Exam 1 Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

-ol

A

Beta 2 agonist

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2
Q

-zoline

A

Alpha 1 selective agonists

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3
Q

-zosin

A

Alpha 1 selective antagonists

-high incidence of orthostatic hypotension (limited effect on reflex tachycardia)

doxa-pra-tera

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4
Q

Non-selective alpha blockers

A

phentolamine (OraVerse) - LA reversal/vasodilation

phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline) - Raynaud’s/vasodil.

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5
Q

-lol

A

beta 2 antagonists

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6
Q

Mixed Alpha/Beta Antagonists

A

labetolol

carvedilol: hypertensive emergency/cocaine OD

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7
Q

Non-selective beta antagonist

A

propranolol (high lipid solubility - BBB)

-Migraines, essential tremor, thyrotoxicosis, etc.

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8
Q

sotalol (Betaspace)

A

Non-selective beta blocker

class 3 K+ channel blocker

Anti-arrythmic

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9
Q

metoprolol

A

Beta 1 specific antagonist

-Most common prescription for A-Fib

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10
Q

timolol (Timoptic) vs. betaxolol (Kerlone)

A

timolol is non-selective beta antagonist

betaxolol is beta 1 selective antagonist

Both used for glaucoma patient (ciliary body)

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11
Q

-mab

A

Monoclonal antibody (seratonin

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12
Q

Fremanezumab

Galcanezumab

A

Attach to CGRP; migraine treatment

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13
Q

Erenumab

A

Blocks CGRP receptor; migraine treatment

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14
Q

ergonovine (Ergotrate)

A

post-partum hemhorrage control

alpha and seratonin stimulation

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15
Q

bromocriptine

A

Parkinson’s

Dopamime stimulation

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16
Q

ergotamine

A

migraine treatment

alpha vasoconstriction and seratonin stimulation

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17
Q

sumatriptan (Imititrex)

A

5-HT1B/D Seratonin agonists

  • prevent vasodilation (migraine treatment)
  • Seratonin Syndrome (life threatening) is treated with esmolol (a Beta 1 antagonist)
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18
Q

Sympathomimetic Antagonists

A

acebutolol

penbutalol

pindolol

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19
Q

For epinephrine, which receptors dominate at low doses?

A

Beta receptors

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20
Q

phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine)

A

Alpha 1 agonist

Main drug used for common cold (vasoconstriction to stop runny nose, etc)

21
Q

albuterol & terbutaline

A

Both Beta 2 selective agonists

Terbutaline is the exception to the -ol rule

22
Q

nebivolol

A

beta 1 specific antagonist

also nitric oxide - induced vasodilation

23
Q

Mixed Alpha and Beta Agonists

A

NE (Beta 1)

Epi

ephedrine

pseudoephedrine (Beta 2)

*Others have b1=b2 and all have a1=a2

24
Q

Beta 1 selective agonist

A

Dobutamine

25
Q

Alpha 2 selective agonists

A

clonidine

guanfacine

methyldopa

Precedex (sedation/intubation)

*All antihypertensives

26
Q

Opthalmic Agonists

A

Epi

hydroxyamphetamine (can’t cross BBB)

phenylephrine

27
Q

Thiazide diuretics

A

chlorthoalidone

hydrochlorothiazide

metolazone (Chronic Kidney Disease)

*Decrease everything except Ca++ (K, Na, Mg, Cl)

28
Q

Loop Diuretics

A

furosemide

torsemide

Decreased K, Na, Mg, and Cl

29
Q

Potassium Sparing Diuretics

A

Amiloride

Triamterene

Avert urinary loss of Mg to help correct hypokalemia

30
Q

Aldosterone Antagonists

A

Eplerenone

Spirolactone

Block aldosterone receptors in distal renal tubules; conserve K+ and H+ ions

31
Q

ACE Inhibitors

A

captopril

enalapril

fosinopril

lisinopril

  • Angioedema can be life threatening
  • Diminished bradykinin degr. = cough side effect
  • Increase vasodilation, decrease aldosterone, and decrease sodium retention
  • Increased K and Serum creatinine
  • Avoid in pregnancy (Fetal death)
32
Q

-pril

A

ACE inhibitors

33
Q

Angiotensin Receptor Blockers

A

Losartan

Valsartan

-Increased K and Serum creatinine

Avoid in pregnancy (Fetal death)

34
Q

-artan

A

ARBs (Angiotensin Receptor Blocker)

35
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers (non-dihydropryridine)

A

Verapamil

Diltazem

36
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers (Dihydropyridine)

A

amlodipine

nicardapine

nifedapine

*Gingival hyperplasia

37
Q

-pine

A

Ca++ channel blocker

38
Q

Which types of drugs have the potential side effect of postural/orthostatic hypertension?

A

Alpha 1 antagonists (doxa-pra-terazosin)

Alpha 2 agonists (clonidine/methyldopa/guanfacine)

Reserpine (Adrenergic Neuronal Blocking agent)

Hydralazine (direct vasodilator)

39
Q

Which of the following would put the person at highest risk for hypokalemia? What is the classification of each?

hydrochlorothiazide

furosemide

triamterene

bumetanide

A

Answer- hydrochlorothiazide: Thiazide diuretic

furosemide: Loop diuretic
triamterene: Potassium sparing diuretic
bumetanide: Loop diuretic

40
Q

Which medication is most likely to cause angioedema? What are their classifications?

Atenolol

Amlodapine

Lisinopril

Eplerenone

A

Atenolol: Beta 1 selective antagonist

Amlodapine: Ca++ channel blocker

Lisinopril: ACE Inhibitor

Eplerenone: Aldosterone Antagonist

41
Q

Which of the following drug(s) has the potential to cause an increase in heart rate? What are the classifications of each?

amlodopine

verapamil

hydralazine

terazosin

A

amlodopine: Ca++ channel blocker

verapamil: Non-dihydropyridine Ca channel blocker; ONLY ONE THAT DOESNT

hydralazine: direct vasodilator

terazosin: alpha 1 antagonist

42
Q

Which of the following has the side effect of gingival hyperplasia?

ACE Inhibitors

Ca++ channel blockers

Beta blockers

ARBs

A

Ca++ channel blockers

43
Q

JS is a 68 year old male with hypertension, CAD, COPD, hypothyroidism, and anxiety and comes in for a routine dental cleaning. He mentions that his COPD has worsened and he experienced shortness of breath throughout the day. Medications include: propranolol, aspirin, alorvastatin, tiotropium (Spiriva), albuterol, levothyroxine, and alprazolam (Xanax).

Is he on a medication that could be causing his shortness of breath?

A

Yes. The propranol is a beta 2 antagonist, which is directly antagonizing the beta 2 agonist (albuterol)

44
Q

JS is a 72 year old male with BPH and CAD. His current medications include: aspirin, rosuvastatin, doxazosin, nebivolol, and nitroglycerin. He visits your clinic today because he fell when getting out of bed this morning and broke one of his teeth.

Which medication may have contributed to his fall?

A

Doxazosin, an alpha 1 selective antagonist

nebivolol is a beta 2 selective antagonist

45
Q

The ROCK ON 53 trial was a double-blinded, placebo controlled study in 2600 patients with resistant hypertension assessing the efficacy of Dilatex daily or placebo. The primary endpoint was reduction in mean SBP after 24 months of treatment.

What phase trial is this?

What does double-blinded mean?

What does placebo-controlled mean?

A

Phase 3 trial

Double-blinded: neither the physician nor the patient knows which treatment they will be prescribing/receiving

Placebo controlled: There is a non-therapeutic option available to control the experiment and measure the effectiveness of the dependent treatment.

46
Q

What does this prescription mean?

Ibuprofen 800 mg po TID PRN dental pain

A

Ibuprofen 800 mg; taken orally; three times per day; take as needed for dental pain

47
Q

A 55-year old female underwent a surgical procedure in your dental clinic and experienced a reaction to anesthesia. She has persistent nausea and vomiting. The dentist would like to prescribe prometazine (Phenergen), a histamine 1 recepotr antagonist. What would be the best rout of administration? PO, PR, IM

A

Not IV because it causes severe tissue damage if administered too quickly

PO

48
Q

Warfarin is metabolized in the liver by CYP450 2C9 and 3A4. JS recently tested positive for a UTI. She was prescribed an antibiotic, BactrimDS. This drug is a potent enzyme inhibitor of CYP4502C9. She calls your office again because her gums are bleeding again. How should this be addressed?

A

Prescribe an alternative antibiotic that doesn’t affect the metabolism of warfarin (amoxicillin)