Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Diagnostic Imaging 2 > Exam 1- Spinal Trauma > Flashcards

Exam 1- Spinal Trauma Flashcards

1
Q

less than ___% of skull fractures are detected on xrays

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the best imaging to detect a skull fracture is ___

A

CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what type of skull fractures are the most common?

A

linear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

a fracture of the floor of the left orbit associated with orbital emphysema

A

blowout fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

fracture that involves separation of all three major attachments of the zygoma to the rest of the face

A

tripod fracture or zygomaticomaxillary fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

facial fracture involving the maxillary bone and surrounding structures

A

Le Fort fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

these fractures are common in facial trauma

A

Le Fort fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

blood gathers between the dura mater and the brain

A

subdural hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which subdural hematoma has a better prognosis, acute or chronic?

A

chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

buildup of blood between the dura mater and the skull

A

epidural or extradural hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

epidural hematomas are present in __ to __% of head injuries

A

1 to 3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

__ to __% of epidural hematomas are fatal

A

15 to 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

the most common mechanism of injury for spinal trauma

A

flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

mechanism of injury for teardrop fracture

A

hyperflexion or hyperextension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

mechanism of injury for clay shovelers fracture

A

hyperflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

mechanism of injury for avulsion of the anterior tubercle of C1

A

hyperextension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

mechanism of injury for posterior arch fracture of C1

A

hyperextension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

mechanism of injury for hangman’s fracture

A

hyperextension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

mechanism of injury for lamina fracture

A

hyperextension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

mechanism of injury of dens fracture

A

hyperextension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

mechanism of injury for pillar fracture

A

hyperextension-rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

mechanism of injury for Jefferson’s/burst fracture

A

compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

aka burst fracture

A

Jefferson’s fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

mechanism of injury for unilateral fracture

A

lateral flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

mechanism of injury for fracture of lateral mass of C1

A

lateral flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

mechanism of injury of transverse process fracture

A

lateral flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

mechanism of injury for uncinate process fracture

A

lateral flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

most common locations for spinal trauma (3)

A

C1-C2
C5-C7
T12-L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

__ to __ % of spinal trauma result in spinal cord injuries

A

10 to 14%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

___% of cervical trauma result in neurological injury

A

40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

__% of thoracolumbar injuries result in neurological injury

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

within how many hours should you consider an incident traumatic?

A

24-48

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how many views are in a Davis series?

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

name the 7 views of the Davis series

A 
Lateral
APOM
AP cervical
left and right oblique
flexion
extension
swimmers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

stable or unstable? more than one column is disrupted

A

unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

stable or unstable? the middle column is disrupted

A

unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

if you find a spinal fracture what should you do?

A

refer to orthopedist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

if you find an old fracture what should you do?

A

determine if it is stable or unstable (i.e. flexion/extension views)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

at C2 the prevertebral space should be no more than __mm

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

at C3 and C4 the prevertebral space should be no more than __mm

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

at C6 the prevertebral space in adults should be no more than __mm

A

22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

at C6 the prevertebral space in kids under 15 should be no more than __mm

A

14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

name the 3 contour lines

A

anterior
posterior
spinolaminar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

contour lines are invalid until the patient is how old?

A

7 or 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

ADI in adults should be no more than __mm

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

ADI in kids should be no more than __mm

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

most common cause of laxity of the transverse atlantal ligament

A

rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

2nd most common cause of laxity of the transverse atlantal ligament

A

rhumatoid variants (AS, enteropathic, psoriatic, reactive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

how long does a spinal fracture generally take to heal?

A

3-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

vertebral body fractures heal more with ______, while arch fractures heal more with ______

A

fibrosis

callus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

most common fracture of the atlas

A

posterior arch fx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

T or F

posterior arch fractures are usually bilateral

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

ddx for posterior arch fracture

A

focal agenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

when is bilateral lateral mass offset normal?

A

in children up to 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

common or rare?

avulsion fracture of the anterior tubercle of atlas

A

rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

horizontal radiolucent line extending through the anterior tubercle

A

avulsion fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

does traumatic rupture of the transverse atlantal ligament happen often?

A

no, rarely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

T or F

if ADI is increased, upper cervical adjusting is contraindicated

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

in flexion atlas slides ______

A

forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

increased ADI is common in people with what genetic condition?

A

Down’s Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

if there is an increased ADI on neutral cervical films, or you suspect one what should you do next?

A

take flexion extension films

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is Steele’s Rule of Thirds

A

divides the ring of atlas in thirds
1/3 cord
1/3 odontoid
1/3 potential space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

T or F

anterior displacement of the atlas may be asymptomatic

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

are lateral mass fractures common?

A

no, very rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

are transverse process fractures common?

A

no, extremely rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

__ to __% of axis fractures are of the odontoid

A

40 to 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

most common type of odontoid fracture

A

type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what type of C2 fracture is at the base of the dens?

A

type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

2nd most common type of odontoid fracture

A

type 3

70
Q

type of odontoid fracture at the tip

A

type 1

71
Q

what percentage of odontoid fractures are type 1?

A

4

72
Q

what percentage of odontoid fractures are type 2?

A

66

73
Q

what percentage of odontoid fractures are type 3?

A

30

74
Q

stable or unstable?

type 1 odontoid fracture

A

stable

75
Q

stable or unstable?

type 2 odontoid fracture

A

unstable

76
Q

stable or unstable?

type 3 odontoid fracture

A

either

77
Q

which two odontoid fracture types heal well?

A

1 and 3

78
Q

nonunion is common in which odontoid fracture type?

A

2

79
Q

nonunion occurs in about __% of type 2 odontoid fractures

A

64

80
Q

ddx of type 2 odontoid fracture

A 
os odontoideum
mach effects (shadowing from other bones usually teeth)
81
Q

disruption of harris’ ring occurs in which type of odontoid fracture?

A

3

82
Q

at what age does the tip of the odontoid fuse?

A

5

83
Q

type 2 odontoid fracture is best seen on which view?

A

APOM

84
Q

T or F

most os odontoideum are old ununited dens fractures

A

true

85
Q

type 3 odontoid fractures are best seen on what view?

A

lateral

86
Q

oblique radiolucent line through the body of C2

A

type 3 odontoid fracture

87
Q

traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2

A

hangman’s fracture

88
Q

are hangman’s fractures common?

A

no, rare

89
Q

in compression fractures, there is preservation of ____ body height

A

posterior

90
Q

most common injury to the axial skeleton

A

compression fracture

91
Q

in this type of fracture there is evenly decreased body height

A

pathologic

92
Q

T or F

vertebral bodies regain height after healing from a fracture

A

false

93
Q

most common cause of a burst fracture

A

diving into shallow end of a pool

94
Q

the cord is largest at what levels?

A

C5-C6

95
Q

mechanism of injury for unilateral facet dislocation

A

flexion/rotation

96
Q

unilateral facet dislocation is seen on which view?

A

oblique

97
Q

bow tie sign is associated with ________

A

unilateral facet dislocation

98
Q

inverted hamburger sign is associated with _______

A

unilateral facet dislocation

99
Q

stable or unstable?

unilateral facet dislocation

A

relatively stable

100
Q

stable or unstable?

bilateral facet dislocation

A

unstable

101
Q

mechanism of injury for bilateral facet dislocation

A

hyperflexion

102
Q

bilateral facet dislocation most commonly occurs at what segments?

A

C4-C7

103
Q

most severe injury of the cervical spine

A

flexion teardrop fracture

104
Q

extension teardrop fractures usually occur at what segment?

A

C2

105
Q

stable or unstable?

extension teardrop fracture

A

unstable

106
Q

flexion teardrop fractures usually occur at what segments?

A

C4, C5, C6

107
Q

aka clay shovelers fracture

A

root puller’s fracture

108
Q

spinous fracture at C6, C7 or T1

A

clay shoveler’s fracture

109
Q

clay shovelers fracture is most common at what segment?

A

C7

110
Q

2nd most common location for slay shovelers fracture

A

C6

111
Q

clay shovelers fracture is an avulsion fracture of the spinous due to torquing of what muscle?

A

trapezius

112
Q

double spinous sign indicates _______

A

clay shovelers fracture

113
Q

clay shovelers fractures occur at what part of the vertebra?

A

base of the spinous

114
Q

stable or unstable?

lamina fracture

A

stable

115
Q

flip for facts about pillar fractures!

A

not common
commonly missed
C4-C7
will not see on plain film, CT needed if one is suspected

116
Q

stable or unstable?

uncinate fracture

A

stable

117
Q

__% of thoracic and lumbar fractures occur between __ and __

A

T11 and L2

118
Q

most common fracture of thoracics and lumbars

A

compression

119
Q

3 common causes of compression fractures

A

osteoporosis
metastasis
mm

120
Q

osteoporotic fractures are more common after what age

A

50

121
Q

osteoporotic compression fractures are more common in which sex?

A

female

122
Q

increased kyphosis from compression fractures

A

dowager’s hump

123
Q

up to __% of bursting compression fractures cause cord injury

A

50

124
Q

widened intrapedicular distance indicates ______

A

bursting compression fracture

125
Q

aka lap belt fracture

A

chance fracture

126
Q

horizontal splitting of the arch and body

A

chance/lap belt fracture

127
Q

mechanism of injury for chance fracture

A

flexion distraction

128
Q

most common location for a chance/lap belt fracture

A

L1-L3

129
Q

empty vertebra sign indicates

A

chance/lap belt fracture

130
Q

T or F

with chance/lap belt fractures there are generally no neurologic signs

A

true

131
Q

transverse process fractures occur most often at what 2 levels

A

L2

L3

132
Q

flip for fun transverse process fracture facts!

A

direct: football
indirect: divers, gymnasts

133
Q

interruption of the pars

A

spondylolysis

134
Q

interruption of the pars with anterior displacement

A

sponylolisthesis

135
Q

spondylolisis without anterior displacement

A

prespondylolisthesis

136
Q

anteriority without pars defects

A

pseudospondylolisthesis

137
Q

there is a 40% prevalence of spondylolisthesis among alaskan eskimos

A

thats all

138
Q

T or F

sponylolisthesis can exist without pain

A

true

139
Q

displacement of spondylolisthesis is rare after age __

A

18

140
Q

most pars fractures occur at what age range? mechanism of injury?

A

8-12

repetitive hyperextension

141
Q

spondylolisthesis classifications 1-6

A 
I dysplastic (congenital)
II spondylolytic (isthmic)
III degenerative
IV traumatic
V pathological
VI post surgical
142
Q

T or F

congenital spondylolisthesis is rare

A

true

143
Q

T or F

congenital spondylolisthesis is never present at birth

A

true

144
Q

sponylolytic spondylolisthesis is most common at what vertebral level?

A

L5

145
Q

degenerative spondylolisthesis is most common at what vertebral level?

A

L4

146
Q

is degenerative spondylolisthesis more common in males or females?

A

females

147
Q

T or F

traumatic spondylolisthesis is rare

A

true

148
Q

most common type of traumatic spondylolisthesis

A

hangman’s fracture of C2

149
Q

name 3 causes of pathologic spondylolisthesis

A

metastasis
Paget’s
osteopetrosis

150
Q

aka post surgical

A

iatragenic

151
Q

spondylolisthesis is best detected by what line?

A

George’s

152
Q

most sacral fractures occur near what segments?

A

S3 S4

153
Q

T or F

you can bleed to death from a pelvic fracture

A

true

154
Q

coccygeal fractures are best seen on what view?

A

lateral

155
Q

most coccygeal fractures are ______in orientation

A

horizontal

156
Q

iliac wing fractures

A

duverney

157
Q

stable or unstable?

duverney fracture

A

stable

158
Q

stable or unstable?

ischopubic rami fracture

A

stable

159
Q

2 most common pelvic fractures

A 
ischiopubic rami fracture (40%)
malgaigne fracture (33%)
160
Q

ipsilateral double vertical shearing fx of superior and inferior pubic rami with fx or dislocation about the ipsilateral SI joint

A

malgaigne fracture

161
Q

what muscle is involved with an avulsion fracture of the ASIS?

A

sartorius

162
Q

what muscle is involved with avulsion fracture of the AIIS

A

rectus femoris

163
Q

what muscle(s) are involved with an avulsion fracture of the sichial tuberosity?

A

hamstrings

164
Q

which avulsion fracture of the pelvis is the most common?

A

ischial tuberosity (hamstrings)

165
Q

double vertical fracture of contralateral superior and inferior pubic rami

A

bucket-handle fracture

166
Q

stable or unstable?

bucket handle fracture

A

unstable

167
Q

bilateral superior and inferior rami fractures

A

straddle fracture

168
Q

stable or unstable?

straddle fracture

A

unstable

169
Q

aka sprung pelvis

A

open book fracture

170
Q

diastasis of pubic symphysis and one or both SI joints

A

sprung pelvis/open book fracture

171
Q

stable or unstable?

sprung pelvis/open book fracture

A

unstable

Diagnostic Imaging 2 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions