Exam 1 Study guide Flashcards

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1
Q

Identify the four building blocks of cells and the macromolecule that each building block is used to create

A

The four building blocks of cells and their macromolecules are:
Sugars -> polysaccharides
amino acids -> protein
nucleic acids -> nucleotides
fatty acids -> lipids

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2
Q

Are macromolecules produced by hydrolysis or condensation reactions? You need to know the differences between these two types of reactions.

A

Macromolecules are made from condensation reactions with the removal of water. The difference between condensation and hydrolysis is that hydrolysis uses the input of water to break bonds while condensation reactions use the removal of water to create a bond.

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3
Q

Why do cells couple hydrolysis and condensation reactions?

A

Sometimes they couple reactions to use the energy from one reaction to initiate another one. Hydrolysis reactions are energetically favorable and can “power” condensation reactions which are energetically unfavorable.

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4
Q

Need to know the general structure of an amino acid and understand how the structure of an amino acid changes in water at pH7

A

(Hints for non polar: seeing aromatic rings, seeing only carbon and hydrogen, equal distribution of e)
Non polar:
-Glycine (Gly/G)
-Alanine (Ala/A)
-Valine (Val/V)
-Cysteine (Cys/C)
-Proline (Pro/P)
-Leucine (Leu/L)
-isoleucine (Ile/I)
-Methionine (Met/M)
-Tryptophan (Trp/W)
-Phenylalanine (Phe/F)

(Hints for polar: seeing an oxygen and nitrogen)
Polar:
-Serine (Ser/S)
-Threonine (Thr/T)
-Tyrosine (Tyr/Y)
-Asparagine (Asn/N)
-Glutamine (Gln/Q)

(Hints for positive charge: basic amino acids, accept a proton)
+Charge:
-Lysine (Lys/K)
-Arginine (Arg/R)
-HIstidine (His/H)

(Hints for negative charge: acidic amino acids, donated protons)
-Charge
-Aspartic Acid (Asp/D)
-Glutamic Acid (Glu/E)

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5
Q

Need to know the following terms and how they relate to protein structure: amino acids, N-terminus, C-terminus, and side chain/R group.

A

Amino acids are the subunits used to build protein. N-terminus is the first amino acid used to make protein. C-terminus is the last amino acid in the polypeptide chain. Side chain/R-groups are what makes the protein have different chemical properties.

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6
Q

Need to understand differences between polar, nonpolar, acidic (negative), and basic (positive) amino acids. Which can interact with water? Which can form hydrogen bonds? Which can form electrostatic interactions? Which are involved in hydrophobic forces? Note: you may want to review the Lecture 1 Background Information file to answer these questions.

A

Polar: Polar molecules are electronegative molecules with a partial charge. They are able to form hydrogen bonds with other molecules. They are also hydrophilic because of it.
nonpolar: non polar molecules do not form any hydrogen bonds with other particles and have an equal electron distribution. Because they are unable to form hydrogen bonds, non polar molecules are hydrophobic.
Charged molecules: charged amino acids mostly do electrostatic reactions. These include: aspartic acid, glutamic acid, Lysine, arginine, and histidine.

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7
Q

What is the role of covalent bonds, noncovalent bonds and hydrophobic forces in protein structure?

A

Covalent bonds are what build proteins with amino acids by creating bonds through condensation reaction. Also applies for a growing DNA strand.
Noncovalent bonds between polar amino acids influence three dimensional shape of proteins. (happening with side chains of amino acids)
Hydrophobic forces play a critical role in determining shape of protein; non polar amino acids cluster in core. Non polar amino (nonpolar side chains) acids create a hydrophobic core by clustering together, trying to avoid contact with water.

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8
Q

Why are alpha helices and beta sheets common structures in proteins?

A

Alpha helices and beta sheets form the secondary structures in proteins. They are common folding patterns because they rely on hydrogen bonds using N-H and C=O groups in polypeptide backbone (amino acid side chains are not involved in these folding patterns).

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9
Q

Describe the four different levels of protein structure.

A

Primary structure: only includes the amino acid sequence
Secondary structure: N-H and C=O start forming bonds to make alpha helixes and beta sheets.
Tertiary structure: Side chains start to get involved by bonding a collection of secondary structures in protein.
Quaternary structure: non covalently binding different polypeptide chains. More than one polypeptide chain connect together (for complex functions)

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10
Q

What are protein domains?

A

They are a segment of amino acids that can fold into stable structures. Form different structures in protein for different functions. ex: transcription factor

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11
Q

What are disulfide bonds? What is purpose of disulfide bonds?

A

Disulfide bonds are covalent bonds between cysteines that stabilize protein structure or combine different polypeptide chains. Solidifies tertiary structure. If a protein is outside the cell, it is reinforced with covalent bonds (disulfide bonds).

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12
Q

What is the association between protein shape/structure and protein function?

A

Different structures of a protein make proteins with unique functions. Shape dictates function. Function is also dependent on the ability the protein has to physically interact with other molecules.

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13
Q

Explain how a binding site of protein is able to form a stable interaction with a ligand.

A

the binding site of a protein consists of a cavity with amino acid side chains that bind to the ligand using non-covalent interactions. The amino acids in the cavity are polar which make them able to make noncovlent bonds like hydrogen bonds. Binding sites often use electrostatic interactions and hydrogen bonds to selectively bind to one specific ligand.

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14
Q

What is protein denaturation? Why does it occur (what is the molecular mechanism)?

A

Protein denaturation is when a protein unfolds and has reduced protein activity. This is because the weak covalent break between the proteins.

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15
Q

What causes protein denaturation? What happens when a cell has a large number of denatured proteins?

A

Protein denaturation can occur it is not an ideal environment for the protein. ex. heat, extreme pH, and chemicals. If a large number of proteins are denatured they can start to aggregate, which can diminish cell function and cause disease.

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16
Q

What are chaperones? Why are chaperones important for cellular function?

A

Chaperones are proteins that help refold denatured proteins or not properly folded proteins by binding to them. They go around the cell to check for unfolded proteins.

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17
Q

Where do chaperones bind on proteins?

A

They bind to the exposed nonpolar (hydrophobic) regions of the protein.

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18
Q

Identify two different strategies chaperones can use to help with protein folding.

A
  1. chaperone proteins bind to the partially unfolded protein to promote correct folding by extending it again and again to give it a chance to refold.
  2. chaperone protein forms a isolation chamber where a protein can be refolded without aggregating to other proteins.
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19
Q

What are heat shock proteins (Hsp)?

A

They are chaperone proteins that refold proteins that have been denatured

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20
Q

Why are heat shock proteins expressed when a cell is exposed to stress (like an increase in temperature)?

A

Hsp70 and Hsp60

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21
Q

Describe the differences between Hsp70 and Hsp60.

A

Hsp70 uses the first strategy of extending sections of a partially unfolded protein (of ezposed nonpolar amino acids) and gives it a chance of refolding correctly. It prevents protein from aggregating with unfinished protein. Speeds up folding process and makes it more efficient. Hsp60 uses the second strategy of isolating the protein so it can refold without aggregating to other proteins. The inside of the protein has a wall of hydrophobic side chains so that the protein unfolds and then switches to hydrophilic side chains to refold the protein, where its then ready to release.

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22
Q

Describe how Hsp70 and Hsp60 work together.

A

Hsp7o is considered to be the first line of defense and if that doesn’t work in refolding the protein correctly Hsp70 passes the protein to Hsp60 for another try at refolding it.

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23
Q

How does a cell regulate protein activity?

A

Protein activity is regulated at different steps of gene expression:
Transcriptional regulation- regulates if gene is transcribed
Post-transcription regulation- regulates if mRNA is translated
Post-transcriptional regulation- regulates if protein is active
protein degradation- regulates if protein is degraded.

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24
Q

What is protein phosphorylation? What is the role of a kinase and phosphatase in protein phosphorylation? Why does phosphorylation influence protein activity?

A

Protein phosphorylation is the attachment of a phosphate group to amino acid side chain.
Kinase: adds phosphate group to protein
Phosphatase: removes phosphate group to protein
Phosphorylation influences protein activity because it can either decrease or increase activity (always changes protein function)

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25
Q

What happens to proteins that cannot fold properly?

A

Proteins that cannot fold properly after going through Hsp70 and Hsp60 will be degraded by the proteasome.

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26
Q

What is a proteasome? What is ubiquitin?

A

A proteasome is s multiprotein complex that degrades damaged proteins within a cell. “trash compactor of cells” it consists of a cap and central cylinder, which is where peptide bonds are broken into individual amino acids. Ubiquitin is a small protein that is attached to other proteins. The c-terminus gets connected to side chain of another amino acid and essentially tags the protein.

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27
Q

Describe the relationship between the proteasome and ubiquitin.

A

The ubiquitin tags proteins that are destined to be degraded and are sent to the proteasome.Three steps to protein degradation:
1. a ubiquitin is added to the protein
2. tagged protein for degradation enters through the proteasome cap
3. protein is degraded in proteasome cylinder and released (ubiquitin is cleaved off to be recycled)

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28
Q

Describe the functions of the E1, E2, and E3 enzymes in protein degradation.

A

These are activating enzymes which add specificity to the targeted protein.
E1: gets ubiquitin ready to be added to targeted protein
-takes free ubiquitin and forms a covalent bond.
E2: ubiquitin on E1 is transferred to E2 which adds more specificity.
E3: E2 then adds to E3 where it is specific enough to target a specific substrate.

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29
Q

How does a specific protein get tagged for degradation?

A

A protein gets tagged through the process of ubiquitylation. This is where ubiquitin gets added to the target protein with the help of ubiquitin-activating enzymes (E1, E2, and E3). Firstly ubiquitin gets added to the E1 enzyme and then gets transferred to the E2 enzyme and where it lastly binds to E3 ligase and the ubiquitin ligase adds ubiquitin to target protein. (done multiple times)

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30
Q

What is the difference between a whole cell lysate and cell lysate/cell homogenate?

A

-A whole cell lysate is a single cell suspension of desired cells (just a collection of cells)
-cell homogenate is the rupture of membrane to release all the components of the cell.

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31
Q

What is cell fractionation and why is it useful for scientific research?

A

Cell fractionation is when you spin the sample at different speeds to segregate different components of the cell, so the heaviest component (nucleus) will pellet first. It is useful in scientific research because it allows you to separate components of cells and do further research on them.

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32
Q

Describe how a GST tag and immunoprecipitation can be used to purify a specific protein from a cell lysate?

A

They can be used to purify a protein by creating a fusion protein to tag the protein and be able to “pluck” the protein out of the cell lysate. The tag that is used in cell fusion is the GST tag and is put through a column that has glutathione bounded to a medium so that GST can bind to it and the fusion protein becomes immobile. Whatever protein does not have the GST tag will flow through the column. After everything has gone through the column, free glutathione is added so that it binds to GST and free itself from the anchored medium.

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33
Q

What is Coomassie Blue? Why is it used in scientific research?

A

Coomassie blue is a stain that is used in SDS-PAGE to stain all proteins that are present. It is useful in scientific research because it helps visualize the protein and can show if your’e protein has been purified.

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34
Q

Describe the purpose of SDS and BME when performing SDS-PAGE.

A

SDS is a detergent that denatures proteins and coats the protein with a negative charge. BME is a reducing agent that eliminates disulfide bridges. This causes the protein to return to its primary structure which is important to perform the gel.

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35
Q

What is the purpose of a western blot? What is being analyzed when a western blot is used?

A

the western blot uses antibodies to detect specific protein on membrane. Western blot measures the amount of a specific protein.

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36
Q

Need to know the steps to perform a western blot.

A
  1. Use SDS-PAGE to separate the protein mixture in the sample
  2. Transfer the proteins from the gel to a membrane by using a strong electrical charge (antibodies can’t bind to proteins on gel)
  3. Primary binds to the target protein
  4. Secondary antibody binds to the primary antibody and makes the protein visual. (enzyme that sends signal)
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37
Q

Describe the purpose of SDS-PAGE, the membrane, and antibodies in a western blot.

A

The SDS-PAGE is to separate the proteins by size before transferring it to the membrane to see the amount of that protein. The membrane is so that the antibodies are able to bind to the proteins since they are unable to do so on the gel. Antibodies are to bind to a specific protein of interest and only show that protein on the western blot.

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38
Q

What is the difference between a primary and secondary antibody?

A

a primary antibody binds to the specific protein of interest on the membrane and the secondary antibody binds to the primary antibody to make the protein visible.

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39
Q

Need to be able to analyze western blots from scientific papers.

A

got it

40
Q

Need to be able to predict how samples will look in a Coomassie stain or western blot if given different experimental conditions.

A

got it

41
Q

Describe the general protein structure of an antibody. How many polypeptide chains are in an antibody? Are there only non-covalent bonds in antibody structure or are there covalent bonds too?

A

Antibodies are proteins composed of four polypeptide chains; two identical light chains and two identical heavy chains. they are connected with disulfide bonds (covalent bonds). Antibodies are in a Y shape.

42
Q

Does an antibody have a binding site? What is an antigen?

A

Antibodies do have antigen binding sites which are located at the ends of the light and heavy chains (variable regions). An antigen is a small protein that stimulates an immune response.

43
Q

What is the association between a B cell and an antibody?

A

B cells make antibodies that recognizes a specific antigen. When an antibody binds to the antigen, B cells are activated; B cells divide and antibodies are secreted.

44
Q

Why do antibodies help humans destroy microbes (bacteria and viruses)?

A

Antibodies bind to antigen and target them for destruction by immune cells. The antibodies bind to a foreign molecules so that the molecule is targeted for destruction. Antibody-antigen aggregates are ingested by phagocytic cells

45
Q

Describe the differences between monoclonal and polyclonal antibodies. How are they made? Why are myeloma cells used? What are the similarities and differences between making polyclonal and monoclonal antibodies?

A

-Monoclonal antibodies are purified from hybrid cells and are expensive since they are only able to bind to one antibody.
-hybrid cells (hybridomas) provide infinite supply of antibodies which is why myeloma cells are used
-Monoclonal antibodies have low variability between batches (ideal for drug treatment) and give consistent results.
-Polyclonal antibodies bind to different parts of the antigen and shows that they were produces by different cells.
Producing monoclonal antibodies:
1. Inject mouse with antigen to stimulate immune response
2. isolate activated B cells from spleen from mouse
3. Fuse B cells with myeloma cells (cancer cells) that will produce an infinite amount of B cells.
4. Identify which hybrid cells produce effective antibody (which antibody binds the tightest)

46
Q

Why are monoclonal antibodies ideal for drug treatment and scientific research?

A

They give consistent results and have low variability.

47
Q

Describe how immunoprecipitation can be used to assess protein-protein interactions.

A

Immunoprecipitation can be used to asses protein-protein interactions by gluing proteins together and adding antibodies to bind to our protein of interest and purifying that protein by centrifuge (spin and wash unwanted proteins). Then reverse cross-linking to release proteins from antibody which you can then perform SDS-PAGE with and can stain with Coomassie blue to see how many proteins were purified or do a western blot to give specific protein that is interacting with our protein of interest.

48
Q

What is the difference between a light and fluorescence microscope?

A

Light microscopes use a light source to view their sample and are not very detailed (can only really see organelles of a cell)
Fluourescence microscopes coat their specimen with electrons that emit a certain wavelength of light. Are much more detailed compared to the light microscope and light up only what they want to see while the rest of the stuff in the cell is black.

49
Q

Describe how a fluorescent label works in fluorescence microscopy using the terms emission, excitation, and absorbance.

A

Fluorescence labels are added to the protein in order for them to be visualized. Each fluorescence label has excitation and emission wavelengths, and would have to be activated in order for it to become visual. The absorption of photons take it to the excited state and the emission of photons take it to ground state (emission of photon at longer wavelength and decreased energy). The fluorescence microscope uses a light source and two different filters that allow specific wavelengths of light to pass through. The first filter allows wavelength 490 nm that will excite the FITC label. Second filter allows wavelength 520 nm to be emitted by the label do the specimen is visualized.

50
Q

How do we get fluorescent labels on specific proteins?

A

Fluorescent labels are added to proteins either through protein fusion or the use of antibodies.
-Fluorescent tags can be added to DNA sequence to create a fusion protein (GFP tag)
or with antibodies
-take cell and glue to glass slide
-incubate with primary antibody, which binds to specific protein
-secondary antibody bind to primary antibody for fluorescent label
Called immunofluorescence (the use of antibody with fluorescent dye to detect specific protein using fluorescence microscope.

51
Q

What is immunofluorescence? What is one purpose of immunofluorescence?

A

Immunofluorescence is when you use antibodies with fluorescence dye to detect specific proteins using fluorescence microscopy. Immunofluorescence provides information about location of protein and amount of protein in cell.

52
Q

What is a confocal microscope?

A

A confocal microscope is a fluorescence microscope that creates 3D images with a laser beam and computer. You build stacks of images at different focal planes and send images to computer that will combine them to make a 3D image.

53
Q

What is the major difference between an electron microscope and light/fluorescence microscopes?

A

An electron microscope does not use a light source to light its specimen, they coat their specimen with electrons that absorbs or scatters the electrons. Light/fluorescence microscopes use a light source to light their specimen which doesnt allow as much detail as would an electron microscope because of Abe’s defraction limit.

54
Q

What is the difference between a transmission electron microscope and a scanning electron microscope?

A

Transmission electron microscope creates a 2D image and can view very detailed structures of a cell. Scanning electron microscopes use beams to view only the surface of cells and structures in a 3D image.

55
Q

What is a major disadvantage of electron microscopy compared to light and fluorescence microscopy?

A

a major disadvantage to using the electron microscope is that the specimen being viewed is not live and takes a lot of steps of preparation.

56
Q

Need to be able to look at an image and determine if it was generated by a light microscope, fluorescence microscope, confocal microscope, transmission electron microscope, or scanning electron microscope.

A

got it

57
Q

What are some differences and similarities between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

A

Differences: eukaryotes contain organelles, are larger and more complex, and contain a nucleus.
Similarities: they both have DNA, ribosomes, cytoplasm, and a plasma membrane

58
Q

What is an organelle? Do prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have organelles?

A

An organelle is a membrane enclosed structure and can be considered a “little organ” that performs a specialized function. Only eukaryotes have organelles.

59
Q

Describe the nucleus, nuclear envelope, and nuclear pores.

A

Nucleus contains the DNA of the cell. A nuclear envelope is the membrane of a nucleus, which have two membranes; there’s the inner membrane in contact with the DNA and the outer-membrane in contact with the cytoplasm. Nuclear pores regulate entry into the nucleus (highly selective).

60
Q

Describe the association between the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and the nuclear envelope.

A

The membrane of ER are continuous with outer membrane of nuclear envelope. The ER starts at the nucleus.

61
Q

What are the functions of the ER? What is the difference between the rough and smooth ER?

A

The functions of the ER are to make proteins and lipids and modifies translated proteins. Smooth ER is important for lipid synthesis while rough ER is important for protein synthesis.

62
Q

Describe the association between the ER and the Golgi apparatus.

A

Proteins that are made in the ER are packaged into transport vesicles and sent to the golgi (enter through cis face) for them to be sorted and directed to specific locations.

63
Q

What is the function of the Golgi apparatus? What is the difference between the cis and trans faces of the Golgi apparatus?

A

The golgi modifies the proteins that are sent to them. Each stack has its own set of enzymes so each are responsible for individual set of modifications. Once the protein is finished being modified then it gets shipped to another location. The difference between cis face and trans face is that cis face is where the protein enters (closest to nucleus) and the trans face is where the protein exits once finished and is ready to be shipped to next location (facing the membrane).

64
Q

What is function of lysosomes?

A

lysosomes take macromolecules and breaks them down using hydrolytic enzymes into building blocks by hydrolysis to recycle.

65
Q

What is the difference between transport and secretory vesicles?

A

Transport vesicles: used to transport material between membrane enclosed organelles.
-can also transport material through endocytosis (outside to inside)
Secretory vesicles: from golgi used to release material at plasma membrane (exocytosis)
- have proteins that allow them to fuse with plasma membrane

66
Q

What is the purpose of plasma membrane?

A

To separate the cytosol and outside environment of the cell.

67
Q

What types of molecules can rapidly diffuse across the plasma membrane? What types of molecules diffuse slowly across the plasma membrane?

A

Rapidly diffuse: small, nonpolar molecules
slowly diffuse: small uncharged molecules and larger uncharged molecules

68
Q

How do molecules that diffuse slowly cross the plasma membrane without diffusion?

A

With the help of membrane proteins.

69
Q

What is a lipid bilayer?

A

A lipid bilayer is non polar, hydrophobic membrane composed of two layers of lipid molecules, cholesterol and other elements.

70
Q

The plasma membrane and internal membranes all have a lipid bilayer. How are these membranes different?

A

They are different because they can be composed of different phospholipids, which give the membranes slightly different functions.

71
Q

What is a fatty acid? Describe the chemical structure of a fatty acid and explain why it is an ideal component for a cell membrane.

A

A fatty acid is the building block of the plasma membrane.
-are amphipathic (hydrophilic polar head and hydrophobic non polar tail)
-consist of two fatty acid tails and one polar head
They are ideal for the cell membrane structure because the hydrophobic tails will naturally cluster together to avoid contact with water. This is energetically favorable.

72
Q

What is the association between a fatty acid and a phospholipid?

A

In a phospholipid there are fatty acid tails

73
Q

Why do phospholipids spontaneously form sealed compartments in water?

A

They do this because the hydrophobic tails want to avoid contact with water, so this cause them to cluster together.

74
Q

Explain how the chemical properties of phospholipids control membrane fluidity? How does cholesterol influence membrane fluidity?

A

There are no covalent bonds between phospholipids so they are free to move around. Lateral diffusion, rotation, and flexion gives the membrane fluidity.
close packing, long tail, saturated - less fluid
loose packing, short tail, unsaturated- more fluid
Cholesterol has the same structure as phospholipids so they are able to fill in the gaps that are mare by double bonds.
more cholesterol - less fluid
less cholesterol - more fluid

75
Q

What is the melting temperature of membrane (Tm)? How do phospholipids affect the Tm?

A

The melting temperature of the membrane is the temperature where the membrane goes from solid-like to fluid-like. Phospholipids can affect melting temperature by there fluidity. Saturated fats are solid at room temp and unsaturated fats are liquid at room temperature.

76
Q

Why is maintaining a fluid membrane important?

A

It is important to keep the membrane fluid at all times.
Important because:
-membrane proteins need to move to interact with other membrane proteins
-it allows for proteins and lipids to move from sites where they were inserted
-ensures membrane component are distributed evenly when the cell divides

77
Q

What are transmembrane proteins?

A

There are various types of membrane proteins that perform different functions. They transport ions and molecules that usually cant diffuse through the membrane. Transmembrane proteins extend through the lipid bilayer and are also amphipathic.

78
Q

What are the two challenges for transmembrane proteins that were discussed in class? How do they overcome these challenges?

A
  1. Many amino acids are hydrophilic (50%) and when were looking for a protein that goes through the bilayer we want a non polar hydrophobic amino acid (more stable)
  2. peptide bonds that connect amino acids in protein have polar bond, which makes them electronegative and puts a partial charge (not good)

the alpha helix structure fixes both of these issue with its straight line structure that only needs 20 amino acids to complete (not many) and the spiral allows for hydrogen bonding which neutralizes the partial charge.

79
Q

Need to be able to analyze hydrophobicity plots to gain insight into protein structure (cytosolic protein vs single-pass transmembrane protein vs multi-pass transmembrane protein).

A

need to do

80
Q

Need to know the following terms: glycosylation, glycolipid, and glycocalyx.

A

glycosylation: sugar is attached to another molecule (usually lipid or protein)
glycolipid: Sugar + lipid
glycocalyx: coat of sugar on the plasma membrane that protects cells against mechanical and chemical damage.

81
Q

Where does glycosylation occur? Describe how glycosylation is established and maintained as proteins and lipids go from Golgi, to transport vesicle, to plasma membrane.

A

is added in lumen of ER and Golgi; sugar chains are always present on non-cytosolic face of cell. Never touches the cytosol. Happens on non cytosolic side and stays on non cytosolic side.

82
Q

Where are phospholipids made in the cell?

A

they are made in the ER by enzymes located on cytosolic side of smooth ER.
grab fatty acid -> put into enzyme -> makes phospholipid

83
Q

How are newly made lipids inserted into a membrane?

A

enzymes insert new phospholipids only on the cytosolic side of ER membrane. Adds to monolayer.

84
Q

What is the function of scramblase? Which organelle contains scramblase?

A

Scramblase enzymes moves random phospholipids from one monolayer to the other.
-makes it symmetrical
-not energetically favorable
it is found in the ER

85
Q

What is the function of flippase? Which organelle contains flippase?

A

flippase enzymes move specific proteins from one monolayer to the other. They are found in the golgi.
-remains asymmetrical so that there is more function within itself

86
Q

Are plasma membranes symmetrical or asymmetrical in respect to phospholipids?

A

most cells are asymmetrical as it creates more function

87
Q

Describe how the ER and Golgi Apparatus work together to assemble membranes in a cell?

A

the ER makes the phospholipids and makes it symmetrical in the membrane so that there are no aggregates and then ships it to the golgi where they move specific phospholipids to the other bilayer.

88
Q

What are glycolipids? How is the orientation of glycolipids preserved during vesicular transport?

A

glycolipids are lipids + sugar. flippase do not transfer glycolipids to cytosolic face. They are protected from the cytosol when vesicles fuse with target membrane.

89
Q

What is the fluid mosaic model?

A

States that the plasma membrane is a collection of several types of molecules that are constantly moving.

90
Q

What is the difference between integral and peripheral proteins? How does this difference effect how they are analyzed in experiments?

A

Integral proteins are embedded in the lipid bilayer. Peripheral proteins are on the inner or outer surface of the lipid bilayer (covalently attached).
Peripheral membrane proteins have to be removed with high salts (easier to remove) while integral membrane proteins have to removed with detergents, which disrupts the cell membrane.

91
Q

What is the purpose of detergents?

A

Detergents completely destroys and disrupts cell membranes.
Two types:
1. ionic detergents (SDS) completely disrupts everything. denatures all proteins AND destroys membrane
2. non-ionic detergents (Triton X-100) disrupts membranes but does not denature proteins.

92
Q

What are some similarities between SDS and triton X-100? What are some differences?

A

They are both similar in that they destroy the cells membrane but SDS will also completely denature all proteins when triton X-100 does not.

93
Q

What types of strategies do cells use to restrict movement of membrane proteins? Need to provide an example for each strategy.

A

-Barriers- restrict membrane proteins to a particular region of the cell. Goes all the way around the cell.
ex: tight junctions : maintain separation of different membrane proteins. Makes sure that one type of protein is on the top of the cell and another type is at the bottom.
-Membrane proteins can attach to each other and form large aggregates on plasma membrane (transmembrane proteins bind to other proteins to restrict their movement).
-ex: integrins bind to ECM and cytoskeleton; helps anchor cells to ECM to build tissue.
-ex: cadherins: cell to cell adhesions

94
Q

What is the purpose of Fluorescence Recovery After Photobleaching (FRAP)?

A

It is a technique used to analyze the mobility of lipids and proteins in the plasma membrane.

95
Q

Describe how FRAP is performed.

A
  1. membrane proteins or lipids are tagged with fluorescence
  2. uses a laser to bleach a patch of the fluorescent dye
  3. monitor with a fluorescence microscope and takes various pictures during the recovery.
96
Q

Need to understand how to analyze data from a FRAP experiment.

A

got it