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Exam 1 Questions Flashcards

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0
Q

Are staphylococcus bacitracin susceptible or resistant?

A

Bacitracin resistant

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1
Q

What test differentiates between S. saprophyticus and S. epidermidis?

A

Novobiocin
S.sapro = resistant
S. epi = susceptible

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2
Q

Streptococcus spp. are catalase ___

A

Catalase negative

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3
Q

Group A Streptococcus is which species?

A

S. pyogenes

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4
Q

Which species of staph is coagulase positive?

A

S. aureus

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5
Q

Group B Streptococcus is which species?

A

S. agalactiae

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6
Q

Staphylococcus spp. are oxidase ___ and catalase __?

A

Oxidase negative

Catalase positive

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7
Q

Group D Streptococcus is which species?

A

S. bovis

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8
Q

Group D Non-Enterococcus is which species?

A

E. faecalis

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9
Q

Which Streptococcus species are beta hemolytic?

A

S. pyogenes (wide zone)
S. agalactiae (narrow zone)
Enterococcus spp.

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10
Q

Which Streptococcus species are alpha hemolytic?

A

S. pneumoniae
Viridans strep
Enterococcus

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11
Q

What is the gram stain morphology of Staphylococcus?

A

Gram positive (purple) cocci in clusters (grapelike)

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12
Q

What is the gram stain morphology of Streptococcus?

A

Gram positive (purple) cocci in chains

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13
Q

What is the next step if you have a negative slide coagulase test?

A

Coagulase Tube test to make sure its a true negative.

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14
Q

Explain the coagulase tube test and how it is performed

A

Tube coag. test tests for the free coagulase which is an extracellular enzyme. You add rabbit plasma and 2-4 colonies (1 loopful) of bacteria to clean tube. Incubate at 37 for 4 hours checking every hour. Positive = clumping

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15
Q

The slide coag. test tests for what?

A

Bound coagulase or clumping factor in the organisms cell wall

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16
Q

Which Streptococcus species is Bacitracin susceptible?

A

S. pyogenes (group A)

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17
Q

Beta-lactamase is a rapid screen for what organisms?

A

Staph spp. Enterococcus spp. and N. gonorrhoeae are all positive

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18
Q

What are the factors that influence effectiveness for a disinfectant?

A

Surface type, biofilm formation, number of organism, type of organism, pH, temperature

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19
Q

S. lugedunesis has what type of coagulase pattern?

A

Slide test positive

Tube test negative

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20
Q

What kind of nucleus does a Prokaryote have?

A

No nuclear membrane, no organelles

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21
Q

What is the reagent in the Beta-lactamase test and what does a positive reaction look like?

A

Cefinase disk, positive is a pink color

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22
Q

What kind of nucleus does a Eukaryote have?

A

Membrane-bound nucleus, has organelles

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23
Q

What kind of cell division does a eukaryote exhibit?

A

Mitosis

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24
Q

What does the plasma membrane of a Prokaryote have in it?

A

No carbohydrates, no sterols

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25
Q

What does the plasma membrane of a Eukaryote have in it?

A

Carbohydrates and sterols

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26
Q

How does a eukaryote sexually reproduce?

A

Meiosis

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27
Q

How does a prokaryote sexually reproduce?

A

conjugation

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28
Q

What kind of cell division does a prokaryote exhibit?

A

Binary fission

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29
Q

What kind of genetic material does a eukaryote have?

A

multiple, linear chromosomes

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30
Q

How do you sterilize glass pipettes?

A

Dry heat or autoclave

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31
Q

How do you sterilize mineral oil?

A

Dry heat

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32
Q

How do you sterilize empty petri plates?

A

UV radiation

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33
Q

How do you sterilize water?

A

Filtration or autoclaving

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34
Q

Which Streptococcus groups are PYR positive?

A

Group A (S. pyogenes) and Group D Enterococcus (E. faecalis)

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35
Q

What kind of genetic material does a prokaryote have?

A

single, circular chromosomes

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36
Q

Which Streptococcus groups are Bile Escuin positive?

A

Group D (S. bovis) and Group D Enterococcus (E. faecalis)

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37
Q

Is Micrococcus spp. bacitracin resistant or susceptible?

A

Susceptible

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38
Q

What is the purpose of Chocolate Agar?

A

Enriched, non-selective medium to isolate fastidious organisms like Neisseria and Haemophilus

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39
Q

What is the purpose of CNA agar?

A

Isolation of Gram positive bacteria. Colistin disrupts the cell membrane of gram negative bacteria inhibiting them, and also has antibiotics to inhibit the swarming of Proteus spp.

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40
Q

What is the CAMP test used for?

A

To identify if you have S. agalactiae. It tests for the CAMP factor which is a protein-like compound only produced by Group B strep. A characteristic arrow-head pattern appears when Group B is streaked perpendicularly to beta-hemolytic S. aureus.

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41
Q

What is the purpose of MAC agar?

A

A differential and selective media used to isolate gram negative bacteria and differentiate between lactose fermenters and non-lactose fermenters. Crystal violet and bile salts inhibit gram positive bacteria.

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42
Q

What is streptolysin?

A

Two toxins released by S. pyogenes, Streptolysin S and Streptolysin O. S is oxygen Stable, and O is destroyed by oxygen. The attribute to the virulence factor of S. pyogenes b/c they cause lysis of the rbc’s and they kill phagocytes.

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43
Q

What are the characteristics of autoclaving?

A

15 psi, 121 C, for 15 minutes

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44
Q

Which Streptococcus group is CAMP positive?

A

S. agalactiae (Group B)

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45
Q

What is the purpose of MTM agar?

A

To isolate N. memingitidis, and N. gonorrhoeae. It has vancomycin to inhibit gram pos. bacteria, Colistin to inhibit gram neg. bacteria other than those two specifically, Nystatin inhibits yeast and mold, and Trimethoprim lactate inhibits the swarming of Proteus.

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46
Q

Which carbohydrates are utilized by N. gonorrhoeae?

A

Glucose

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47
Q

Which carbohydrates are utilized by N. menigitidis?

A

Glucose and Maltose

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48
Q

Which carbohydrates are utilized by M. catarrahlis?

A

no sugars, DNAse positive

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49
Q

Which carbohydrates are utilized by N. lactamica?

A

Glucose, Maltose, and Lactose

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50
Q

Should you refrigerate Neisseria spp?

A

NEVER, they are fastidious and they need to be kept at room temperature and incubated in a capnophilic environment.

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51
Q

What is the gram stain appearance and morphology of Neisseria spp?

A

Gram negative (pink) diplococci

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52
Q

What is different about the Neisseria spp. that are pathogens versus the non-pathogen morphology

A

They are both diplococci but the pathogens are slightly elongated, almost kidney bean shaped while the non-pathogens are more rounded like true cocci

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53
Q

What is the sodium hippurate test used for?

A

Used to identify Group B strep, C jejuni and G. vaginalis. Hippurate is hydrolyzed by hippicurase to glycine and benzoate. Ninhydrin causes deamination of glycine to hydrantin, CO2 and ammonia. Condensation occurs with ninhydrin to form a purple comple.

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54
Q

What is transformation?

A

Cell dies and releases DNA into environment. This is followed by the DIRECT uptake of DNA fragments by the recipient cell.

55
Q

Which diseases are caused by Moraxella spp?

A

Upper respiratory infections, otitis media (middle ear infections), sinusitis, pneumonia.

56
Q

How does the Bile Esculin test work?

A

Esculin gets hydrolyzed to esculetin and dextrose. Esculetin reacts with iron from ferric citrate to form a black complex.

57
Q

What is tetramethyl-p-phenylene-diamine-dihydrochloride?

A

Reagent in modified oxidase test. It acts an an electron donor for cytochrome C which is what is being tested for in the modified oxidase test. This reagent speeds up the reaction.

58
Q

What is a plasmid?

A

Extrachromosomal small, circular, covalently bonded, double stranded DNA that is seperate from the nucleus. It carries the gene for enzyme production, pili, and exotoxin production.

59
Q

What does the R plasmid code for?

A

Resistance to antibiotics

60
Q

What is the selective media for N. gonorrhoea and N. meningitidis?

A

MTM (Modified Thayer Martin)

61
Q

What does the F plasmid code for?

A

The production of the sex pilus

62
Q

What is conjugation?

A

Involves two living cells with the sex pilus originating in the donor cell. A bridge is established as a way for DNA to transfer and a complementary strand is produced.

63
Q

What test does the Bile Solubility test correlate with?

A

The optochin test

64
Q

How does pasteurization work?

A

Keep the liquid at 63 C for 30 minutes. It achieves disinfection without sterilization.

65
Q

The main function is to assist in bacterial attachment to host cells and/or mucosal surfaces.
Flagella or Fimbriae?

A

Fimbriae

66
Q

The bacterial growth curve has 4 phases, what are they?

A

Lag phase, Log phase, Stationary phase, Death or decline phase

67
Q

What extends from the cell membrane into the external environment?

A

Fimbriae

68
Q

The main function is to rotate and cause motility. They are hollow, helical, proteinaceous tubes.

A

Flagella

69
Q

What does halophilic mean?

A

capable of growing in high concentrations of salt

70
Q

What originates in the cytoplasm and extends through the cell membrane and cell wall?

A

Flagella

71
Q

True or False

Freezing inhibits growth but does not kill the bacteria

A

True

72
Q

What is sodium desoxycholate?

A

The reagent in the Bile Solubility test. S. pneumonieae produces an autolytic enzyme that cleaves the bonds in the cell wall resulting in the dissolution of the cells.

73
Q

What are examples of prokaryotes?

A

Bacteria- Eubacteria and archaebacteria

74
Q

Psychrophiles like what temperature for optimal growth?

A

-10 to 20 C

75
Q

Which organism typically has a site of 7-100 um diameter?

Prokaryote or Eukaryote?

A

Eukaryote

76
Q

What is the capsule made out of and how does it help the virulence factor?

A

Composed of polysaccharides or polypeptides.

It inhibits phagocytosis from neutrophils and protects the cell from toxins and antibiotics

77
Q

Mesophiles like what temperature for optimal growth?

A

10 to 50 C

78
Q

Anaerobes lack which enzyme that makes oxygen toxic to them?

A

superoxide dismutase

79
Q

The chemical method that uses halogens uses which halogens mostly?

A

Chlorine, in the form of 10% bleach solution

80
Q

How do surfactants work?

A

Disrupts cell membranes, used on non-critical surfaces, does not kill spores, common in hospitals

81
Q

What are the two enzymes that break down the end products of respiration?

A

Superoxide dismutase and catalase

82
Q

Respiration gives rise to 2 toxic end products. What are they?

A

Superoxide anion O2- and hydrogen peroxide

83
Q

How do phenolics work?

A

They precipitate proteins and disrupt cell walls, broad spectrum, biodegradable, household and hospital use, germicidal soaps

84
Q

What is the thermal death time?

A

The minimum length of time in which all bacteria in liquid culture will be killed at a given temperature.

85
Q

What is the thermal death temperature?

A

The lowest temperature at which all microorganisms die in a liquid suspension within 10 minutes

86
Q

What is biosafety level 2?

A

Suitable for handling agetns of moderate potential hazard to personnel

87
Q

Thermophiles like what temperature for optimal growth?

A

50-70 C

88
Q

What is bacteriocidal mean?

A

The irreversible process by which an agent kills all bacteria and spores

89
Q

What does bacteriostatic mean?

A

The reversible process that prevents growth but does not kill the bacteria

90
Q

What does sterilization refer to?

A

The removal of all forms of life including spores

91
Q

What is an antiseptic?

A

Essentially a disinfectant for living tissue

92
Q

Why do cotton swabs interfere with certain tests?

A

The cotton swabs contain residual fatty acids that interfere

93
Q

What does disinfection mean?

A

The killing of live organisms

94
Q

What is biosafety level 3?

A

Suitable for handling potentially lethal pathogens that are spread through respiratory routes and can be inhaled, known cures exist.

95
Q

What does microaerophilic mean?

A

The organism requires reduced levels of oxygen in order to grow.

96
Q

What does capnophilic mean?

A

They grow better in atmosphere enriched with extra CO2 (5-10%)

97
Q

What is a facultative anaerobe mean?

A

It can grow under aerobic or anaerobic conditons

98
Q

What are aerotolerant anaerobes?

A

They are anaerobes but are not killed by exposure to oxygen

99
Q

What does obligate anaerobe mean?

A

Cannot grow in the presence of oxygen

100
Q

What does obligate aerobe mean?

A

Absolute requirement for oxygen

101
Q

How does oxidation differ from fermentation?

A

The final hydrogen receptor for fermentation is an organic compound, not oxygen.

102
Q

What is biosafety level 4?

A

Suitable for exotic or extraordinary diseases spread by aerosol or bloodborne routes with no known cure

103
Q

What are the 3 glycolytic pathways?

A

Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas (EMP)
Pentose phosphate shunt
Entner-Douderoff

104
Q

What are heterotrophs?

A

require complex substances for growth, organic carbon source required, energy from oxidation or fermentation

105
Q

What are the 3 major nutritional needs for growth?

A

Carbon for making cellular compounds
Nitrogen for making proteins
Energy (ATP) for carrying out cellular functions

106
Q

What is transduction?

A

DNA is introduced by a non-lethal virus. The bacteriophage infects bacteria and integrates DNA into the bacterial chromosome. When host bacteria dies its released. The newly infected cell recieves donor DNA

107
Q

What does endogenote refer to?

A

cells original chromosome

108
Q

What does exogenote refer to?

A

foreign DNA molecule

109
Q

Genetic exchange in bacteria is accomplished by 3 basic mechanisms

A

Transformation, Transduction, Conjugation

110
Q

What are autotrophs and the two subgroups?

A

They require CO2, H2O, and inorganic salts.
Phototrophs- derive energy from photosynthesis
Chemolithotrophs- derive energy form oxidation of inorganic compounds

111
Q

Replication of ___ parent cells results in ___ daughter cells.

A

One parent, two daughter

112
Q

What is biosaftey level 1?

A

Suitable for working with organisms that have no potential to cause human disease

113
Q

0.01 mL loop uses factor of ___ to determine the number of organisms per mL

A

factor of 100

114
Q

What does death phase mean?

A

Number of non-viable cells exceed the number of viable cells.

115
Q

What kind of bacteria produce endospores?

A

Gram negative bacilli

116
Q

What does the stationary phase mean?

A

Nutrients become limiting and toxic products accumulate

117
Q

True or False

Endospores are a reproductive structure

A

False

118
Q

What does the log phase mean?

A

Bacterial numbers increase logarithmically

119
Q

What does lag phase mean?

A

Bacteria are preparing to divide

120
Q

What are small, dehydrated, metabolically dormant forms of bacteria?

A

Endospores

121
Q

What are the 3 vital functions of the cell wall

A
  • Protects form osmotic pressure changes and lysis
  • Serves as a barrier against toxic chemical and biological agents
  • Rigid form gives cell shape
122
Q

0.001 mL loop uses factor of ___ to determine the number of organisms per mL.

A

factor of 1000

123
Q

What ar the 4 major functions of the cell membrane?

A
  • Selective permeability and transport of solutes
  • Electron transport and oxidative phosphoylation
  • Excretion of exoenzymes
  • Site of DNA synthesis
124
Q

What does mesosome refer to?

A

Convoluted in-folding of cytoplasmic membrane

125
Q

What are fimbriae of gram negative bacteria called?

A

Pili

126
Q

What is ethylhydrocupreine hydrochloride?

A

An ingredient in the optochin test. Colonies of S. pneumoniae are selectively lysed. Lysis is indicated by a zone of inhibition after incubation under increased CO2.

127
Q

How are the SXT test and Bacitracin tests used?

A

Group A strep are susceptible to bacitracin and resistant to SXT. Group B is resistant to both the bacitracin and SXT.

128
Q

How is the modified oxidase/ furazolidone used?

A

It is used to differentiate between Staphylococcus and Micrococcus. This test is performed as a disk susceptibility procedure. Tests for cytochrome C. Staph are susceptible and Micrococcus are resistant.

129
Q

What is the modified oxidase reagent?

A

DMSO Dimethylsulfoxide

130
Q

What is L-pyrrolinodonyl-B-naphthylamide?

A

PYR. PYR tests for the ability of the organism to hydrolyze the substrate. After the inoculation of the disk hydrolysis of the substrate occurs forming beta-naphthylamide which produces a red color with the addition of the color developer p-dimethylcinnamaldehyde.

131
Q

What does the PYR test differentiate between?

A

Enterococcus and Group A are PYR positive

S. bovis is negative

132
Q

What is the optochin test used to differentiate between?

A

S. pneumoniae and other alpha-hemolytic Streptococci.
S. pneumoniae = positive or sensitive
All other alpha-hemolytic Strep are resistant

133
Q

Enterotoxins cause what?

A

Food poisoning

134
Q

What do exotoxins cause?

A

Scalded skin syndrome

135
Q

What is the MSA agar used for?

A

Selective and differential media. Used for isolation and differentiation of Staph spp. MSA contains high levels of sodium chloride (7.5%) Most gram negatives and other gram pos spp cannot survive. S. aureus grows and ferments mannitol producing yellow colonies. Most coag-neg staph do not fement and grow as red colonies.

Microbiology (2 decks)

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