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Biology 302 > Exam 1 Review > Flashcards

Exam 1 Review Flashcards

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1
Q

How large is a typical mammalian cell?

A

20um in diameter

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2
Q

How many microns are in 1 millimeter?

A

1000

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3
Q

How many nanometers are in 1 micron?

A

1000

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4
Q

What is a model system?

A

A non-human species that is extensively studied to understand particular biological phenomena

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5
Q

What is special about a model organism?

A

All genomes are sequenced

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6
Q

What are some examples of model organisms?

A 
E. coli
Brewer's Yeast
Fission Yeast
Arabidopsis Thailand
Drosophila melanogaster
C elegans
Zebrafish
Mice
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7
Q

How are E. coli used as model organisms?

A

They rapidly reproduce. Used to explore transcription/translation machinery

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8
Q

How is Brewer’s Yeast used as a model organism?

A

Used to explore development of cell polarity, responses to environment

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9
Q

How is Fission Yeast used as a model organism?

A

Used to identify cell cycle proteins, can do RNA interference (Brewer’s cannot)

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10
Q

How is Arabidopsis Thaliana used as a model organism?

A

Important for world nutrition, disease resistance, used to study plant development

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11
Q

How is Drosophila melanogaster used as a model organism?

A

To study development, genetic control of body patterning

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12
Q

How is C elegans used as a model organism?

A

All 959 cells are identified and “fate mapped,” meaning their origins are known. Used to study cell differentiation

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13
Q

How are zebrafish used as model organisms?

A

Transparent embryos useful for studying development, develop outside of mother, rapid development

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14
Q

How are mice used as model organisms?

A

Closer to human physiology, many genes are almost identical

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15
Q

What is the definition of resolution?

A

Visualizing 2 points of light as separate entities

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16
Q

What kind of microscopy allows for higher resolution?

A

Superresolution

  1. Structured Illumination microscopy
  2. Stimulated Emission Depletion (STED) microscopy
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17
Q

Describe the concept of resolution in the context of a high resolution microscope

A

A high resolution microscope distinguishes 2 points of light that are close together as 2 separate entities. The higher the resolution, the closer the points of light can be to one another

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18
Q

Which has a higher resolution: an electron microscope or a light microscope?

A

Electron microscope

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19
Q

What is the main difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

A

Prokaryotes do not compartmentalize components into membrane-bounded organelles

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20
Q

Where is most of the cell’s DNA contained?

A

The nucleus

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21
Q

What is the genetic material?

A

DNA

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22
Q

The nucleus is enclosed by (single, double) membrane

A

Double. Nuclear envelope

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23
Q

What is the component of the cell that encloses the cell and separates the inside of the cell from the outside of the cell?

A

Plasma membrane

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24
Q

What does the plasma membrane consist of ?

A

A lipid bilayer, which contains sterols and proteins

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25
Q

T/F: The plasma membrane is inflexible

A

False. The plasma membrane can be very flexible

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26
Q

What is the difference between cytoplasm and cytosol?

A

Cytoplasm: Contents of a cell that are contained within its plasma membrane but outside of the nucleus
Cytosol: Contents of the main compartment of the cytoplasm, excluding the membrane-bounded organelles

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27
Q

What is the function of the endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Produces materials for export. Involved in synthesis and modification of proteins and lipids – rough and smooth forms.

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28
Q

What is the function of rough endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Synthesis of proteins

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29
Q

What is the function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Membrane synthesis

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30
Q

What is the purpose of the Golgi apparatus?

A

Receives molecules from the ER (cis side), modifies them, then directs them to exterior of the cell (plasma membrane) or other cellular compartments (trans side)

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31
Q

________ of proteins also occurs in the Golgi apparatus.

A

Glycosylation

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32
Q

What is the function of the mitochondria?

A

Generate chemical energy for the cell by oxidizing food molecules such as sugars to produce ATP

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33
Q

Mitochondria consume _____ and release _____.

A

Oxygen, carbon dioxide (cellular respiration)

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34
Q

The mitochondria is enclosed by (1,2,3,etc.) membranes.

A
  1. An inner and outer. The inner is highly folded.
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35
Q

What is a chloroplast?

A

A large, green organelle that contains chlorophyll. Performs photosynthesis

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36
Q

What happens to the sugars created by a chloroplast?

A

They are oxidized by the mitochondria to produce ATP

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37
Q

How many membranes are chloroplasts surrounded by?

A

2.

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38
Q

T/F. Chloroplasts contain their own DNA, and reproduce themselves by dividing.

A

True.

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39
Q

What is the Endosymbiotic Theory?

A

The theory that mitochondria and chloroplasts are derived from bacteria that were engulfed by ancestral eukaryotic cells

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40
Q

What is a lysosome?

A

A small organelle that contains hydrolases for the breakdown of materials

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41
Q

What is a peroxisome?

A

An important catabolic and detoxification organelle. Provide a contained environment for the generation and degradation of hydrogen peroxide.

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42
Q

What is the cytoskeleton?

A

Molecules within the cytoplasm that give a cell structure. These molecules are polymers that can undergo polymerization or depolymerization

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43
Q

What is actin?

A

The thinner filaments are made of actin (microfilaments)

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44
Q

What is a covalent bond?

A

A bond in which electrons are shared between 2 atoms

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45
Q

When electrons are shared unequally, the bond is said to be a _______.

A

Polar covalent bond

46
Q

What is an ionic bond?

A

A bond in which one atom steals electrons from another. Atoms are held together by ionic bonds are called salts rather than molecules

47
Q

Which kinds of bonds are affected by water?

A

Ionic bonding and hydrogen bonding (really any non covalent bond)

48
Q

What kind of bond is the strongest?

A

Covalent bond

49
Q

If Cl steals electrons from Na, Cl becomes the _____ and Na becomes the _____. Both are ______.

A

Anion, cation, ions

50
Q

How are atoms held together by ionic bonds held together?

A

By electrostatic forces. The charges are thus balanced

51
Q

How can you measure the strength of the bond?

A

Measure the amount of energy that must be supplied to break the bond (kcal/mol)

52
Q

What is an activated carrier molecule?

A

Molecules that can be split (C → A + B) to release free energy, but only if there is an excess of C relative to its equilibrium concentration.

53
Q

What are some key activated carrier molecules?

A

ATP, GTP, NADH, FADH2, and NADPH

54
Q

What is a catabolic reaction?

A

A reaction typically used to release energy to drive a chemical reaction. Think breakdown. Hydrolysis reactions are catabolic.

55
Q

What is an anabolic reaction?

A

Usually requires energy. Anabolic reactions build new molecules and/or store energy. Think building. Condensation reactions are anabolic

56
Q

All reactions that make or break covalent bonds require _______.

A

Catalysts (enzymes)

57
Q

What are the 2 major kinds of pathways in a cell?

A

Catabolic and anabolic.

58
Q

According to the 2nd Law of Thermodynamics, what kind of events generate an increase in disorder?

A

Spontaneous

59
Q

A measure of a systems disorder is called its _____

A

Entropy

60
Q

Spontaneous reactions are energetically (favorable/unfavorable)

A

Favorable

61
Q

In a spontaneous reaction, the reactants have (more/less) energy than products

A

More energy. More order. Negative ΔG

62
Q

In a spontaneous reaction, energy is (released/absorbed) by the system, and disorder (increases, decreases) in the system

A

Released, Increases

63
Q

Non-spontaneous reactions are energetically (favorable/unfavorable)

A

Unfavorable

64
Q

In a non-spontaneous reaction, the reactants have (more/less) energy than products

A

Less energy. Less order.

Positive ΔG.

65
Q

In a non-spontaneous reaction, energy is (released/absorbed) and disorder (increases, decreases)

A

Absorbed, decreases (against the 2nd Law)

66
Q

How can an energetically unfavorable reaction occur?

A

If it is coupled to a spontaneous reaction. The overall ΔG must be negative for the combined reactions

67
Q

How are chemical reactions coupled?

A

Using high-energy intermediates called activated carrier molecules (ATP carries a high energy phosphate group, NADH and NADPH carry high energy electrons)

68
Q

What is a phosphate group?

A

-PO3 2-

69
Q

What is an amino group?

A

NH2

70
Q

Give a description for the primary level of protein structure.

A

Protein shape is specified by the sequence of amino acids because of their R groups. Each polypeptide folds in a characteristic way

71
Q

Give a description for the secondary level of protein structure.

A

Alpha helices and beta sheets

72
Q

What is significant about an alpha helix?

A

It is a good structure for crossing through a membrane

73
Q

What is significant about a beta sheet?

A

R groups alternately project above or below the sheet. This gives the 2 surfaces different characteristics

74
Q

Give a description of the tertiary level of protein structure

A

The 3-D structure

75
Q

Give a description of the quaternary level of protein structure

A

Proteins formed by interactions between more than 1 polypeptide

76
Q

What is an example of a tertiary structure?

A

A coiled-coil: intertwined alpha helices that form a stable structure

77
Q

Define protein denaturation.

A

A process in which proteins unfold

78
Q

In what situations can proteins renature?

A

After the denaturing “agent” is removed

79
Q

Some proteins require helpers to fold – these are called ______.

A

Chaperones

80
Q

What kind of proteins protect other proteins from heat denaturation?

A

Heat shock proteins

81
Q

How can an alpha helix cross a membrane?

A

The helical structure can satisfy all backbone hydrogen-bonds internally, leaving no polar groups exposed to the membrane if the sidechains are hydrophobic

82
Q

What is a protein domain?

A

Another level of protein organization. A distinct functional or structural unit in a protein that is responsible for a particular interaction

83
Q

Individual domains are often associated with?

A

A particular function

84
Q

T/F: Different proteins must have different domains.

A

False. Proteins can have similar domains

85
Q

What are the subunits of proteins?

A

Amino acids.

86
Q

What is the name of the bond between amino acids?

A

Peptide bonds

87
Q

What is the monomer of nucleic acid (DNA, RNA, etc)?

A

Nucleic acids

88
Q

What is the name of the bond between nucleotides?

A

Phosphodiester bond

89
Q

What are the 3 amino acids that are most frequently phosphorylated?

A

Serine, Threonine, Tyrosine

90
Q

Proteins work by binding to other molecules – these are called ______.

A

Ligands

91
Q

What is a ligand?

A

A substance that binds to a protein, especially if it regulates the protein

92
Q

Ligands fit (loosely, precisely) into a binding site so that many (covalent, non-covalent) bonds can form

A

Precisely, non-covalent

93
Q

What creates a ligand binding “pocket” in the protein surface?

A

Polypeptide folding

94
Q

A protein often has ______ which can bind different _____.

A

Domains, ligands

95
Q

What are the 2 kinds of ligand interaction kinetics?

A

Long-lived (high affinity)
Ex) Ligand-receptor interactions
Transient (low affinity)
Ex) Ligand-enzyme interactions

96
Q

Ligands can also be ______ of protein activity.

A

Inhibitors

97
Q

Describe how ligands are used in feedback inhibition.

A

The final product of a pathway inhibits “upstream” allosteric enzyme. Ligand binding changes the enzymes’s shape, which inactivates it to stop the reaction

98
Q

Which nucleotide is the most widely used energy carrier?

A

ATP

99
Q

How is ATP generated?

A

Generated from ADP by an energetically unfavorable reaction. A phosphate group is added to ADP, catalyzed by a kinase or another enzyme called ATP synthase

100
Q

What is ATP synthase?

A

A giant complex in the mitochondria that converts ADP to ATP. Potential energy of proton gradient that drives the motor → mechanical energy of rotation/friction → chemical bond energy

101
Q

How does ATP synthase convert ADP to ATP?

A

Using a proton gradient to drive a mechanical turbine

102
Q

Where do protons get pumped to make the gradient which drives ATP synthase?

A

Between the inner and outer membrane

103
Q

Where is ATP synthase located?

A

On the inner mitochondrial membrane

104
Q

Where is the electron transport chain located?

A

Inside the outer mitochondrial membrane

105
Q

How can you identify where the R group is on an amino acid?

A

All amino acids have an amine group (NH2) and a carboxyl group (COOH). The other part is the R group (not usually the hydrogen though)

106
Q

How can you identify a peptide bond?

A

Occurs between amino acids (monomer of protein). Occurs between amine group and carboxyl group.

107
Q

Nucleotides are covalently linked by __________ bonds creating a _________.

A

Phosphodiester, sugar-phosphate backbone

108
Q

Each DNA strand has what?

A

Polarity

109
Q

Phosphate at one end attached to the (5’, 3’) carbon of the sugar.

A

5’

110
Q

OH group at the other end attached to the (5’,3’) carbon of the sugar

A

3’

Biology 302 (1 decks)

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