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Embryo - Exam I > Exam 1 Review > Flashcards

Exam 1 Review Flashcards

1
Q

determination

A

process by which a cell or part of an embyro becomes restricted to a given developmental pathway. (no longer pleuripotent)

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2
Q

differentiation

A

complex of changes involved in progressive specialization of structure and function, often resulting in the formation of luxury molecules

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3
Q

growth

A

permanent increase in mass; hyperplasia = increase in cell number; hypertrophy = increase in cell size

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4
Q

morphogenesis

A

generation of form or assumption of new shape

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5
Q

induction

A

an effect one embryonic tissue (inductor) has on another (responder) such that the development course of the responding tissue is qualitatively changed from what it would have been in the absence of the inductor.

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6
Q

integration

A

process by which different tissues are brought together and combined to form organs and tissues

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7
Q

following fertilization, when do primordial germ cells 1st appear?

A

24 days after fertilization; found in endodermal layer of yolk sac

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8
Q

migration route of PGCs into developing gonads from yolk sac

A

yolk sac –> hindgut epithelium; through dorsal mes; into developing gonads

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9
Q

aneuploidy

A

abnormal number of chromosomes; monosomy/trisomy; could be a result of non disjunction

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10
Q

euploidy

A

changes in the number of complete sets of chromosomes; mono- di- and polyploidy

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11
Q

leptotene

A

2 chromatids; begin to coil

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12
Q

what is the genetic make up during prophase I?

A

2n, 4c

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13
Q

when does the synaptonemal complex form?

A

zygotene

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14
Q

pachytene

A

max coiling; tetrads; cross over begins

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15
Q

when are the chiasma well defined?

A

diplotene

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16
Q

diakinesis

A

cross over complete; terminalization; spindle app in place; nuclear membrane disrupted

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17
Q

metaphase I

A

tetrads line up along equatorial plate; centromeres don’t divide

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18
Q

when do homologs move to opposite poles?

A

anaphase I

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19
Q

telophase I

A

cytokenesis; nuclear membrane forms; spindle app disassembles; chromosomes recoil

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20
Q

genetic make up during prophase II

A

1n, 2c

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21
Q

prophase II

A

chromosomes condense; nuc. membranes dissapear; spindle app reforms; haploid

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22
Q

when is the second time that chromosomes line up on the equatorial plate?

A

metaphase II

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23
Q

anaphase II

A

centromeres divide; chromosomes move to opposite poles; chromosomes have 1 chromatid

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24
Q

telophase II

A

chromosomes uncoil; cytokenesis complete; nuc. membrane refroms

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25
Q

what is the result of meiosis?

A

increase in cell numbers (sometimes); non-identical daughter cells (4); daughter cells haploid

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26
Q

how does the number of oocytes change from early development to puberty?

A

7 million at embryonic midterm, 2million remain at birth, 40,000 survive to puberty, 400 will be ovulated

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27
Q

what factors lead to meiotic arrest at the diplotene stage?

A

increased concentration of cAMP inactivates MPF and leads to meiotic arrest

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28
Q

what maintains increased concentration of cAMP?

A

cGMP inactivates phosphodiesterase 3A which prevents cAMP –> 5’ AMP

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29
Q

role of circulating FSH

A

stimulates granulosa cells to produce estrogen

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30
Q

what causes meiosis to resume the first time?

A

LH surge by shutting down gap junctions b/w granulosa cells and oocyte

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31
Q

aromatase

A

converts testosterone to b-estradiol

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32
Q

B-estradiol / estrogens

A

stimulate formation of LH receptors on granulosa cells

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33
Q

what do LH receptors secrete?

A

testosterone

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34
Q

when does ovulation occur in the ovarian cycle?

A

day 14 of ovarian cycle

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35
Q

what is the stimulus for ovulation?

A

rise in levels of FSH and sharp rise in LH

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36
Q

what components of the graafian follicle form the corpus luteum?

A

residual theca and granulosa cells proliferate and form a large glandular strucutre called the corpus luteum

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37
Q

fate of corpus luteum in absence of fertiliation?

A

regresses and tissue is replaced by corpus albicans

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38
Q

proliferation phase of endometrial cycle

A

thickness increases by day 14; blood vessels and glands grow; due to an increase in estradiol secreted by granulosa cells

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39
Q

secretory phase of endometrial cycle

A

levels of estrogen decrease and endometrial growth stops; mucous glands begin secretion; spiral arterioles expand; controlled by rising levels of progesterone secreted by granulosa and thecal cells

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40
Q

describe graafian follicle immediately prior to ovulation

A

mature; oocyte arrested in diplotene of prophase I; expansion of follicle by LH FSH; completion of meiosis I; 2nd arrest at metaphase II; formation of stigma

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41
Q

fertilization age

A

age of embryo from time of fertilization

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42
Q

menstrual age

A

age of embryo from start of mother’s last mentrual period. 2 weeks greater than fert. age

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43
Q

what hormone is necessary for the egg rapid transport through the isthmus?

A

progesterone

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44
Q

what contributions are made to semen by the seminal vesicles?

A

fructose and prostaglandins

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45
Q

what contributions are made to semen by the prostate glands?

A

citric acid, Zn, Mg, phosphatases

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46
Q

what is the optimal pH for sperm motilit?

A

6 - 6.5

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47
Q

what is the pH of the upper vagina?

A

4.3 -> 7.2 (buffered by seminal fluid)

48
Q

what is the pH of the cervix?

A

optimal

49
Q

where does fertilization occur?

A

ampulla

50
Q

what is the purpose of capacitation?

A

required for sperm to undergo acrosomal rxn

51
Q

where does capacitation occur?

A

inside uterine tube in isthmus

52
Q

explain how sperm penetrates corona radiata

A

sperm and acrosome fuse; its membrane fragments release hyaluronidase that breaks down HA in the intracell matrix b/w corona radiata cells; swimming movements help also

53
Q

what is the function of ZP3?

A

mediates attachment of the sperm to the XP and stimulates the acrosomal rxn

54
Q

fast block to polyspermy

A

rapid depolarization of plasmalemma; -70 to +10mV w/i 2-3 seconds; prevents poly spermy and allows time for slow block

55
Q

slow block to polyspermy

A

release of polysaccharides from cortical granules; polysaccharide enters perivitelline space and become hydrated; produces a swelling that increases width of space

56
Q

role of phospholipase C zeta in metabolic activation of egg

A

introduced by sperm causing release of Ca+ in egg cytoplasm which initiates blocks to polyspermy, stimulates increase in egg respiration and metabolism

57
Q

pronucleus

A

nuclear material of the head of the spermatozoan or oocyte after oocyte has been penetrated by sperm; normally carries haploid chromosomes

58
Q

zygote

A

single-celled stage at which male and female pronuclei have fused together and share a common membrane, establishing the diploid chromosome

59
Q

trophoblast

A

forms extraembryonic strucutres including placenta

60
Q

ICM

A

forms embryo proper plus some extraembryonic strucutres (yolk sac and amnion); embryonic pole = pole where ICM is located

61
Q

genetic control in invertebrates and non-mammals

A

early cleavage control is through gene products transcribed form maternal genome

62
Q

genetic control in mammals

A

maternal gene products are produced but degreaded by 2 cells stage; by 4 cell stage, most transcription is via the embryonic genome

63
Q

Cdx-2 role in differentiation

A

essential for trophoblast cell differentiation; antagonist toward Oct-4

64
Q

Oct-4 role in differentiation

A

expressed in developing oocytes and zygote; required to permit cleavage to proceed to 2 cell stage; in all morulas

65
Q

Nanog role in differentiation

A

produced by inner cells in late morula stage; maintains integretiy of ICM w/ Oct-4

66
Q

what is the differentiation of ICM w/o Nanog

A

ICM–> endoderm

67
Q

differentiation of ICM w/0 Oct-4

A

ICM–> trophoblast

68
Q

Sox-2 role in differentiation

A

1st expressed in 8 cell stage; w/ Oct-4, helps control regulation of genes involved in differentiation

69
Q

genomic imprinting

A

differential gene expression depending on whether a chromosome is inherited by the male or female parent; refers to the observation that expression of certain genes derived from the egg differs from the expression of the same genes derived from the sperm; due to DNA methylation differences in sperm/egg

70
Q

prader willi

A

small hands and feet, short stature, poor sexual development, mental retardation, big apetide; mutation is always inherited from father

71
Q

what chromosome is deleted in prader willi and angelman syndrome

A

long arm of chromosome 15

72
Q

angelman syndrome

A

frequent laughter, uncontrolled muscle movement, lg. mouth, unusual seizures; mutation is always inherited from mother

73
Q

what are barr bodies?

A

inactive X chromosome after X inactivation by Xist

74
Q

regulation

A

ability of embryo to compensate for removal of structures or addition of strucutres; cells aren’t fized, can respond to environmental cues

75
Q

dizygotic twins

A

fraternal; fertilized from 2 different eggs

76
Q

monozygotic twins

A

identical; 1 fertilzed egg; basis of conjoined twins

77
Q

what’s Bateson’s Rule?

A

when duplicated strucutures are joined during critical developmental stage 1 stucuture is the mirror image of the other

78
Q

ZP

A

surrounds developing embryo until it reaches the uterus and shedding is acomplished through blastocyts hatching

79
Q

what is blastocyst hatching?

A

small region of ZP dissolved and blastocyste emerges from hole

80
Q

where do ectopic pregnancies most commonly occur?

A

ampullary (54%)

81
Q

homeodomain

A

highly conserved region of 60 aa; helix loop helix

82
Q

homeobox

A

180 nucleotides in the gene that encode the homeodomain

83
Q

Zn finger motif

A

have Zn bound to polypeptide chain that causes chain to form finger like projections that can be inserted into DNA helix

84
Q

what are 2 Zn finger domains

A

Sox: high mobility group domain that binds MINOR groove; include SRY
WT1: important for devpt. of embryonic kidney and adult kidney

85
Q

helix - loop - helix

A

short stretch of aas where 2 alpha helices are separated by an aa loop; involved in homodimerization or heterodimerization

86
Q

maternal effect genes aka egg polarity genes

A

establish dorsal-ventral and ant-post axes in fly

87
Q

dorsal-ventral egg polarity genes

A

dorsal, cactus, toll

88
Q

anterior posterior egg polarity genes

A

bicoid, nanos, hunchback

89
Q

segmentation genes

A

no genetic maternal effect b/c transcribed after fertiliation; regulated by bicoid and nanos proteins gradients

90
Q

three categories of segmentation genes

A

Gap genes; pair-rule genes; segment-polarity genes

91
Q

gap genes

A

delet adjacent segments - hunchback

92
Q

pair rule genes

A

delete same part of pattern in every other segment

93
Q

segment polarity genes

A

affect polarity of segment; patched, smoothened, wingless, hh, gooseberry

94
Q

homeotic genes

A

contian homeobox; determine the identiry of individual segment; products of homeotic genes activate other genes that encode segment-specifc characteristics

95
Q

TGF-B superfamily

A

consists of a large proregion and bioactive region; ex: BMP - inhibits other processes in embryo

96
Q

FGF family

A

interaction w/ heparan proteoglycans in receptor complex; regulation at membrane of responding cell via transmembrane proteins; regulated heavily

97
Q

Hedgehog family

A

related to segment polarity molecule in Dros.; include desert, indian, shh

98
Q

Wnt family

A

related to seg. polarity genes; interacts w/ components of extracellular matrix; plays different roles in various vert. classes

99
Q

lateral inhibition

A

dominant cell expressed delta signaling molecules on its cell membrane; delta binds to notch receptors on neighboring cells and represses their genes

100
Q

role of nanog in establishment of epiblast and hypoblast

A

early expression of Nanog from ICM = determined to become epiblast

101
Q

role of gata 6 in establishment of epibast/hypoblast

A

cells entering ICM later express Gata-6 and are destined to become hypoblast cells - may be induced by FGF-4 secretion

102
Q

what roles might Wnt and TGF-B play in the formation of the primitive streak?

A

possibly induce it

103
Q

what are the 3 classical molecular markers expressed by nodal cells?

A

nodal, goosecoid, foxa-2

104
Q

what are the bottle cells and what’s their role in gastrulation

A

cells that assume a bottle shape due to microtubules and thrust themselved through primitve groove into space and become free = mesenchymal and will reform other layers (mesodermal layers)

105
Q

describe the role of E-cadherin and N cadherin in epithelial - mesenchymal transtion

A

before induction: ectoderm expresses E cadherin and N-CAM; after nueral tube induction: overlying ectoderm only expresses E cadherin; neural tube ectoderm only expresses N CAM and N cadherins

106
Q

cerebrus-like

A

originates from ant. visceral endoderm and inhibits development of posterior strucutres

107
Q

DKK-1

A

originates from ant. visceral endoderm; targets and blocks Wnt; inhibits development of posterior strucutres

108
Q

what 2 signaling molecules are responsible for blocking the development of posterior strucutres in early primitve streak?

A

Cerebrus like and DKK-1

109
Q

what are the effects of foxa-2 on the early primitive streak?

A

establishment of prim. node; initiates notochord funtion; establishes midline strucutres cranial to node

110
Q

in late primitive streak stage, what SM is necessary for normal head formation?

A

cerebrus-like 1

111
Q

in the late primitive streak, what signaling molecules released from primitive streak activate Hox genes?

A

RA; Wnt; FGF; Nodal;

112
Q

determination

A

process by which a cell or part of embryo becomes restricted to a given developmental pathway. The point at which a cells becomes committed to a specific cell line

113
Q

differentiation

A

a complex of change involved in the progressive specialization of strucutre and function; often resulting in the formation of luxury molecules

114
Q

what’s the first sign of asymmetry in early development?

A

beating of cilia around the primitive node

115
Q

roles of nodal and lefty-1 in asymmetyr

A

TGF-B molecules expressed due to directional current; nodal - symmetry breaking molecules in the left side of embryo; lefty - left side of primitive streak

Embryo - Exam I (14 decks)

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