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Movement Science > EXAM 1 REVIEW > Flashcards

EXAM 1 REVIEW Flashcards

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1
Q

what type of displacement is translation + rotation?

A

general motion

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2
Q

__ __: pushes or pulls arising from outside the body

A

external forces

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3
Q

__ __: forces that act on structures of the body and arise from within the body (muscles, ligaments, bones)

A

internal forces

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4
Q

what is the most consistent and influential force encountered by the body in posture and movement?

A

forces of gravity

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5
Q

When masses of two or more segments are combined, where is the new COM vector?

A

the new COM vector is between & in line with the original two COM vectors

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6
Q

COM in anatomical position?

A

anterior to S2

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7
Q

if there is acceleration, can there be equilibrium?

A

no

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8
Q

which of Newtons laws?

An object will continue in current motion until a force causes the speed or direction to change

A

Law of Inertia - Newton’s 1st law

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9
Q

which of Newtons laws?

Acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the unbalanced forces (Funbal) or torques (Tunbal) and inversely proportional to the mass or moment of inertia

A

Law of acceleration - Newton’s 2nd law

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10
Q

___ force systems: two or more forces work on the same segment in the same line

the resultant force is the sum of the magnitudes

A

linear force systems

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11
Q

___ force systems: two or more forces work on the same segment from different angles

solve for the parallelogram using trigonometric functions

A

concurrent force systems

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12
Q

which of Newton’s laws?

for every action, there is an opposite and equal reaction

two objects touching each other result in reaction forces (reaction forces are never part of the same force system because the forces are acting on different objects)

A

Law of Reaction - Newton’s 3rd law

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13
Q

when is the magnitude of friction force always the greatest?

A

just before the object moves - this results in a drop of friction once the object is moving

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14
Q

__ ___: two forces equal in magnitude, opposite in direction, parallel and applied to the same object at different points

A

force couple

always produce a moment of force = torque

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15
Q

torque equation?

A

torque = (Force)(moment arm)

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16
Q

___ force systems: when two or more forces applied to the same object are parallel to one another

A

parallel force systems

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17
Q

___ ___: a third force is added to a force couple resulting in rotary and translator equilibrium

A

bending moments

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18
Q

a ___ is any rigid segment that rotates around a fulcrum

A

lever

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19
Q

in a lever system, __ force is greater than the ___ force to produce rotation

A

effort, resistance

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20
Q

1st class lever system?

A

Axis is between EF and RF

either EA or RA could be bigger

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21
Q

2nd class lever system?

A

RF is between axis and EF

EF MA is larger

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22
Q

3rd class lever system?

A

EF is between axis and RF

RF MA is larger

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23
Q

example of 1st class lever?

A

tilting head back

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24
Q

example of 2nd class lever?

A

raising heel off ground

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25
Q

example of 3rd class lever?

A

flexing elbow

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26
Q

In 2nd class levers, is MAd greater or less than 1?

A

> 1

but LESS angular displacement and velocity is gained

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27
Q

In 1st and 3rd class levers, is MAd great or less than 1?

A

< 1

but MORE angular displacement and velocity is gained

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28
Q

Force resolution: Fy
- perpendicular or rotary component?
- translatory or rotary?

A

perpendicular

rotary

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29
Q

Force resolution: Fx
- perpendicular or rotary component?
- translatory or rotary?

A

parallel

translatory

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30
Q

the parallel component (Fx) is ___ than the perpendicular component (Fy) for most muscles

A

larger

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31
Q

fibrous joints = ___ joints = little or no movement allowed

A

synarthrosis

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32
Q

__ joint:
- bone edges interlock one another
- frontal and parietal bones of skull early in life

A

suture

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33
Q

___ joint:
- “peg in a hole” joint
- a tooth and either mandible or maxilla

A

gomphosis joint

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34
Q

_____:
- jointed by interosseous membrane
- radius and ulna; tibia and fibula

A

syndesmosis

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35
Q

cartilagenous joints: ___: allow for some movement

A

amphiarthrosis

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36
Q

3 examples of fibrous joints?

A

suture joint, gomphosis joint, syndesmosis

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37
Q

___:
- directly joined by fibrocartilage (discs or pads) and covered with hyaline cartilage
- intervertebral joints, symphysis pubis

A

symphysis

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38
Q

___:
- connected by hyaline cartilage
- first 7 ribs to sternum
- epiphyseal growth plates near ends of long bones

A

synchondrosis

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39
Q

___ joints: no connective tissue directly unites bony surfaces

A

synovial

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40
Q

synovial joints = ___ = free to move

A

diarthrosis

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41
Q

Joint receptor type?

  • stretch, usually at extremes of extension
A

Ruffini

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42
Q

joint receptor type?

  • compression or changes in hydrostatic pressure and joint movement
A

pacini

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43
Q

joint receptor type?

  • pressure and forceful joint motion into extremes of motion
A

golgi

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44
Q

joint receptor type?

  • non-noxious and noxious mechanical stress or biomechanical stress
A

unmyelinated free nerve endings

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45
Q

____ – viscosity of fluid and essential for lubrication; synovial folds

A

Hyaluronate

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46
Q

____ – cartilage on cartilage lubrication

A

Lubricin

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47
Q

Increased swelling during injury is a result of the disruption and/or activation of nutrients and waste products. What joint receptor do you think picks up the increased pressure and signals pain?

A

Pacini and/or unmyelinated free nerve endings

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48
Q

hinge joint = ___

A

uniaxial

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49
Q

pivot joint = ___

A

uniaxial

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50
Q

condyloid joint = ___

A

biaxial

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51
Q

saddle joint = ____

A

biaxial

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52
Q

plane joint = ____

A

triaxial

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53
Q

ball and socket joint = ____

A

triaxial

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54
Q

hinge joint example?

A

humeroulnar

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55
Q

pivot joint example?

A

proximal radioulnar joint

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56
Q

condyloid joint example?

A

radiocarpal joint

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57
Q

saddle joint example?

A

first carpometacarpal joint

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58
Q

plane joint example?

A

intercarpal joints

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59
Q

ball and socket joint example?

A

hip joint

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60
Q

what position?
- full congruence of surfaces
- usually extreme ROM
- capsule and ligaments are taut
- joint is compressed
- minimal distraction is available
- no further movement

A

close packed

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61
Q

what position?
- incongruent surfaces
- usually mid-position
- ligaments and capsule laxity (least restraint to passive movement)
- distraction available
- allows for spin, roll, glide
- maximal open packed position = rest position

A

loose packed

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62
Q

soft end feel - limited by?

A

approximation of soft tissues

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63
Q

firm end feel - limited by?

A

capsuloligamentous stuctures

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64
Q

hard end feel -limited by?

A

bone

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65
Q

type I collagen resists what force?

A

most tension

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66
Q

type II collagen resists what force?

A

compression

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67
Q

type III collagen resists what force?

A

tension

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68
Q

type __ collagen makes up 90% of collagen in body

A

I

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69
Q

Interfibrillar component of extracellular matrix:

__ and ___: attract water to increase rigidity of extracellular matrix to withstand compressive forces

A

proteoglycans and glycosaminoglycans

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70
Q

___ material: display the same mechanical behavior no matter the direction of force applied

A

isotropic

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71
Q

___ material: behave differently depending on the size and direction of applied force

A

anisotropic

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72
Q

___ region: laxity in tissue straightens

A

toe

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73
Q

__ region: returns to original shape and size after being deformed

A

elastic

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74
Q

___ point: point of no return

A

yield

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75
Q

___ region: residual deformation will be permanent

A

plastic

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76
Q

___ point: tear or break

A

failure

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77
Q

stress equation?

A

applied force/area

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78
Q

___: deformation in response to an externally applied load (%)

A

strain

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79
Q

strain equation?

A

(final length - original length)/original length

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80
Q

___: resistance offered by material to external loads; inverse relationship with compliance

A

stiffness

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81
Q

___ __: measurement of structures ability to withstand changes in length

A

youngs modulus

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82
Q

ligament: toe region: ___% strain

A

1-2

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83
Q

ligament: elastic region: ___% strain

A

4

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84
Q

__: tissue deformation gradually continues if force is maintained (ex. weight on an elastic band)

A

creep

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85
Q

___-___: as tissue is stretched to a fixed length, less force is required to maintain that length overtime

A

stress-relaxation

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86
Q

___-___ ___: tissue response varies based on load speed; if load is applied rapidly, tissue is stiffer. thus larger force required to deform tissue

A

strain-rate sensitivity

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87
Q

__ __: alpha motor neuron and all muscle fibers it innervates

A

motor unit

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88
Q

type ___ muscle fiber: fast oxidative glycolytic (intermediate)

A

IIA

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89
Q

type __ muscle fiber: fast glycolytic

A

IIB

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90
Q

amount a muscle fiber can shorten or lengthen is dependent on the number of ___

A

sarcomeres

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91
Q

Neural arch of vertebra: ____
- transmit forces from posterior elements to the vertebral body

A

pedicles

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92
Q

neural arch of vertebra:___
- transfer forces through pars interarticularis from the spinous and articular processes to pedicles

A

lamina

93
Q

neural arch of vertebra: __ __
- resist shear, compression, tensile and torsional forces
- transmists forces to laminae

A

articular processes

94
Q

neural arch of vertebra: __ __
- resists compression
- transmits forces to laminae

A

spinous processes

95
Q

nucleus pulposus = ___% water
annulus fibrosus = ___% water

A

80
60

96
Q

what kind of cartilage is vertebral endplate made of?

A

hyaline and fibrocartilage

97
Q

how much of the intervertebral disc is innervated? what nerve?

A

outer 1/3-1/2 of annulus fibrosis
sinuvertebral n

98
Q

spinal ligaments that resist flexion?

A

PLL
ligamentum flavum
interspinous ligament
supraspinous ligament

99
Q

Alar ligament: limits what movements?

A

ipsilateral lateral flexion
contralateral rotation

100
Q

where are ZAJ capsules strongest?

A

transition zones (cervicothoracic an thoracolumbar)

101
Q

ZAJ capsules resist what movement?

A

forward flexion and rotation

102
Q

___ of motion available depends on the size of the disks
___ of motion available depends on the orientation of the facets

A

amount
direction

103
Q

with axial compression what will be the first to fail?

A

cartilagenous end plates

104
Q

vertebra - what limits flexion?

A

post outer annulus, facet capsules, post ligaments, mm

105
Q

vertebra - what limits extension?

A

ant outer annulus, facet capsules, anterior ligaments, SP

106
Q

upper cervical vertebra?

A

C0-C2

107
Q

lower cervical vertebra?

A

C3-C7

108
Q

OA joint:
- occiput has ___ (convex/concave) condyles
- C1 (atlas) has ___ (convex/concave) superior facets
- function?

A

convex
concave
function = nodding the head on C1

109
Q

AA Joint:
- C1 inferior ___ (convex/concave) facets
- C2 superior ___ (convex/concave) facets
- major movement

A

convex
convex
rotation

110
Q

posterior atlanto-occipital and atlanto-axial ligaments = continuation of __ __

A

ligamentum flavum

111
Q

anterior atlanto-occipital and atlantoaxial ligaments = continuation of ___

A

ALL

112
Q

tectorial membrane = continuation of ____

A

PLL

113
Q

what ligament holds dens in close approximation to anterior C1?

  • dens will fracture before ligament tears
A

transverse ligament

114
Q

what are the “cruciate ligaments of the neck”?

A

alar ligaments

115
Q

alar ligaments location?

A

dens to occipital condyles and some fibers from dens to C1

116
Q

during axial rotation of the head, which side of alar ligaments tightens?

A

both

117
Q

Alar ligament: side bend to the R causes contralateral occipital fibers to become ___ and ipsilateral C1 fibers to become ___

A

taught
tight

118
Q

Rotation to the R causes C2 spinous process to move ___

A

L

119
Q

lower cervical: small cervical body with uncinate processes creates ___ joint type

A

saddle

120
Q

Lower cervical region:
- superior facets face superiorly and ___
- inferior facets face inferiorly and ___

A

posterior
anterior

121
Q

lower cervical discs are __ shaped with thicker end ___

A

crescent
anteriorly

122
Q

OA joint flexion/extension:
- ___ degrees available
- flexion: rolls ___, slides ___
- extension: rolls ___, slides ___

A

15-25 degrees
flexion: rolls anterior, slides posterior
extension: rolls posterior, slides anterior

123
Q

AA joint: ___% of cervical rotation

A

50

124
Q

upper cervical kinematics: lateral flexion and rotation coupling are ____

A

opposite

125
Q

upper cervical: lateral flexion coupled with ___ rotation; rotation coupled with ___ lateral flexion

A

contralateral, contralateral

126
Q

where in cervical spine is the greatest range of flexion and extension?

A

C5-C6

  • mechanical strain is the greatest
127
Q

Lower cervical:
lateral flexion coupled with ___ rotation; rotation coupled with ___ lateral flexion

A

ipsilateral, ipsilateral

128
Q

if pt looks down during rotation, upper or lower cervical limit?

A

upper

129
Q

thoracic vertebrae: wedge shaped with increased ___ height

A

posterior

130
Q

thoracic vertebrae: facet joints ___ degrees off frontal plane
- increases what movements?

A

20
Lateral flexion and rotation

  • lower thoracic start to decrease lateral flexion and rotation and increase flexion and extension
131
Q

what section of vertebrae have the smallest intervertebral disc ratio? (stability > mobility)

A

thoracic

132
Q

lateral flexion coupled with axial rotation - more in upper or lower thoracic?

A

upper

133
Q

thoracic vertebrae:
- posterior shift of ____ side with trunk rotation
- anterior shift of ____ side with trunk rotation

A

ipsilateral
contralateral

134
Q

transitional vertebra of thoracic?

A

T1 and T12

135
Q

transitional vertebra of lumbar?

A

L5

136
Q

lumbar ZAJ 1-4: ___ ___ at the superior facet for multifidus attachment

A

mammillary processes

137
Q

L5 vertebra:
- wedge shaped body, wider in ___, smaller SP
- inferior ZAJ are larger and wider apart, oriented more ____
- lumbosacral articulation and angle - varies based on position of pelvis and increased anterior pelvic tilt will increase shear stress

A

front
anterior

138
Q

lumbar:
- discs arranged in sheets called ____
- collagen fibers oriented in opposite directions at ____ degrees
- allows for resistance of ____ forces, many directions
- concavity ____ resists tension with forward flexion

A

lamellae
120
torsional
posteriorly

139
Q

supraspinous ligament terminates at ___ and blends with what?

A

L4
thoracolumbar fascia

140
Q

____ ligament:
- prevents anterior displacement on L5 due to shear forces and all movements of L5 on S1

A

iliolumbar

141
Q

Lumbar kinematics:
- flex/ext: tilt and slide occur in __ direction
- rotation: body tilt and slide translate ___; ipilateral ZAJ ___ and contralateral ZAJ ____
- lateral flexion: body tilt and slide translate ____

A

same
ipsilaterally; distracts, compresses
ipsilaterally

142
Q

explain lumbopelvic rhythm?

A
  • forward bending: lumbar flexion followed by anterior pelvic tilt
  • return to erect stance: posterior pelvic tilt followed by lumbar extension
143
Q

lumbar interbody joints bear about ___% of compressive forces and facets bear the rest

A

80%

  • change in body mechanics: increased lordosis or IDD causes ZAJ take on more load
144
Q

walking produces what amount of body weight on lumbar spine?

A

twice

145
Q

___ forces secondary to lordotic position

A

shear

146
Q

L4-5 bear ___% of shear forces at ZAJ

A

65%

  • increased shear loads = disc plays a more significant role
147
Q

ligament?

___: anterior = considered capsular
- posterior = PSIS, adjacent ilium and thoracolumbar fascia

A

sacroiliac

148
Q

ligament?
___: ischial spine to lateral sacrum/coccyx

A

sacrospinous

149
Q

ligament?

___: ischial tuberosity to posterior spine at ilia & lateral sacrum and coccyx

A

sacrotuberous

150
Q

ligament?

___: major bonds between sacrum and ilia - create a fibrous union

A

interosseous

151
Q

___: sacral base rotates anteriorly on fixed innominates

A

nutation

152
Q

___: sacral base rotates posteriorly on the fixed innominates

A

counternutation

153
Q

nutation resisted by what?

A

sacrotuberous, sacrospinous, anterior sacroiliac ligaments

154
Q

counternutation resisted by what?

A

long posterior sacroiliac lig

155
Q

trapezius function B and uni?

A

B: neck ext
uni: ipsi SB, contra rot

156
Q

levator scap function?

A
  • elevates and downwardly rotates scap
  • ipsi SB and ROT
  • resists lordotic position of the cervical spine
157
Q

splenius capitus & cervicis function?

A
  • large cross section and moment arm
  • B: ext
  • uni: ipsi rot
158
Q

semispinalis capitis and cervicis function?

A
  • ext and maintain lordosis
  • greater occipital N pierces through it
159
Q

longissimus captitis and cervicis function?

A
  • B: frontal plane stabilizers
  • uni: ipsi SB
  • poor extensor due to short moment arm
160
Q

suboccipital muscles function?

A
  • B: occipital ext
  • uni: ipsi ROT and SB of occiput on atlas
161
Q

scalene function?

A
  • anterior: B: flex, uni: ipsi SB and ROT
  • middle: primarily stabilize in frontal plane; uni: SB
  • posterior: uni: SB
162
Q

SCM function?

A
  • B: flex
  • uni: ipsi SB, contra ROT
163
Q

longus capitis and coli function?

A
  • can flex but better at providing compression/proprioceptive input
  • synergistically work to stabilize head with traps to allow distal contraction of traps on scapula
164
Q

rectus capitis anterior and lateral function?

A
  • B: flex
  • greater at proprioceptive input
165
Q

TLF connects to? surrounds?

A
  • lats, glute max, TA, obliques
  • erector spinae and mutlifidus
166
Q

erector spinae functions?

A
  • superficial: B -ext, uni - ipsi SB and ROT - eccentric control during standing flex
  • deep: create posterior compressive and shear forces to counteract anterior shear forces
167
Q

multifidus T spine and L spine functions?

A
  • t spine: contra ROT and local segmental control
  • L spine: ext, synergistic stabilizer w abdominals and local segmental control
168
Q

rotatores and intertransverarii functions?

A

ipsi SB, contra ROT, primarily a proprioceptive role

169
Q

quadratus lumborum function?

A

B: frontal plane stabilization
uni: ipsi SB

170
Q

rectus abdominus function?

A
  • B: flex trunk
  • uni: ipsi SB
171
Q

internal oblique function?

A

ipsi rot, ipsi SB

172
Q

external oblique function?

A

contra rot, ipsi SB

173
Q

psoas major function?

A

hip flex with spinal stabilization

  • tightness here can lead to anterior pelvic tilt which in turn increase compression and anterior shear
174
Q

squat lift: ___ disc pressure, ___ compressive forces

A

lower, higher

175
Q

stoop lift: increased ___ disc pressure

A

posterior

176
Q

effects of aging: discs lose ___ and __ content = decrease in height and decreases the ability of discs to transfer loads along vertebral chain

A

proteoglycans, water

177
Q

what is schmorls node?

A

when nuclear material prolapses into bone -usually from vertebral endplates unable to diffuse as well impairing disc health

178
Q

manubriosternal joint: at rib __ level, ossifies at about __ yo

A

2, 60

179
Q

xiphisternal joint ossifies at about ___ yo

A

40-45

180
Q

costovertebral and costotransverse attachments to thoracic spine are ____ joints

A

synovial

181
Q

rib ___ articulates with inferior fact of T5 nd superior facet of T6

A

6

182
Q

which ribs only articulate with one vertebra?

A

1, 10, 11, 12

183
Q

upper thorax (2-7) - pump handle action goes ___ diameter

A

A to P

184
Q

lower thorax (8-10) - bucket handle action goes ___ diameter

A

lateral

185
Q

primary muscles of ventilation?

A

diaphragm, intercostals, scalenes

186
Q

__% of infants diaphragm is fatigue resistant compared to 50% o in adult

A

20

187
Q

TMJ is considered a ____ joint - the articular disc separates the joint into two synovial cavities each with distinct movement patterns

A

ginglymoarthrodial

188
Q

coronoid process of mandible is attachment site for ___ muscle

A

temporalis

189
Q

inferior TM joint functions as a __ joint

A

hinge

190
Q

superior TM joint functions as a ___ joint

A

plane

191
Q

TMJ: ___ lamina allows disc to translate anteriorly by stretching (elastic)

A

superior

192
Q

TMJ: ____ lamina limits forward translation (inelastic)

A

inferior

193
Q

Anterior band of TM joint disc:
- thickness?
- where during translation?
- vacularity and innervation?
- attaches to ?

A
  • 2 mm
  • anterior to condyle during translation
  • minimal to no vascular or neural supply
  • attaches to joint capsule anteriorly
194
Q

intermediate zone of TM joint disc:
- thickness?
- where during translation?
- vacularity and innervation?
- attaches to ?

A
  • 1 mm thick
  • on top of condyle during translation
  • no vascular or neural supply
  • attaches to condyle medially and laterally
195
Q

posterior band of TM joint disc:
- thickness?
- where during translation?
- vacularity and innervation?
- attaches to ?

A
  • 3 mm thick
  • full mouth closure: 12:00 position
  • rich innervation and vascular supply from retrodiscal tissue
  • attaches to retrodiscal tissue which is attached to capsule
196
Q

TMJ:
- where is capsule strong? everywhere else is thin and loose

A

laterally

  • it is highly vascular and innervated
197
Q

ligaments of TM joint?

A
  • temoporomandibular ligament
  • stylomandibular
  • sphenomandibular
198
Q

TM ligament:
___: limits downward and posterior motion/rotation of mandible
___: resists posterior motion of condyle
___: resist lateral displacement

A

oblique
horizontal
both

199
Q

TMJ ligament:
___: weakest, may limit protrusion of jaw

A

stylomandibular

200
Q

TMJ ligament:
___: may prevent forward translation

A

sphenomandibular

201
Q

TMJ: normal depression ROM?

A

40-50 mm
2 fingers functional, 3 fingers normal

202
Q

TMJ translation and rotation of depression (opening):
- 1st rotation: ___ mm anterior rotation of condyle on disc -> posterior roll of mandible
- 2nd translation: both condyle and disc anterior and inferior -> ___ slide of condyle

A

11-25
anterior

203
Q

protrusion: bilateral lamina stretch ___mm to allow complete motion

A

6-9

204
Q

retrustion: translation posteriorly about ___ mm

A

3

205
Q

__ is an important component of mandibular elevation from maximally depressed mandible

A

retrusion

206
Q

normal degree of lateral excursion?

A

8-11 mm

207
Q

TMJ lateral excursion:
- ___ mandibular condyle spins around vertical axis (inferior portion of joint)
- ____ mandibular condyle translates anteriorly (superior portion of joint)

A

ipsilateral
contralateral

208
Q

tmj:
- ____: mandible moves away from midline during mandibular depression and stay to L or R

A

deviation

209
Q

tmj:
- ____: mandible moves away from midline during mandibular depression or protrusion and returns to midline at end range
- can have C curve or S curve

A

deflection

210
Q

CN responsible for TMJ function?

A

CN V, VII, XII

211
Q

muscles for TMJ depression?

A

digastric & suprahyoids, lower lateral pterygoid, and gravity

212
Q

muscles for TMJ elevation?

A

temporalis, masseter, medial pterygoid, superior latereal pterygoid

213
Q

muscles for TMJ protrusion?

A

B action of masseter, medial and lateral pterygoid

214
Q

muscles for TMJ retrusion?

A

B action of temporalis, assisted by anterior digastric

215
Q

muscles for TMJ lateral deviation?

A

-unilateral contraction of medial and lateral pterygoids pull to contralateral side
- temporalis can pull to ipsilateral side
- temporalis with lateral pterygoid can act as a force couple that pulls toward same side

216
Q

longus colli unilaterally does ipsi SB with ___ rotation
longus capitis unilaterally does ipsi SB with ___ rotation

A

contralateral
ipsilateral

217
Q

forward head posture results in ___ of mandible and malalignment

A

retraction

218
Q

freeway space = normal rest position with ____ of space between upper and lower teeth when at rest

A

1.5-5 mm

219
Q

___: process by which upright posture is maintained

A

balance

220
Q

anticipatory postural adjustments (APAs) occur about ___ ms prior to planned movement

A

100 ms

221
Q

anticipatory synergy adjustments (ASAs) occur ___ ms prior to planned movement

A

250-300 ms

222
Q

___ ___: internal moments are minimized by having the external moments be as small as possible

A

optimal posture

223
Q

LoG position?
- ear or mastoid process?
- acromion?
- asis and psis?
- greater trochanter?
- femoral condyle?
- lateral malleoli?

A
  • anterior to ear or aligned with mastoid process
  • anterior to acromion
  • through midline of ilium bisecting ASIS and PSIS
  • through greater trochanter
  • slightly anterior to femoral condyle, posterior to patella
  • anterior to lateral malleoli
224
Q

___ __: line drawn form hip axis to midpoint of sacral endplate, and a line perpendicular to center of sacral endplate

A

pelvic incidence

225
Q

__ ___: angle created by a line drawn parallel to sacral endplate and line from the horizontal

A

sacral slope

226
Q

___ __: angle between horizontal and line drawn from PSIS and ASIS

A

pelvic tilt

227
Q

genu recurvatum = hyperextension of knee (>/= ___ degrees)

A

10

228
Q
A

Movement Science (1 decks)

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