exam 1 past

Question 1

Patient with hypovolemia is restless and anxious. The skin is cool and pale, pulse is thready at a rate of 135 beats/min. blood pressure is 92/50 mm HG. Respirations are 32 respirations/min. what actions does the nurse take? (SATA)

a. Obtain a stat order for an IV normal saline bolus.
b. Administer supplemental oxygen.
c. Notify the Rapid Response Team.
d. Place the patient in a semi-Fowler’s position.
e. Call a “code blue.”

Answer 1

Answer: A,B,C

Question 2

The Home Health Nurse is making the initial visit to an older adult patient with hypertension. The nurse recommends that the patient obtain which item for home use?

a. Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring device
b. Exercise bicycle
c. Blood glucose monitor scale
d. Food scale

Answer 2

a

Question 3

Discharge teaching for the patient with atrial fibrillation includes:

Answer 3

use a soft bristled tooth brush
- Patients with chronic atrial fibrillation must be on lifetime anticoagulant therapy and must learn about the risks of anticoagulation.
Antithrombotic therapy is indicated for all patients with atrial fibrillation, especially those who are at risk for an embolic event, such as stroke, and is the only therapy that decreases cardiovascular mortality.

Question 4

A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory abilities. To meet The Joint Commission’s Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?

Answer 4

1630 (4:30 PM)

The Joint Commission’s Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Therefore, the client should have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM).

Question 5

Doctor’s Order: Cleocin Oral Susp 600 mg po qid; Directions for mixing: Add 100 mL of water and shake vigorously. Each 2.5 mL will contain 100 mg of Cleocin. How many tsp of Cleocin will you administer?

Answer 5

-3 tsp

Question 6

Fifteen minutes after the oxygen is replaced via nasal cannula and he has rested, the patient denies being short of breath. You obtain an oxygen saturation, which is 96%.
Based on this result, what should you do next?
A. Call the provider as soon as possible.
B. Encourage the patient to take some deep breaths.
C. Increase the oxygen level to 5 L per nasal cannula.
D. Continue the assessment, as 96% is considered acceptable.

Answer 6

Answer: D

Once the patient’s oxygen is replaced, he denies shortness of breath. The supplemental oxygen and a period of rest resulted in his oxygen saturation being 96%, which is acceptable. The oxygen should not be increased, nor does he need to take deep breaths because the patient’s SaO2 is normal and he is not short of breath.

Question 7

The doctor orders 1.5 litres of Lactated Ringers solution to be administered intravenously to your patient over the next 12 hours. Calculate the rate of flow if the IV tubing delivers 20 gtt/mL. (Answer in gtt/min rounded to the nearest whole number).

a. 48 gtt/min
b. 42 gtt/min
c. 36 gtt/min
d. 28 gtt/min

Answer 7

b. 42 gtt/min

1500 mL; (1500 mL x 20 gtt/mL) ÷ (12 hrs. x 60 min) = 41.66 –> 42 gtt/min

Question 8

Which medication should the nurse anticipate being ordered for a patient with SVT?
A. Verapamil
B. Adenosine
C. Lidocaine
D. Atropine

Answer 8

B. Adenosine

Question 9

A nurse is monitoring the patient’s blood pressure and ECG during a stress test. Which parameter indicates the patient should stop exercising?

a. Increase in heart rate
b. Increase in blood pressure
c. ECG showing the PQRS complex
d. ECG showing ST-segment depression

Answer 9

d. ECG showing ST-segment depression

Question 10

Most heart failure begins with failure of the ____ and progresses to failure of both ventricles.

Answer 10

left ventricle

Question 11

a patients heart rate suddenly drops to 35 beats/min, blood pressure is 80/60 mmhg and the patient is diaphoretic. the nurse prepares to administer?

Answer 11

atropine 0.5mg IV

Question 12

The bedside cardiac monitor of a postoperative patient who becomes confused shows sinus rhythm, but there is no palpable pulse. How does the nurse interpret these findings?

Answer 12

Pulseless electrical activity with inadequate perfusion

Question 13

A patient has cardiac dysrhythmias and pulmonary problems as a result of receiving an IV antibiotic. What type of shock does this represent?

Answer 13

Anaphylactic

Question 14

where would the nurse place the diaphragm of the stethoscope to listen for apical pulse

Answer 14

between the fifth and sixth ribs at the left midclavicular line of the client’s chest.

Question 15

What EKG rhythm does this EKG strip represent

Answer 15

.

Question 16

what EKG rhythm does this EKG strip represent

Question 17

The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for an electrophysiology study (EPS) because of persistent ventricular tachycardia. Before the procedure the client is to receive a beta-blocker. What client’s response during the procedure best indicates that the beta-blocker is working effectively?

A. Decreased anxiety
B. Reduced chest pain
C. Decreased heart rate
D. Increased blood pressure

Answer 17

C. Decreased heart rate

Question 18

Doctor’s Order: Heparin 7,855 units Sub Q bid; Available: Heparin 10,000 units per ml. How many mL will you administer

Answer 18

0.79 ml

Question 19

Which assessment finding in a patient who has had a cardiac catheterization does the nurse report immediately to the provider?

a. Pain at the catheter insertion site
b. Catheterized extremity dusky with decreased peripheral pulses
c. Small hematoma at the catheter insertion site
d. Pulse pressure of 40 mm Hg with a slow, bounding pulse

Answer 19

b

Question 20

Myocardial necrosis and injury are indicated on the ECG by

Answer 20

STEMI (ST elevation)

Question 21

The nurse is teaching a patient who is at risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE). The patient is currently asymptomatic and is living in the community. What interventions does the nurse instruct the patient to do to minimize the risk of VTE? (Select all that apply.)

a. Avoid oral contraceptives.
b. Drink adequate fluids to avoid dehydration.
c. Exercise the legs during long periods of bedrest or sitting.
d. Arise early in the morning for ambulation.
e. Use a venous plexus foot pump

Answer 21

a. Avoid oral contraceptives.
b. Drink adequate fluids to avoid dehydration.
c. Exercise the legs during long periods of bedrest or sitting.

Question 22

A patient who smokes asks the nurse, “Smoking just hurts my lungs, not my heart, right?” Which nursing response is appropriate?

A. “Smoking is a major risk factor for coronary artery disease and peripheral vascular disease.”
B. “You are correct, smoking only hurts the lungs.”
C. “The primary impact of smoking is only on the heart.”
D. “What concerns you most about smoking?”

Answer 22

ANS: A

Cigarette smoking is a major risk factor for CVD, specifically coronary artery disease (CAD) and peripheral vascular disease (PVD). The other options are inappropriate.

Question 23

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with acute coronary syndromes. which manifestations indicate cardiogenic shock (sata)
A. Cold, clammy skin with poor peripheral pulses
B. Urine output less than 0.5-1 mL/kg/hr
C. Bradycardia and hypotension
D. Systolic BP less than 90 mm Hg or 30 mm Hg less than the patient’s baseline
E. Agitation, restlessness, or confusion
F. Tachypnea and crackles

Answer 23

A. Cold, clammy skin with poor peripheral pulses
B. Urine output less than 0.5-1 mL/kg/hr
D. Systolic BP less than 90 mm Hg or 30 mm Hg less than the patient’s baseline
E. Agitation, restlessness, or confusion
F. Tachypnea and crackles

Question 24

which hormones are released in response to decreased mean arterial pressure (MAP)?

Answer 24

aldosterone,angiotensin II, atrial natriuretic peptide

Question 25

An older adult is on cardiac monitoring after a myocardial infarction. The client shows frequent dysrhythmias. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

a. Assess for any hemodynamic effects of the rhythm.
b. Prepare to administer antidysrhythmic medication.
c. Notify the provider or call the Rapid Response Team.
d. Turn the alarms off on the cardiac monitor.

Answer 25

ANS: A
Older clients may have dysrhythmias due to age-related changes in the cardiac conduction system. They may have no significant hemodynamic effects from these changes. The nurse should first assess for the effects of the dysrhythmia before proceeding further. The alarms on a cardiac monitor should never be shut off. The other two actions may or may not be needed.

Question 26

A patient is receiving beta blocker therapy for treatment of MI. What does the nurse monitor for in relation to this therapy? (select all)

Answer 26

b. hypotension
c. decreased level of consciousness
d. chest discomfort

Question 27

A patient with a history of congestive obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with chest pain and signs of atrial flutter. The patient’s vital signs are blood pressure 65/40, temperature 99.0 °F, heart rate 135 beats per minute, and respiratory rate 25 respirations per minute. Which actions would the nurse take?(Select all that apply)
A. Administer warfarin according to orders
B. Prepare the patient for an echocardiogram
C. Administer beta-blocker according to orders
D. Prepare the patient for an electrical cardioversion
E. Administer a dose of IV narcotic pain medication

Answer 27

A. Administer warfarin according to orders
D. Prepare the patient for an electrical cardioversion
E. Administer a dose of IV narcotic pain medication

Question 28

The nurse is caring for a patient with cardiogenic shock. What is the priority for managing this patient?

Answer 28

Determine and treat the cause of the shock

Question 29

The patient presents to the ED with SVT. what medications do you anticipate will be ordered for the patient?

Answer 29

?

Question 30

The standard of care for the initial treatment of pulseless ventricular tachycardia is:

Answer 30

defibrillation

Question 31

Which conditions would put a patient at risk for hypovolemic shock? SATA
A. Spinal cord injury
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Excessive hemorrhaging
E. Prolonged vomiting and diarrhea

Answer 31

D. Excessive hemorrhaging

E. Prolonged vomiting and diarrhea

Question 32

A patient on his second day post- MI, the nurse notes a change in the patients cardiac monitor. The strip changes from NSR- normal sinus rhythm to NSR with short runs of ventricular tachycardia. The nurse assesses the patient, whose blood pressure is now 100/54, pulse is palpable 188 bpm. She is lethargic, but arousable.
Which intervention should the nurse initiate first?
A) Place the crash cart in close proximity to the room.
B) Administer amiodarone (cordarone) IV.
C) Hang an IV infusion of dopamine (Intropin).
D) Charge the defibrillator to 200 joules.

Answer 32

B) Administer amiodarone (cordarone) IV

Question 33

A patient is receiving 160 mg of Methylprednisolone Im every 12 hours .you have on hand two vials that each contains 125 mg /2ML how much will you draw into a syringe?
A. 1.3 mL
B. 2.6 mL
C. 0.8 mL
D. 1.6 mL

Answer 33

B. 2.6 mL

Question 34

A patient is admitted to a telemetry unit with a new diagnosis of atrial fibrillation (AF). The patient states, “I feel fine, this rhythm won’t hurt me.” Which nursing response is appropriate?

Answer 34

“AF can cause clots to form from the irregular blood flow in the heart.”

Question 35

to prepare for cardioversion, the nurse sets the “synchronizez’ button so that the electrical impulse discharges during the ___ wave.

Answer 35

ventricular depolarization.

R wave

Question 36

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted for an inferior wall MI. The patient develops heart block with bradycardia. Because the patient’s pulse rate is low and the blood pressure is unstable, which procedure is the nurse prepared to assist with?

Answer 36

Temporary pacemaker

Question 37

any patient suspected to having acute coronary syndrome is given which drug at the onset of symptoms

Answer 37

nitroprusside

Question 38

The patient has decreased oxygenation and impaired tissue perfusion. Which clinical manifestations are evidence of onset of the non-progressive or compensatory stages of shock? (Select all that apply.)

a. Decreased urine output
b. Low-grade fever
c. Narrowing pulse pressure
d. Decreased heart rate
e. Increased heart rate

Answer 38

a. Decreased urine output
c. Narrowing pulse pressure
e. Increased heart rate

Question 39

. The patient is ordered to receive nafcillin 50 mg/kg/day divided q6hr to treat cellulitis. The patients weight is 147 lbs. How much will the patient receive at each q6hr interval?

Answer 39

835

Question 40

Which clinical manifestations does the nurse recognize that indicates worsening in the condition of a patient in the refractory phase of shock?

1. Warm, flushed skin
2. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
3. Increasing respiratory rate
4. Bleeding, oozing from IV sites

Answer 40

4. Bleeding, oozing from IV sites

Question 41

traditionally, what medications will most likely be ordered for a patient with atrial fibrillation SATA

Answer 41

• diltiazem hydrochloride
• heparin
• enoxaparin
• sodium warfarin
• metoprolol

Question 42

A nurse caring for a client who has been receiving IV diuretics suspects that the client is experiencing a fluid volume deficit. Which assessment finding would the nurse note in a client with this condition?

1) Lung congestion
2) Decreased hematocrit
3) Increased blood pressure
4) Decreased central venous pressure (CVP)

Answer 42

4) Decreased central venous pressure (CVP)

Rational: A fluid volume deficit occurs when the fluid intake is not sufficient to meet the fluid needs of the body. Assessment findings in a client with a fluid volume deficit include increased respirations and heart rate, decreased CVP, weigh loss, poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, decreased urine volume, increased specific gravity of the urine, increased hematocrit, and altered level of consciousness. The normal CVP is between 4 and 11 cm H2O. A client with dehydration (fluid volume deficit) has a low CVP. The assessment findings in options 1, 2, and 3 are seen in a client with fluid volume excess.

Question 43

A client with myocardial infarction suddenly becomes tachycardic, shows signs of air hunger, and begins coughing frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Which findings would the nurse anticipate when auscultating the client’s breath sounds?

1. Stridor
2. Crackles
3. Scattered rhonchi
4. Diminished breath sounds

Answer 43

2. Crackles

Rationale: Pulmonary edema is characterized by extreme breathlessness, dyspnea, air hunger, and the production of frothy, pink-tinged sputum

Question 44

The nurse is assessing a patient at risk for left ventricular failure and inadequate organ perfusion. Which signs and symptoms signal decreased cardiac output? (select all)

a. change in orientation or mental status
b. urine output less than 1mL/kg/hr or less than 30 mLs/hr
c. Hot, dry skin with flushed appearance
d. cool, clammy extremities with decrease or absent pulses
e. unusual fatigue
f. recurrent chest pain

Answer 44

a. change in orientation or mental status
b. urine output less than 1mL/kg/hr or less than 30 mLs/hr
c. Hot, dry skin with flushed appearance
d. cool, clammy extremities with decrease or absent pulses
e. unusual fatigue
f. recurrent chest pain

Question 45

Preload refers to:

Answer 45

volume of venous return.

The stretch of myocardial cells that results from volume of blood entering the ventricles at the end of diastole

-The term preload refers to the volume of blood in the cardiac chamber at end- diastole that stretches the sarcomeres and induces a vigorous contraction.

Question 46

Which finding, if present, is consistent with a diagnosis of unstable angina?

Answer 46

Increased frequency and intensity of chest pain

(sudden onset of pain, substernal pain that may spread across chest, back and arms, last less than 15 mins, pain relieved with rest)
Unstable angina is chest pain that is new in onset, occurs at rest, or has a worsening patter

Question 47

An 81 yo F resident of a nursing home presents to the ED with altered mental status. She is febrile to 102.9 F (39.4 C), hypotensive with a widened pulse pressure, tachycardic, with warm extremities

Answer 47

septic shock

Question 48

Which patient statement would cause the nurse to suspect peripheral artery disease (PAD)?

a. “When my legs are sore, I elevate them on several pillows. Putting them up in the air seems to help with the pain I have.”
b. “My feet have been pale in the mornings, but by the end of the day are bright red. I have been experiencing hair loss on my legs.”
c. “Throughout the night, I experience cramping in both of my legs. But once I go for a morning walk, they feel much better.”
d. “I have noticed my legs are swollen by the end of the day. I elevate my feet at night and then the swelling is down by the next morning.”

Answer 48

b. “My feet have been pale in the mornings, but by the end of the day are bright red. I have been experiencing hair loss on my legs.”

Question 49

identify appropriate interventions for a patient experiencing inadequate oxygenation and tissue perfusion as a result of coronary artery disease. (Select all that apply.)
A.Notify the physician.
B.Administer Tylenol for pain.
C.Maintain or initiate an IV line.
D.Apply oxygen via nasal cannula.
E.Encourage interaction with family.
F.Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.

Answer 49

A.Notify the physician.
C.Maintain or initiate an IV line.
D.Apply oxygen via nasal cannula.
F.Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.

Question 50

1. The amount of stretch in the ventricle at the end of diastole is referred as

Answer 50

Preload

Question 51

2. The ICU nurse observes petechiae ecchymoses, and blood oozing from the gums and other mucous membranes. How does the nurse interpret this finding?
   A. Pulmonary emboli (PE)
   B. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
   C. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
   D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

Answer 51

D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

Question 52

Doctor’s Order: Cleocin Oral Susp 600 mg po qid; Directions for mixing: Add 100 mL of water and shake vigorously. Each 2.5 mL will contain 100 mg of Cleocin. How many tsp of Cleocin will you administer?

Answer 52

3 tsp

Question 53

A patient is receiving 160 mg of Methylprednisolone Im every 12 hours .you have on hand two vials that each contains 125 mg /2ML how much will you draw into a syringe?
A. 1.3 mL
B. 2.6 mL
C. 0.8 mL
D. 1.6 mL

Answer 53

B. 2.6 mL

Question 54

The health care provider is considering use of thrombolytic therapy for a patient. What is the criterion for this therapy?

Answer 54

Indications of transmural ischemia and injury as shown by the ECG

Question 55

A patient is receiving beta blocker therapy for treatment of MI. What does the nurse monitor for in relation to this therapy? (select all)

Answer 55

b. hypotension
c. decreased level of consciousness
d. chest discomfort

Question 56

The nurse is assessing a patient at risk for left ventricular failure and inadequate organ perfusion. Which signs and symptoms signal decreased cardiac output? (select all)

a. change in orientation or mental status
b. urine output less than 1mL/kg/hr or less than 30 mLs/hr
c. Hot, dry skin with flushed appearance
d. cool, clammy extremities with decrease or absent pulses
e. unusual fatigue
f. recurrent chest pain

Answer 56

a. change in orientation or mental status
b. urine output less than 1mL/kg/hr or less than 30 mLs/hr
c. Hot, dry skin with flushed appearance
d. cool, clammy extremities with decrease or absent pulses
e. unusual fatigue
f. recurrent chest pain

Question 57

A patient with a history of congestive obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with chest pain and signs of atrial flutter. The patient’s vital signs are blood pressure 65/40, temperature 99.0 °F, heart rate 135 beats per minute, and respiratory rate 25 respirations per minute. Which actions would the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
A. Administer warfarin according to orders
B. Prepare the patient for an echocardiogram
C. Administer beta-blocker according to orders
D. Prepare the patient for an electrical cardioversion
E. Administer a dose of IV narcotic pain medication

Answer 57

A. Administer warfarin according to orders
D. Prepare the patient for an electrical cardioversion
E. Administer a dose of IV narcotic pain medication

Question 58

The standard of care for the initial treatment of pulseless ventricular tachycardia is:

Answer 58

defibrillation

Question 59

the registered nurse is assessing the patient’s blood pressure. what actions does the nurse deem necessary SATA

Answer 59

Get proper size of cuff

Question 60

What data indicate that morphine administration has been effective in a patient with angina

Answer 60

Relieves chest pain

Question 61

which hormones are released in response to decreased mean arterial pressure (MAP)?sata

Answer 61

aldosterone
angiotensin II
atrial natriuretic peptide

Question 62

Which conditions would put a patient at risk for hypovolemic shock? SATA
A. Spinal cord injury
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Excessive hemorrhaging
E. Prolonged vomiting and diarrhea

Answer 62

D. Excessive hemorrhaging
E. Prolonged vomiting and diarrhea

Excessive hemorrhaging A patient who is losing large amounts of blood will be at risk for hypovolemic shock.
Prolonged vomiting and diarrhea A patient with large volumes of fluid loss from prolonged nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea will be at risk for hypovolemic shock.

Question 63

Which clinical manifestations are reflections of sustained tachydysrhythmias and bradydysrhythmias?

Answer 63

Weakness and fatigue
Dyspnea
Decreased urine output(oliguria)

Question 64

put the priority of the following conditions starting with the greatest to least priority

Question 65

The nurse is teaching a patient who is at risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE). The patient is currently asymptomatic and is living in the community. What interventions does the nurse instruct the patient to do to minimize the risk of VTE? (Select all that apply.)

a. Avoid oral contraceptives.
b. Drink adequate fluids to avoid dehydration.
c. Exercise the legs during long periods of bedrest or sitting.
d. Arise early in the morning for ambulation.
e. Use a venous plexus foot pump.

Answer 65

a. Avoid oral contraceptives.
b. Drink adequate fluids to avoid dehydration.
c. Exercise the legs during long periods of bedrest or sitting.

Question 66

The body attempts to compensate for the heart’s failure by

A. decreasing afterload and decreasing heart rate.
B. increasing heart rate and dilating ventricular chambers.
C. increasing blood pressure and decreasing cardiac preload.
D. inhibiting epinephrine and maintaining minimal venous return.

Answer 66

B. increasing heart rate and dilating ventricular chambers.

Question 67

patients potassium blood level is 2.2 mEq/L. the nurse receives an order to start an IV infusion of KCL. please place the nurse actions in order of priority:

Question 68

Most heart failure begins with failure of the ____ and progresses to failure of both ventricles.

Answer 68

Left ventricle

Question 69

A nurse caring for for a client who has been receiving IV diuretics suspects that the client is experiencing a fluid volume deficit. Which assessment finding would the nurse note in a client with this condition?

1) Lung congestion
2) Decreased hematocrit
3) Increased blood pressure
4) Decreased central venous pressure (CVP)

Answer 69

4

Question 70

traditionally, what medications will most likely be ordered for a patient with atrial fibrillation SATA

Answer 70

diltiazem hydrochloride

• heparin
• enoxaparin (Levonox)
• sodium warfarin
• metoprolol

Question 71

The bedside cardiac monitor of a postoperative patient who becomes confused shows sinus rhythm, but there is no palpable pulse. How does the nurse interpret these findings?

Answer 71

Pulseless electrical activity with inadequate perfusion

Question 72

A patient arrives in the emergency department 3 hours after the onset of chest pain. the standard of care for this patient includes:

Answer 72

Morphine
Oxygen
Nitroglycerin
Aspirin

Question 73

Which is the underlying defect occurring in shock regardless of cause?

Answer 73

Impaired delivery of oxygen to cells

Question 74

to prepare for cardioversion, the nurse sets the “synchronizez’ button so that the electrical impulse discharges during the ___ wave.

Answer 74

R wave

ventricular depolarization

Question 75

Any patient suspected to having acute coronary syndrome is given which drug at the onset of symptoms

Answer 75

nitroprusside

Question 76

Myocardial ischemia and injury are indicated on the ECG by

Answer 76

ST segment and/or T wave

Question 77

The nurse is caring for critically ill clients. Which should be monitored for the development of neutogenic shock? A client with?

Answer 77

Spinal cord injury

Spinal cord injuries (C) place the client at high risk for the development of neurogenic distributive shock. The development to watch for in (A) is cardiogenic shock, in (B) is hemorrhagic shock, and in (D) is hypovolemic shock.

Question 78

The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for an electrophysiology study (EPS) because of persistent ventricular tachycardia. Before the procedure the client is to receive a beta-blocker. What client’s response during the procedure best indicates that the beta-blocker is working effectively?

A. Decreased anxiety
B. Reduced chest pain
C. Decreased heart rate
D. Increased blood pressure

Answer 78

c

Question 79

The patient is ordered to receive nafcillin 50 mg/kg/day divided q6hr to treat cellulitis. The patients weight is 147 lbs. How much will the patient receive at each q6hr interval?

Answer 79

835?

Question 80

Which assessment finding in a patient who has had a cardiac catheterization does the nurse report immediately to the provider?

a. Pain at the catheter insertion site
b. Catheterized extremity dusky with decreased peripheral pulses
c. Small hematoma at the catheter insertion site
d. Pulse pressure of 40 mm Hg with a slow, bounding pulse

Answer 80

b. Catheterized extremity dusky with decreased peripheral pulses

Question 81

The nurse is caring for a patient with cardiogenic shock. What is the priority for managing this patient

Answer 81

Determine & treat the cause of the shock