff, wrongdoing, compliant, lawsuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Summons: A ______ informing a _______ that a legal ______ has been commenced against her or him and that the defendant must _______ in court on a certain date to _____ the plaintiff’s complaint.

A

document, defendant, action, appear, answer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Default Judgement: A ________ entered by a ____ against a ______ who has _____ to appear in court to answer or defend against the plaintiff’s claim.

A

judgement, court, defendant, failed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Answer: Procedurally, a defendant’s _______to a plaintiff’s ________.

A

response, complaint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Counterclaim: A ____ made by a ________ in a _____ lawsuit against the plaintiff. In effect, the defendant is _____ the plaintiff.

A

claim, defendant, civil, suing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Reply: Procedurally, a plaintiff’s ________ to a defendant’s ________.

A

response, answer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Motion to Dismiss: A ________ in which a defendant ______ the facts as alleged by the plaintiff but ______ that the plaintiff’s claim to state a cause of action has no _______ in law.

A

pleading, admits, asserts, basis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Motion of Judgement on the Pleadings: A _____ by ______ party to a lawsuit at the close of the pleadings _________ the court to decide the issue ______ on the pleadings without proceeding to ______. The motion will be granted only if no _____ are in dispute.

A

motion, either, requesting, solely, trail, facts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Motion for Summary Judgement: A ________ requesting the court to enter a ________ without proceeding to ____. The motion can be based on _______ outside the pleadings and will be ______ only if no facts are in ______.

A

motion, judgment, trail, evidence, granted, dispute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Discovery: A method by which the _______ parties obtain information from each other to ________ for trail.

A

opposing, prepare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Deposition: The ___________ of a party to a _______ or a _____ taken under oath before a trial.

A

testimony, lawsuit, witness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Interrogatories: A series of _____ questions for which written answers are prepared by a _______ to a lawsuit, usually with the assistance of the party’s ________, and then signed under oath.

A

written, party, attorney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

E-Evidence: A type of _________ that consists of all ___________-generated or _________ recorded information.

A

evidence, computer, electronically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Voir Dire: An important part of the ____ selection process in which the attorneys question ___________ jurors about their ________, attitudes, and biases to ascertain whether they can be _______ jurors.

A

jury, prospective, backgrounds, impartial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Motion for a Directed Verdict: A motion for the judge to take the ________ out of the hands of the ____ and to _______ a verdict for the party making the motion on the ground that the other party has not produced __________ evidence to support his or her decision.

A

decision, jury, direct, sufficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Award: The _______ compensation given to a party at the end of a trial or other proceeding.

A

monetary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Motion for Judgment N.O.V.: A motion _______ the court to grant judgment in favor of the party making the _____ on the ground that the jury’s _______ against him or her was _________ and erroneous.

A

requesting, motion, verdict, unreasonable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Motion for New Trail: A motion _______ that the trail was so _____________flawed (because of ____, new discovered ________, prejudice, or another reason) that a new trail is ________ to prevent a _________ of justice.

A

asserting, fundamentally, error, evidence, necessary, miscarriage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Tort: A wrongful __( other than a breach of contract) that results in ______ or _______ to another and leads to civil liability.

A

act, harm, injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Business Tort: Wrongful __________ with another’s business _____ and __________.

A

interference, rights, relationships

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Damages: A __________ award sought as a remedy for a _________ of contract or a tortious action.

A

monetary, breach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Compensatory Damages: A _________ award equivalent to the ______ value of injuries or damage sustained by the _________ party.

A

monetary, actual, aggrevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Punitive Damages: Monetary _________ that may be awarded to a _______ to punish the defendant and deter similar conduct in the future.

A

damages, plaintiff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Intentional Tort: A wrongful act __________ committed.

A

knowingly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Tortfeasor: One who _____ a tort

A

commits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Assault: Any _____ or ______ intended to make another person _______ of immediate physical harm-a ________ believable threat.

A

word, action, fearful, reasonably

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Battery: Unexcused ________ or ________ physical contact with another that is ___________ performed.

A

harmful, offensive, intentionally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Defense: A reason ______ and ________ by a defendant in an action or lawsuit as to why the plaintiff should not ______ or _____ what she or he seeks.

A

offered, alleged, recover, establish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Actionable: Capable of serving as the basis of the _______. An actionable _____ can be pursed in a lawsuit or other court action.

A

lawsuit, claim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Defamation: Anything _______ or _______ spoken that causes injury to another’s ____ name, reputation, or character.

A

published, publicly, good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Libel: Defamation in _____ or another ____ having the quality of __________ (such as a digital recording).

A

writing, permanence

34
Q

Slander: Defamation in ____ form.

A

oral

35
Q

Privilege: A special ____, _______, or immunity granted to a person or a class of persons, such as a judge’s ________ privilege to avoid _____ for defamation over _______ made in the courtroom during a trail.

A

right, advantage, absolute, liability, statements

36
Q

Actual Malice: The deliberate _____ to cause harm that exists when a person makes a _________ with either knowledge or its falsity or reckless disregard of the truth. Actual malice is required to establish defamation against public _________.

A

intent, statement, figure

37
Q

Appropriation: In tort law, the use by one person of another person’s ________, likeness, or other _________ characteristics without permission and for the benefit of the user.

A

name, identifying

38
Q

Fraudulent Misrepresentation: Any ________, either by __________ or by ________ of a material fact, knowingly made with the intention of ________ another and on which a reasonable person would and does rely to his or her detriment.

A

misrepresentation, misstatement, deceiving

39
Q

Puffery: A salesperson’s often ________ claims concerning the quality of ______ offered for sale. Such claims involve _____ rather than ____ and are not legally binding promises or warranties.

A

exaggerated, property, opinions, facts

40
Q

Trespass to Land: ______ onto, above, below the surface of land owned by another _____ the owners permission or ____ authorization.

A

entry, without, legal

41
Q

Trespass to Personal Property: ___________ taking or harming the ________ property of another or otherwise interfering with the lawful owner’s possession of personal property

A

wrongfully, personal

42
Q

Conversion: Wrongfully taking or retaining ________ of an individual’s personal ____ and placing it in the ________ of another.

A

possession, property, service

43
Q

Disparagement of Property: An _________ injurious falsehood about another’s ______ or __________.

A

economically, product, property

44
Q

Slander of Quality (Trade Libel) The ________ of false information about another’s product, _________ that it is not what its seller claims.

A

publication, alleging

45
Q

Slander of Title: The ______ of a _______ that denies or costs doubt on another’s ____ ownership of any _____, causing financial loss to that property’s owner.

A

publication, statement, legal, property

46
Q

Negligence: The _______ to exercise the standard of care that a ______ person would exercise in similar circumstances.

A

failure, reasonable

47
Q

Duty of Care: The duty of all persons, as established by ____ law, to exercise a reasonable amount of care in their ________ with others. Failure to exercise ________, which is normally determined by the __________ person standard, constitutes the tort of ________.

A

tort, dealing, due care, reasonable, negligence

48
Q

Reasonable Person Standard: The standard of _______ expected of a _______ “reasonable person”. It is the standard against which ________ is measured and that must be observed to avoid _____ for negligence.

A

behavior, hypothetical, negligence, liability

49
Q

Business Invitee: A person, such as a ______ or a _____, who is invited onto business premised by the owner of those premises for ________ purposes.

A

customer, client, business

50
Q

Malpractice: Professional ______ or the lack of the ________ degree of skill as a professional. ______ the failure to exercise due care-on the part of professional, such as a physician, is commonly referred to as malpractice.

A

misconduct, requisite, negligence

51
Q

Causation in Fact: An ____ or _______ without which an event would not have occurred.

A

act, omission

52
Q

Proximate Cause: ____ cause. It exists when the connection between an ____ and an _______ is strong enough to justify imposing liability.

A

legal, act, injury

53
Q

Assumption of Risk: A ______ to negligence. A plaintiff may not recover for ______ or _______ suffered from risks he or she knows of and has voluntarily assumed.

A

defense, injuries, damages

54
Q

Contributory Negligence: A _____ in tort law used in only a few states, that _______ bars the plaintiff from ______ any damages if the damage suffered is _____ the plaintiff’s own fault.

A

rule, completely, recovering, partly

55
Q

Comparative Negligence: A ______ in tort law, used in the ________ of states, that reduces the plaintiff’s ________ in proportion to the plaintiff’s degree of _____, rather than bearing recovery ________.

A

rule, majority, recovery, fault, completely

56
Q

Negligence Per Se: An ______ or ______ to act in violation of a statutory requirement.

A

action, failure

57
Q

Good Samaritan Statue: A _____ statute stipulating that persons who provide _________ services to, to rescue, someone in peril cannot be sued for ______ unless they act _________ thereby causing further harm.

A

state, emergency, negligence, recklessly

58
Q

Dram Shop Act: A _____ statue that imposes liability on the ________ of bars and taverns, as well as those who serve _______ drinks to the public, for injuries resulting from ________ caused by ________ persons when the sellers or servers of alcoholic drinks ________ to the intoxication.

A

state, owners, alcoholic, accidents, intoxicated, contributed

59
Q

Promise: A _________ that ____ a person who makes it (the promiser) to do or not to do a certain act.

A

declaration, binds

60
Q

Promisor: A person who _____ a promise.

A

makes

61
Q

Promisee: A person to _____ a promise is ______.

A

whom, made

62
Q

Contract: A set of _______ consulting an agreement between parties, giving each a _____ duty to the other and also the right to seek a ____ for the breach of the promises or duties.

A

promises, legal, remedy

63
Q

Offeror: A person who _____ an offer.

A

makes

64
Q

Offeree: A person to _____ an offer is ____.

A

whom, made

65
Q

Bilateral Contract: A type of contract that arises when a ______ is given in _______ for a _____ promise. (Promise for a Promise)

A

promise, exchange, return

66
Q

Unilateral Contract: A contract that results when an ______ can be accepted only by the offeree’s _________.( A Promise for an Act)

A

offer, performance

67
Q

Express Contract: A contract in which the ____ of the agreement are ____ in words, ___ or ____.

A

terms, stated, oral, written

68
Q

Implied Contract: A contract formed in _______ or in ______ from the conduct of the parties

A

whole, part

69
Q

Formal Contract: Contract _____ be in ______ to be enforceable.

A

must, writing

70
Q

Informal Contract: Contract can be ___ other contracts.

A

all

71
Q

Irrevocable: Offer ____ be _____ once substantial performance has begun.

A

cannot, revoked

72
Q

Executed Contract: A contract that has been ______ performed by both parties.

A

fully

73
Q

Executory Contract: A contract that has ____ yet been fully performed.

A

not

74
Q

Valid Contract: A contract that results when the elements _______ for contract formation are ______.

A

necessary, present

75
Q

Voidable Contract: A contract that may be legally ________ at the option of ___ or ____ of the parties

A

avoided, one, both

76
Q

Unenforceable Contract: A valid contract rendered ________ by some statute or law.

A

unenforceable

77
Q

Quasi Contract: An ______ or contract imposed by ____, in the ______ of an agreement, to prevent the unjust _______ of one party.

A

obligation, law, absence, enrichment

78
Q

Limitations on Quasi-Contractural Remedy: Enriched party is not ______ when benefit is conferred ______, negligently or by misconduct.

A

liable, unnecessarily

79
Q

Plain Meaning Rule: Courts will _____ contracts whose meanings are _____ from the face of the instrument.

A

enforce, clear

80
Q

Malum in se: bad in ____ (eg. robbery)

A

itself

81
Q

Malum in prohibitum: _________ or bad act (eg. not paying taxes)

A

prohibited