Exam 1: uterine blood flow, maternal phys, foundations, epidural, c section Flashcards

1
Q

uterine blood supply pic

A
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2
Q

what are changes in the Lt and Rt uterine artery in pregnancy

A

increase in size and flow on the same side of placenta (so if placenta on L side, so L side increases)

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3
Q

where do uterine arteries branch from

A

internal iliac arteries

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4
Q

what branch of the uterine arteries suply the myometrium and radial arteries

A

arcuate arteries

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5
Q

what arteries branch to enter the endometrium to form the convoluted spiral arteries

A

radial

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6
Q

what space does oxygenated maternal blood enter

A

intervillous space

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7
Q

what invades the spiral arteries in a hypoxic state resulting in loss of smooth muscle tone

A

trophoblasts

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8
Q

where does the the exchange of O2, nutrients, and waste occur between fetus and mother

A

blood directed at chorionic plate bathes the villi

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9
Q

where does blood return fromfetus to mother

A

returns to basal plate and drains into multiple collecting veins

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10
Q

describe path of venous drainage of uterus

A

uterine veins-> internal iliac and utero-ovarian plexus-> inferior vena cava on right and renal vein on left

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11
Q

what does blood sample from intervillous space resemble

A

mixed venous

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12
Q

maternal fetal blood exchange picture

A
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13
Q

placental blood supply picture

A
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14
Q

what is uterine blood flow at term

A

700-900ml/min

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15
Q

uteroplacental blood makes up _________- perecent of maternal cardiac OP

A

12%

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16
Q

what is umbilical blood flow

A

110-120ml/min/kg

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17
Q

what are the three stages of changes in uterine blood flow

A

1- before and during implantation and early placentation
2- Growth and remodelingof uteroplacental vasculature
3-progressive uterine artery vasodilation

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18
Q

as flow to common iliac and uterine arteries increases blood flow to what artery decreases

A

external iliac

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19
Q

how does increased SVR effect placental blood flow??

A

decreased

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20
Q

how is SVR in uteroplacental circulation

A

low

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21
Q

uteroplacental circulation is _______ dependent

A

pressure

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22
Q

T/F uteroplacental circulation has well controlled autoregulation

A

false

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23
Q

if maternal BP is decreased, what happens to placental blood flow

A

decreased

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24
Q

uterine blood flow = __/_____

A

uterine perfusion pressure/uterine vascular resistance

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25
Q

what are some things that decrease uterine perfusion pressure FROM decreased uterine arterial pressure

A

supine position (aortocaval compression)
hemorrhage/hypovolemia
drug-induced hypotension
hypotension during sympathetic blockade

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26
Q

what are some things that decrease uterine perfusion pressure from increased uterine venous pressure

A

venal caval compression
uterine contractions
drug-induced uterine tachysystole (oxytocin, LAs)
skeletal muscle mypertonus (sezures, valsava, peep)

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27
Q

what are uterine effects of high doses of oxytocin

A

uterine tachysystole and decreased uterine blood flow

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28
Q

what are some causes of increased uterine vascular resistance FROM endogenous vasoconstrictors

A

catecholamines (stress)
vasopressin (in response to hypovolemia)

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29
Q

what are some causes of increased uterine vascular resistance FROM exogenous vasoconstrictors

A

epinephrine
vasopressors (phenylephrine>ephedrine)
LAs

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30
Q

does neuraxial anesthesia increase or decrease uteroplacental blood flow?

A

epidural CAN increase blood flow UNLESS you drop mother HR, BP, or put in supine position

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31
Q

which vasopressor is better at treating maternal hypotension

A

ephedrine (produces more uterine blood flow, but lower umbilical pH)
but Crouss says phenylephrine is safer

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32
Q

T/F commonly use induction drugs decrease uterine blood flow

A

false

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33
Q

T/F volatiles anesthetics decrease uterine blood flow

A

false

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34
Q

T/F hypoxia and hypercarbia decrease uterine blood flow

A

true

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35
Q

what are we minduful on during induction related to uterine blood flow

A

hypotension can decrease uterine blood flow
laryngoscopy can decrease uterine blood flow 2/2 NSS response

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36
Q

what effect does SNS response have on uterine blood flow

A

decreases

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37
Q

what can we do to furhter dilate placental artieries

A

nothing, they are already maximally dilated from trophoblasts

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38
Q

what is the effect of 5L of O2 on uterine blood flow

A

can causes vasoconstrictive affects-> decrease UBF

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39
Q

what is the average amount of weight gain in pregnancy

A

17% or 12 kg

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40
Q

what is the breakdown of weight gain in pregnancy

A

amniotic fluid 1 kg
fat 4kg
uterus 1 kg
fetus placenta 4kg
blood volume 1 kg
interstitial fluid 1kg

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41
Q

T/F in pregnancy your heart increases in size

A

true

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42
Q

what heart tone is often heard in pregnancy

A

4th tone

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43
Q

what causes the grade 2 systolic murmur at L sternal border

A

tricuspid and pulmonic regurge (benign)

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44
Q

when do pregnant patients develop LVH

A

12 weeks

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45
Q

how is HR affected by pregnancy

A

increases

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46
Q

what causes the increase in CO in the first trimester of pregnancy

A

HR

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47
Q

what causes the increase in CO in the 2nd trimester

A

SV

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48
Q

what hormone correlates with the increase in SV

A

estrogen

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49
Q

when does the increase in CO begin

A

5 weeks

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50
Q

what causes the decrease in SVR in pregnancy

A

low resistance in pregnancy

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51
Q

how is EF in pregnancy

A

increased

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52
Q

how is LVESV in pregnancy

A

same

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53
Q

how is LVEDV in pregnancy

A

increased

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54
Q

where is perfusion increased in pregnancy

A

uterus
skin
kidneys
extremities

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55
Q

what does increased skin perfusion lead to

A

flushing, heat loss

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56
Q

uterine blood flow increases from 50 ml/m to __________ ml/m by term

A

700-900

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57
Q

what percent of cardiac output goes to uterus in second half of pregnancy

A

12% (5% pre pregnancy)

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58
Q

what position do you put pregnant patient in to prevent aortocaval compression

A

left lateral about 30*

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59
Q

when can aortocaval compression begin

A

13 weeks

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60
Q

what does supine position affect pregnancy patient

A

10-20% decline in SV and CO, decreased RA filling pressure

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61
Q

how dose supine position affect uterine blood flow

A

decrease by 20%

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62
Q

how does supine position affect lower extremity blood flow

A

50%

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63
Q

what are s/s supine hypotension syndrome

A

light headedness
n/v
chest heaviness

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64
Q

how does sitting up effect BP

A

can be 10% decrease do to low SVR state

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65
Q

how can we combat decrease in BP when placing spinal/epidural

A

lateral position OR bend legs up

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66
Q

what happens to CO right after delivery

A

up to 150% increase above prepregnant baseline

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67
Q

how much does CO increase in early first stage labor

A

10%

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68
Q

how much does CO increase in late first stage labor

A

25%

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69
Q

how much does CO increase in second stage labor

A

40%

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70
Q

how much does CO increase immediate postpartum

A

75%

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71
Q

how is CO 24 hours post partum

A

24 hours postpartum decreases to just below prelabor levels

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72
Q

when dose CO return to baseline

A

12-24 weeks

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73
Q

what causes the rapid increase in CO after delivery

A

no AV compression
decreased low resistance placenta

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74
Q

how does uterine contraction effect blood

A

displaces 300-500 ml

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75
Q

when does HR return to baseline

A

2 weeks

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76
Q

what hormone relaxes ligament and cartilage in pregnancy

A

relaxin

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77
Q

what happens to the subcostal angle in pregnancy

A

widens (69-104*)

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78
Q

what happens to the vertical measurement of chest cavity

A

decreases (4cm)

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79
Q

what happens to the AP and traverse diameters in pregnancy

A

increase (2 cm by 37 2weeks)

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80
Q

what happens to capillaries of larynx and nasal/oropharyngeal mucosa

A

capillary engorgement

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81
Q

T/F use nasal trumpets/nasal intubation in preggers

A

false

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82
Q

what happens to airway in preggers

A

friable, bleeds

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83
Q

how is nasal breathing

A

difficult

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84
Q

how is pulmonary resistance in pregnancy

A

decrease 50%

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85
Q

how is chest wall excursion in pregnancy

A

decreased

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86
Q

how is diaphragm excursion in pregnancy

A

increased

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87
Q

how is FEV1 in pregnancy

A

unchanged

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88
Q

resp changes

A
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89
Q

how is flow volume loop in resp

A

no change

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90
Q

how is Total lung capacity in pregnancy

A

slightly reduced

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91
Q

how is TV in pregnancy

A

increased by 45%

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92
Q

how is expiratory reserve in pregnancy

A

decreased by 25%

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93
Q

how is residual volume in pregnancy

A

decreased by 15%

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94
Q

how is MV in pregnancy

A

45% increased

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95
Q

how is VC in pregnancy

A

maintained

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96
Q

how is RR in pregnancy

A

increased slightly

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97
Q

what are the pulmonary volumes that are decreased in pregnancy

A

expiratory
residual
(TLC slightly)

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98
Q

how is closing capacity in preggers

A

no change

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99
Q

T/F dyspnea affects up to 75% of women during pregnancy

A

true

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100
Q

what ph state are pregnancy in

A

resp alkalosis

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101
Q

how is PaO2 in pregnancy

A

increased

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102
Q

how is PaCO2 in pregnancy

A

decreased

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103
Q

how is pH in pregnancy

A

increased

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104
Q

how is bicarb in pregnancy

A

decreased

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105
Q

what causes the increase in PaO2 in pregnancy

A

increased alveolar ventilation

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106
Q

how is stomach affected by pregnancy

A

stomach displaced up and to the left, axis is rotated 45*
decreased lower esophageal sphincter tone

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107
Q

at how many weeks does a pregnant patient become aspiration risk

A

any week, RSI

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108
Q

GI changes chart

A
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109
Q

when do preggers have delayed gastric emptying

A

labor

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110
Q

T/F pregnant patients have increased gastric acid secretion

A

false

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111
Q

what is an important drug to give preop for preggers

A

antiemetic/zofran (80% have N/V)
fix the N/V before

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112
Q

what is a potential issue with zofran

A

leads to birth defects

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113
Q

how is liver affected by preggers

A

liver displaced upward
increased bilirubin,alanine aminitransferease, aspartate aminiotransferease, and lactate dhydrogenase

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114
Q

how does preggers effect gallbladder

A

gastric smooth muscle relaxes leading to billiary stasis and increased gallstones
increased rates of lap Chole

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115
Q

how long after birth do women still have aspiration risk

A

7 days

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116
Q

how is renal blood flow affeted by pregnancy

A

increases by 75%

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117
Q

how is GFR affected by preggers

A

increased by 50%

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118
Q

how is creatinine clearance in preggers

A

150-200 ml/min

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119
Q

T/F protenuria is only possible with preeclampsia

A

false

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120
Q

how is urine glucose in preggers

A

increased

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121
Q

T/F twin pregnancy has higher proteinuria

A

true

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122
Q

T/F later term has higher proteinuria

A

true

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123
Q

what causes the physiologic anemia in preggers

A

increased plasma volume
not as much increased RBC

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124
Q

when do RBCs decrease in preggers

A

8 weeks

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125
Q

when do RBCs return to baseline in preggers

A

16 weeks

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126
Q

how does blood volume change in pregnancy

A

increased 45%

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127
Q

how does plasma volume change in pregnancy

A

increased 55%

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128
Q

how does RBC volume change in pregnancy

A

increased 30%

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129
Q

what is a typical hgb concentration g/dL

A

chart says 11.6
crouss said aroun 9

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130
Q

typical hct in pregnancy

A

chart says 35.5%

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131
Q

how is cholinesterase affected in preggers

A

25% decrease (drops during first trimester)

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132
Q

how much blood is lost in normal vaginal delivery

A

600ccs

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133
Q

when is the greatest decrease in psuedocholinesterase activity

A

3rd day postpartum

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134
Q

when do you use succs during preggers

A

emergency c section
no need to redose paralytics

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135
Q

T/F the psuedocholinesterase deficiency affects succs metabolism

A

false

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136
Q

what factors are increased in preggers

A

1,7,9,10,12

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137
Q

what factors are unchanged in preggers

A

2,5

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138
Q

what factors are decreased in preggers

A

11, 13

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139
Q

what bleeding/clotting state is preggers

A

hypercoag

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140
Q

how are platelets in preggers

A

greater production and consumption
8% have platelet count <150,000

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141
Q

what is normal blood loss in c section

A

1000ccs

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142
Q

what makes c section blood hard to estimate

A

amniotic fluid
irrigation

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143
Q

how are clotting factors post partum

A

rapid decrease in
platelets,
fibrinogen,
factor 8 and
plasminogen

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144
Q

when does coags return to normal postpartum

A

2 weeks postpartum

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145
Q

how is immune system in preggers

A

immunocompromised

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146
Q

how are leukocytes in preggers

A

increased to 9-11,000 up to 15000

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147
Q

how are autoimmune disorders in preggers

A

improved

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148
Q

what kind of T cells are in successful preggers

A

th2

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149
Q

what kind of T cells are in miscarriage

A

Th1

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150
Q

how is thyroid in preggers

A

enlarges 50-70%

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151
Q

which Thyroid hormones are increased

A

estrogen increased T3 T4

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152
Q

how is TSH in preggers

A

same

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153
Q

how many preggers have gestational hypothyroid

A

15%

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154
Q

how is insulin affected

A

insulin resistance

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155
Q

how are cortisol levels

A

2.5x higher at end of 3rd trimester

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156
Q

how is calcium in preggers

A

insufficient 2/2 fetal demand

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157
Q

T/F post partum back pain is from epidural

A

false, relaxin

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158
Q

how does preggers effect sleep

A

disturbed REM cycle

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159
Q

how is cerebral blood flow in preggers

A

increased 2/2 decreased cerebral vascular resistance

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160
Q

how is BBB

A

more permeable

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161
Q

how is epidural space in preggers

A

epidural fat and venous plexus enlarge

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162
Q

how is CSF volume in preggers

A

decreased

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163
Q

how is CSF pressure in preggers

A

same

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164
Q

during preggers dependence on the SNS is (increased/decreased)

A

decreased

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165
Q

why is it important to stay midline in epidural

A

enlarged venous plexus

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166
Q

what is best position to avoid AV compression in preggers

A

L lateral 15%

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167
Q

how do we position after spinal

A

raise head up (10*)

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168
Q

what do we watch for high spinal

A

pinky numb/tingle C8

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169
Q

how many class 4 mallampati

A

increased by 34%

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170
Q

what makes preggers higher to iNtubate

A

DECREASED FRC
swollen tissue
tissue demands of fetus
class 4 airways

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171
Q

in preggers PaO2 decreases _______ x faster

A

2

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172
Q

how long do you have till hypoxia in preggers

A

2-3 min

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173
Q

what kind of airway equip should you have in preggers

A

videoscope

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174
Q

how is MAC in preggers

A

40% lower
does not affect anesthesia requirements in practice

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175
Q

T/F use lots of narcs in preggers

A

false
risk of fetal bradycardia

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176
Q

how are Beta adrenergic receptors in preggers

A

down regulated
so need higher doses of vasoactives if using

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177
Q

what makes neuraxial anesthetics more difficult in preggers

A

lordosis
increased weight
increased bleeding

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178
Q

what is a complication for neuraxial

A

hypotension
difficulty breathing

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179
Q

what are risks for ectopic preggers

A

previous ectopic
intertility tx
prior pelvic infection
tubal sx
advanced maternal age

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180
Q

where do most ectopic implantation occur

A

tubal

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181
Q

what are s/s ectopic

A

pelvic pain
delayed menses
vaginal bleeding
abd pain with or without tenderness
signs of shock

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182
Q

what is the leading cause of maternal death in the US

A

ruptured ectopic

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183
Q

what is ectopic called before it is diagnosed officially

A

pregnancy of unknown location

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184
Q

what is the gold standard of diagnosising ectopic

A

transvaginal ultrasound

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185
Q

how does ectopic appear on ultrasound

A

adnexal mass with free fluid

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186
Q

how do seerial HCGs diagnose ectopic

A

serial for 48rs, if it does not increase by 53% then possible PUL

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187
Q

what does a decrease in HCG by 10% tell us

A

failed pregnancy

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188
Q

what labs do you do for PUL

A

HCG
progesterone
pregnancy test

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189
Q

what is your induction med for ectopic

A

etomidate

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190
Q

how do you prepare for ectopic case

A

2 ivs
fluid
blood
etomidate induction
type and scree/cross
aspiration prophylaxis
urinary catheter
RSI
vasopressors ready
a-line if unstable
Ng tube
warming device
pitocin

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191
Q

when does aspiration risk begin in preggers

A

1st week

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192
Q

what is EPL

A

early pregnancy loss, term for spontaneous incomplete abortions

193
Q

when do EPLs occur

A

8-14 weeks

194
Q

what is surgical procedure for EPL

A

D&C or D&E

195
Q

what is D&E for

A

larger fetus

196
Q

what is complication of retained fetus

A

sepsis

197
Q

what is anesthetic technique for EPLs

A

type and cross/screen
aspiration prophylaxis
urinary catheter
large bor IV
RSI
etomidate
monitors
vasopressors
a line if unstable
NG tube
warming device

198
Q

what do we give after D&C

A

methergine, hemobate, pitocin

199
Q

when do we stop pitocin for DC

A

before instrumentation

200
Q

when do we restart pitocin

A

after removal of fetus

201
Q

what can long term use of pitocin use

A

uterine atony after dc, give smaller dose after long term use

202
Q

what is the inability of a cervix to hold a pregnancy

A

cervical insufficiency/incompetency

203
Q

what procedure is performed for cervical insufficiency

A

cerclage procedure

204
Q

what is preferred if cervix is not dilated and membranes are bulging

A

spinal anesthesia (sacral to T10)

205
Q

what is goal of cerviccal insufficiency tx

A

prevent rupture of membranes

206
Q

what is the most common medical disorder in preggers

A

HTN

207
Q

what is risk of HTN

A

fetal complications

207
Q

what is the most common cause of HTN in pregnancy

A

gestational HTN

208
Q

how often does HTN occur

A

10% of preggers

209
Q

what is true gestational HTN

A

HTN that is new onset and returns to normal after birth

210
Q

what is the only cure for preeclampsia

A

delivery of fetus/placenta

211
Q

how is PREclampsia defined

A

new onset HTN and proteinuria AFTER 20 weeks gestation

212
Q

what is the leading cause of indicated preterm delivery

A

peeclampsia

213
Q

what are the two kinds of preeclampsia

A

with or without severe features

214
Q

sever features vs without sever features preeclampsia

A
215
Q

what kind of preeclampsia is for blood pressure greater than or equal to 140/90

A

without severe features

216
Q

what kind of preeclampsia has BP > 160/110, thrombocytopenia, pulmonary edema, visual disturbances, impaired liver function

A

severe preeclampsia (with complications)

217
Q

what are complications of Preeclampsia

A

narrowing of airway
40% reduction in plasma volume
pulmonary edema
thrombocytopenia
DIC
HELLP
placental abruption
fluid volume overload
increased LVEDP
Pump Htn
Swollen legs

218
Q

what is HELLP syndrome

A

hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets

219
Q

what is goal week for preeclampsia delivery

A

after 37 weeks

220
Q

when is delivery for sever preeclampsia

A

<34 weeks

221
Q

what do you do to treat delivery for preeclampsia <34 weeks

A

delay for 24-48 hours for corticosteroid treatment
administer anti htn and mag

222
Q

what are preffered anesthesia methods for preeclampsia

A

CLE and CSE or spinal over GA

223
Q

how often do you monitor platelets for preeclampsia

A

every 24 hours, can get below 100,000

224
Q

how is CO affected by birth

A

it increases, so with preeclampsia pulmonary edema can occur and sharp spike in BP

225
Q

preeclampsia tests

A
226
Q

HELLP chart

A
227
Q

hypertensice disorders of pregnancy

A
228
Q

what is eclampsia

A

new onset of seizures/coma with symptoms of preeclampsia

229
Q

when can eclampsia occur

A

4 weeks postpartum

230
Q

what happens to fetus after seizures for eclampsia

A

fetal bradycardia

231
Q

what do we give for eclamptic seizures

A

magnesium (4-6 grams over 20 min)

232
Q

what are goals of spinal/epidural anesthesia for labor

A

pain relief
safety for mother and fetus
continued progression of labor
retain ability to push
minimize SE
have a long duration
be flexible
minimize time demands for anesthesia provider

233
Q

T/F epidurals delay labor

A

false

234
Q

what does pain in the first stage of labor come from

A

distention of lower uterus and cervix
-visceral pain
T10,11,12

235
Q

what does pain in the second sage of labor come from

A

somatic
pudendal S2,3,4

236
Q

what are benefits of analgesia in labor

A

-better uteroplacental perfusion and uterine activity
- decreased hyperventilation
-decreased paternal anxiety/fear
-decreased catecholamines = increased blood flow to fetus

237
Q

T/F epidurals are elective

A

true

238
Q

Can someone who got a tattoo right on epidural spot 4 months ago have epidural

A

no

239
Q

Can someone who got a tattoo right on epidural spot 6 months ago have epidural

A

yes

240
Q

Can someone who got a tattoo with metalic ink right on epidural spot 4 months ago have epidural

A

no

241
Q

contraindications to epidural

A
242
Q

what are some other contraindications to neuraxial

A

mechanical valves
blood thinners

243
Q

T/F you have have neuraxial anesthesia with porcine valve

A

false

244
Q

what are indications for Spinal/epidural

A

Maternal/OB request
Breech deliveries
Twins

245
Q

what are some benefits for spinal epidural

A

facilitates BP control in preeclampsia
blunts hemodynamic fluctuations during contraction

246
Q

what is gynecological recommendation for epidural

A

4-5 cm dilation

247
Q

what do you do to prepare for spinal/epidural

A

review OB history
preanesthetic eval
physical exam
review labs
inform and answer question
signed consent

248
Q

T/F you can have spinal/epidural with Skin infection

A

T, as long as infection is not right on insertion site

249
Q

T/F you can have spinal/epidural with systemic infection

A

F, look for increased WBCs

250
Q

T/F you can have spinal/epidural with platelets <100,000

A

F, >100,000 is okay

251
Q

T/F you can have spinal/epidural with anticoagulants

A

F
off ASA for 7 days
off heparin for 24 hours

252
Q

what equipment do we need for spinal/epidural

A

Airway cart
epidural cart
lipids
resuscitation meds
working IV

253
Q

what monitors do we need for spinal/epidural

A

BP, EKG, pulse ox, ambu, suction, FHR monitor

254
Q

how do we pretreat for spinal/epidural

A

1000ccs crystalloid
colloid

255
Q

how do you position for epidural/spinal

A

side of bed, straight back

256
Q

how often do you check vitals after test dose/ initial bolus

A

Q5 min for 15 minutes

257
Q

what is the benefit to lateral position over sitting for spinal placement

A

lower csf pressure

258
Q

what are layers for epidural /spinal placement in medial approach

A

skin
subq
supraspinous ligament
interspinous ligament
ligamentum flavum
epidural space
dura
interthecal spinal space

259
Q

what are the benefits of continuous epidural

A

contnuous and variable levels of anesthesia
ability to extend to C section
no dural puncture
caudad and cephalad spread
controlled by pump with bolus feature

260
Q

what are negatives of continuous epidural

A

slower onset
large volumes of LA required
higher failure rate

261
Q

what two layers do you skip in paramedian approach

A

supraspinous and interspinous ligaments

262
Q

which approach has more vessels, medial or paramedian

A

paramedian

263
Q

what are benefits of CSE

A

confirms epidural space
same benefits as epidural
more rapid onset
much faster sacral analgesia
less chance of failure

264
Q

T/F CSEs have an increased chance of postdural puncture HA

A

false

265
Q

what are negatives of CSE

A

can cause pruritis
possible inadvertant intrathecal catheter insertion
dont know if epidural is working
hypotension
spinal will wear off
high spinal

266
Q

when bolusing epidural what is the rule for volume/dermatome

A

1 level = 1 ml

267
Q

what is normal CC injection

A

6-8 ccs

268
Q

epidural vs CSE

A
269
Q

what are benefits of DPE

A

same benefits as epidural
faster onset for sacral spread and overall more dense block
less failed blocks
less unilateral blocks
faster onset

270
Q

which has faster onset CSE or DPE

A

CSE

271
Q

what is negative of DPE

A

possible intrathecal cath placement

272
Q

how do you make sure your catheter is not in spinal space

A

test dose

273
Q

what is benefit of continuous spinal

A

extends block beyond typical intrathecal injection
can be used in event of accidental dural puncture

274
Q

what are negatives of continuous spinal

A

high risk for post-dural puncture HA
risk for high spinal

275
Q

when do we use continuous caudal caths

A

typically only used for chronic pain
can be used for prior surgery where epidurals are not an option

276
Q

what are benefits of single shot spinals

A

provides almost immediate analgesia
dense block
low LA dosage

277
Q

what are negatives of single shot spinal

A

limited effective analgesia time
can block motor function

278
Q

what do we do to identify unintentional cannulation of the subarachnoid space or blood vessel

A

epidural test dose

279
Q

what meds do we give for test dose

A

3ml of
1.5 lido (45 mg)
1:200,000 epi (15mcg)

280
Q

T/F we give test dose during a contraction

A

F, time it between contractions

281
Q

what is a positive epidural test dose

A

risk in HR or BP 20% above baseline
symptoms of lidocaine toxicity (ringing in ears, metalic taste, numb feet)

282
Q

what do you do if you have a postive test dose

A

pull back catheter
redo test dose
replace epidural

283
Q

which shoulder do you put epidural line on

A

same side as IV

284
Q

how far do you put epidural catheter in space

A

text book like 3-5 cm, palmer says 7-10 cm

285
Q

which epidural drug treats visceral pain

A

opioids

286
Q

which epidural drug treats somatic pain

A

LAs

287
Q

where are dense concentrations of opioid receptors located

A

dorsal horn of spinal cord

288
Q

what epidrual drug would you give for lower uterine segment and cervicle dilation pain

A

opioids (visceral)

289
Q

what epidural drug would you give for descent of fetus into birth canal pain

A

LA (somatic)

290
Q

what is concentration of epidural bupivicaine

A

0.125%

291
Q

T/F bupivicaine blocks motor

A

false

292
Q

bupivicaine facts

A

highly protein bound
pain relief in 8-10 minutes
peaks in 20 min
duration 90 minute single dose
cardiotoxic
doesnt block motor

293
Q

what is concentration of ropicivaine for rescure

A

0.25-0.5% 8-10 ccs rescue

294
Q

what is relationship of ropivicaine and bupivicaine

A

ropivicaine is the single levorotary enantiomer of bupivicaine?

295
Q

ropivicaine facts

A

less potent than bupivicaine
less motor blockade than bupivicaine
less cardiotoxic than bupivicaine

296
Q

when do we use lidocaine for epidural

A

c section

297
Q

lidocaine facts

A

shorter DOA
less protein bound
increased motor blockade
very dense block

298
Q

when do we use 2-chloroprocaine

A

emergency c section, good drug to top off crowning or retained placenta

299
Q

2-chloroprocaine facts

A

ester LA
rapid onset
short DOA

300
Q

what are characteristics of lipid soluble opioids for epidural

A

rapid onset
short DOA
greater systemic absorption
reduce amount of LA needed

301
Q

what is best combo of epidural opioids

A

a lipid-soluble and a water soluble

302
Q

what are examples of water soluble opioids

A

morphine, hydromorphone, meperidine

303
Q

which opioid has some LA properties

A

merperidine

304
Q

what are properties of water soluble opioids

A

long latency
long DOA
inconsistent analgesia
more sedation

305
Q

what is benefit of epinephrine as an adjuvant

A

1.25-5 mcg
shortens latency, prolongs doa, reduces LA dose by 29%

306
Q

how does clonidine work as an adjuvant

A

direct stimulation of Alpha 2 adrenergic

307
Q

what is action of acetylcholine as adjuvant

A

inhibits breakdown of acetylcholine which increased GABA

308
Q

what is benefit of LA and opioid

A

lower total dose of anesthetic
decreased motor blockade
reduced shivering
greater patient satisfaction

309
Q

what two locals are usually in epidural pump

A

ropivicaine
bupivicaine

310
Q

how can you test if epidural is working

A

have raise legs, if they can its no good

311
Q

what do you do with bad epidural

A

replace it

312
Q

managing bad epidural chart

A
313
Q

what do you do if you accidentally puncture dura

A

remove needle and try another level
transition to CSE
place catheter intrathecal

314
Q

what increases risk of ectopic pregnancy

A

previous ectopic
infertility treatment
prior pelvic infection
tubal sx
advanced maternal age

315
Q

esters vs amines

A
316
Q

which LA does not contain a desaturated carbon ring and a tertiary amine

A

cocaine

317
Q

T/F pregnancy requires higher doses of LA

A

false
smaller

318
Q

how does pregnancy affect LAs

A

engorgement of epidural veins
increased neuronal sensitivity
progesterone or its metabolite
higher pH

319
Q

what are s/s LAST

A

tongue numbness
lightheaded
muscle twitching
unconsciousness
convulsions
coma
resp arrest
cardiovascular collapse

320
Q

how do we treat LAST in preggers

A

call for help
position for L uterine displacement
20% lipids
100% O2
maintain airway
control seizures
support BP with pressors fluid
consider bypass

321
Q

T/F LA allergies are common

A

false
rare

322
Q

T/F LAs easily cross placenta

A

T
protein biding
lipid soluble
ionizing

323
Q

neonatea are (more/less) sensitive to CNS depressant effects of LAs

A

less

324
Q

what are Fetal heart rate changes usually related to

A

LA effect on mother such as hypotension

325
Q

opioid receptor types

A
326
Q

what kind of receptors do opioids bind to

A

G protein coupled opioid receptors which inhibit adenylate cyclase and voltage gated calcium channels

327
Q

what is the result of opioids inhibiting clacium channels

A

release of glutamate and supstance P
-ionhibition of ascending nociceptive stimuli form dorsal horn of spinal cord

328
Q

what is the site of action of epidural opioids

A

dorsal horn of spinal cord

329
Q

what can happen to fetus if opioids get transmitted

A

resp depression
decreased APGAR
bradycardia

330
Q

how do opioids cause fetal bradycardia

A

linked to decreased maternal epinephrine
leads to uterine hyperactivity

331
Q

what is the most common major surgicial procedure performed worldwide

A

c section

332
Q

what is the most common indication for C section

A

labor arrest (34%)

333
Q

T/F prior c section means you will always have C section

A

F (VBAC)

334
Q

what are indications for C section

A

fetal heart tones (23)
breech presentation (17)
multiple fetus (7)

335
Q

when do they do vertical c section incision

A

preterm, more emergent, lower presentation

336
Q

what is uterine exteriorization

A

take uterus

337
Q

what type of incision for nonemergent c section

A

horizontal

338
Q

what happens when putting uterus back in

A

nausea- pretreat with zofran

339
Q

T/F c section have a higher death rate than vaginal

A

F, just as safe as vaginal

340
Q

T/F neuraxial anesthesia results in higher C section rates

A

false

341
Q

T/F epidurals slow down labor

A

false

342
Q

how do you position after epidural

A

wedge hip alternate

343
Q

what are methods to do intrauterine resuscitation

A

positioning (L lateral)
O2
maintain BP
stop pitocin
treatment of uterine tachysystole

344
Q

what medications do we give to maintain BP in intrauterine resuscitation

A

Phenyl, ephedrine

345
Q

T/F only get consent for mothers who say they want a C section

A

F, everyone is possible

346
Q

what can we do for high risk patients before they are admitted for birth to ensure safe anesthetic delivery

A

pre anesthesia consult

347
Q

what is the leading cause of maternal mortality

A

peripartum hmmg

348
Q

what anesthesia medications do we avoid in c section

A

narcs
non-depolarizers
volatiles

349
Q

what can non-depolarizers lead to

A

paralyze the uterus=uterine atony= bleeding

350
Q

what can volatiles cause in c section

A

uterine atony

351
Q

what paralytic do we use for c section under general

A

succs

352
Q

what can we give mother after baby is taken out in C section

A

turn up N2O
give narcs
turn down sevo

353
Q

what is the limit for clear liquids for c section

A

nonlaboring healthy patients can have clear liquids up to 2 hours

354
Q

how can we prophylactically treat for aspiration in c-section

A

antacid
H2 antagonist (pepcid_
PPIs
promotility (reglan)

355
Q

what is a consideration for treating aspiration with meds

A

use multiple agents
30 minute onset

356
Q

how much ancef do we give for <100 kg

A

2 gm

357
Q

how much ancef do we give for >120kg

A

3gm

358
Q

how do we dose ABX

A

weight

359
Q

when do we give ABX

A

within 60 minutes of incision

360
Q

what fluids do we give before spinal

A

1L cystalloid BUT
albumin is better (500)

361
Q

how many IVs for csection

A

2 large bore

362
Q

what neuraxial do we do for scheduled C section

A

spinal

363
Q

what neuraxial do we do for emergent c section

A

general

364
Q

what neuraxial do we do for failure to progress c section

A

epidural

365
Q

what is positioning for c section

A

at least 15 degree L lateral
head up 10 degrees after spinal

366
Q

what position do we put c section patient in for neuraxial

A

lateral or sitting

367
Q

when do we give mother O2

A

fetal distress

368
Q

what kind of oxygen do we give for scheduled C section

A

NC

369
Q

what kind of oxygen do we give for emergent C section that may turn to general

A

100%

370
Q

what is a good pretreat medication for C section

A

anxiety

371
Q

emergent vs urgent vs scheduled c section

A
372
Q

what kind of C section is for prolonged fetal bradycardia

A

emergency

373
Q

what kind of C section is for deep variable dcels with cervical dilation of 3 cm

A

urgent

374
Q

what kind of C section is for ruptured memebranes with previously undiagnosed breech presentation

A

scheduled

375
Q

what kind of C section is for repeat C section

A

elective

376
Q

what type of C section is for immediate threat of life to mother or fetus

A

emergent

377
Q

what type of C section is for maternal or fetal compromise that is not immediately life threatening

A

urgent

378
Q

what type of C section is for needing early delivery but no maternal or fetal comprimise

A

scheduled

379
Q

what type of C section is at a time that suits the mother and delivery team

A

elective

380
Q

what is goal level of epidural redose for C section

A

T4

381
Q

what medication can we give in epidural to speed up onset

A

bicarb

382
Q

what is the type of anesthetic for c section determined by

A

urgency of c section

383
Q

once a mother is under GA, how long does the surgeon have to get the baby out

A

8 minutes

384
Q

when should surgeon cut under Genderal C section

A

as soon as eyes are closed/meds pushed

385
Q

what do you always do after C section? why

A

Xray, see if anything left

386
Q

how often is nueraxial used in emergent C section

A

80%, sometimes not enough time

387
Q

what is goal sensory level for c section

A

T4

388
Q

what are advantages of spinal for C sec

A

visualization of CSF
technically easier
more rapid
more dense
less risk of LA
predictable recovery

389
Q

what is the duration of spinal

A

2-3 hrs

390
Q

what is the max dose of spinal

A

2 ccs total

391
Q

Why do we give dextrose in spinal

A

baricity (dextrose is hyperbaric)

392
Q

what is the drug of choice for spinals

A

bupivicaine 0.75% in 8.25% dextrose

393
Q

what is the most common dose of spinal

A

10-15 mg

394
Q

spinal med doses

A
395
Q

what kind of morphine do you use for spinals

A

duramorph-preservative free

396
Q

how is resp depression with duramorph

A

delayed reaction

397
Q

what are benifits of intrathecal opioids

A

-reduce intraoperative supplemental analgesia by 20%
-reduces N/V

398
Q

what are lipid soluble (fast) opioids

A

fent
alfent
sufent
remifent

399
Q

what are the water soluble (slow opioids)

A

morphine

400
Q

T/F higher doses of intrathecal opioids increase analgesia

A

F, increase pruritus

401
Q

what can we give to treat pruritis from intrathecal opioids

A

narcan in NS slow dripped

402
Q

what are some spinal analgesia adjuvents

A

dextrose
epi
clonidine
dexmetomidine

403
Q

how much bicarb do we give for spinal

A

1/10th total volume

404
Q

T/F clonidine and precedex have less side effects than opioids

A

true

405
Q

what is potential side effects of clonidine/precedex

A

vasodilation

406
Q

what is the best range for fentanyl dosing

A

10-15mcg

407
Q

T/F epidural anesthesia is more reliable than spinal anesthesia

A

false

408
Q

how are epidural doses compared to spinal doses

A

5-10x higher

409
Q

what are adjuvents for epidurals

A

fentanyl
sufenta
morphine
hydromorphone
clonidine
epi
sodium bicarb
dexmetomidine

410
Q

epidural anesthesia doses

A
411
Q

what medication do we give with epidural to prolong block

A

epi

412
Q

what is the goal block for epidural

A

T10-T4

413
Q

how is intubation for GA for C section

A

difficult
reduce ETT size
short laryngoscope handle
video laryngoscope

414
Q

what operative prep must be done BEFORE initiatiating GA in c section

A

prepped and draped

415
Q

T/F delay C section incision until ETT confirmation

A

T, but palmer says F in practice

416
Q

what is the benefit of GA in C section

A

less aspiration

417
Q

what are goals for anesthesia and C section

A

adequate maternal and fetal O2
adequate depth of anesthesia
minimize effects on uterine tone
minimize effects on the neonate

418
Q

when can we give mother IV opiods

A

after delivery

419
Q

what kind of Muscle relaxers are avoided in C section

A

non-depolarizing

420
Q

how do volatiles affect c section

A

decrease uterine tone and BP
decreased uterine blood flow

421
Q

what are recovery issues from C section

A

pain
sedation
N/V
pruritis
prolonged neuroblockade
drug treatment
bleeding

422
Q

T/F a one time dose of toradol causes bleeding

A

false

423
Q

what can cause lower neonatal apgar scores

A

depth of maternal anesthesia
delivery time > 8 minutes

424
Q

T/F we want lack of recall with C section

A

false

425
Q

T/F at T4 blockade you can still feel yourself breathing

A

false

426
Q

how do we respond to high spinal

A

RSI

427
Q

what is a common side effect of neuarxial block and what causes it

A

hypotension, sympathetic nerve fibers blocked

428
Q

how can we prevent hypotension from spinal

A

IV fluid bolus 1 L (or 15 ml/kg)
colloid is better
ephedrine vs phenylephrine
lower doses of LAs

429
Q

how do we prevent N/V

A

pretreat with zofran

430
Q

what other complication can hypotension lead to in neuraxial

A

n/v

431
Q

what are causes of N/V in C section

A

exteriorization of uterus
intra-abd manipulation
hypotension

432
Q

risk factors for NV chart

A
433
Q

what is optimal dose of intrathecal morphine

A

0.1mg

434
Q

what is optimal dose of epidural morphine

A

3.75mg

435
Q

what is another block to treat pain in c section

A

tap block

436
Q

what is the most effective treatment for pruritis in neuraxial

A

narcan

437
Q

what is the best drug to treat shivering

A

merperidine

438
Q

why does neuraxial cause hypothermia

A

vasodilation

439
Q

T/F uterine atony is more common after C section

A

true

440
Q

T/F push oxytocin

A

false
drip it in (40 units in a liter wide open)

441
Q

what can rapid bolus of oxytocin lead to

A

hypotension and cardiovascular collapse

442
Q

what route do we give methergine and hemabate

A

IM

443
Q

Pka 2-chloroprocaine

A

8.9

444
Q

Pka tetracaine

A

8.6

445
Q

Pka lidocaine

A

7.9

446
Q

Pka bupivacaine

A

8.2

447
Q

Pka ropivacaine

A

8.0

448
Q

Fentanyl spinal

A

10-25 mcg

449
Q

Sufenta spinal dose

A

2.5-5 mcg

450
Q

Morphine spinal dose

A

100-200mcg
(0.1-0.2mg)

451
Q

Dilaudid dose spinal

A

60-75 mcg
(0.060-0.075mg)

452
Q

Demerol spinal dose

A

60-70mg

453
Q

Epi spinal dose

A

100-200mcg
(0.1-0.2mg)

Just do epi wash

454
Q

Fentanyl epidural dose

A

50-100mcg

455
Q

Sufenta epidural dose

A

10-20mcg

456
Q

Morphine epidural dose

A

3-4 mg

457
Q

Dilaudid epidural dose

A

0.6-1.5 mg

458
Q

Merperidine epidural dose

A

50-75mg

459
Q

Normal TV

A

500

460
Q

Normal ERV

A

1100

461
Q

Normal residual volume

A

1200

462
Q

Normal IRV

A

3000

463
Q

Normal FRC

A

2300

464
Q

Normal inspiratory capacity

A

3500

465
Q

Normal vital capacity

A

4500

466
Q

Normal Total Lung Capacity

A

6000

467
Q

Factor 1

A

Fibrinogen

468
Q

Factor 2

A

Prothombin

469
Q

Factor 3

A

Thromboplastin

470
Q

Factor 4

A

Calcium

471
Q

Factor 5

A

Labile factor

472
Q

Factor 7

A

Stable factor

473
Q

Factor 8

A

Antihemophilic factor

474
Q

Factor 9

A

Christmas factor

475
Q

Factor 10

A

Stuart prower factor

476
Q

Factor 11

A

Plasma thromboplastin antecedent

477
Q

Factor 12

A

Hageman factor

478
Q

Factor 13

A

Fibrin stabilizing factor