Exam 1 (part 4) NORA

Question 1

AANA standard 1:

Answer 1

patient rights, privacy, safety

Question 2

AANA standard 2:

Answer 2

pre anesthesia assessment and eval (K+, EKG, coags)

Question 3

1 MET=

Answer 3

3.5 ml O2/kg/min

Question 4

how many METs is a brisk walk?

Answer 4

5

Question 5

how many METs is a casual walk?

Answer 5

2.5

Question 6

> 12 METs=

Answer 6

excellent

Question 7

AANA standard 3:

Answer 7

patient specific plan

Question 8

AANA standard 4:

Answer 8

informed consent

Question 9

AANA standard 5:

Answer 9

accurate, timely, and legible documentation

Question 10

AANA standard 6:

Answer 10

verify equipment functioning, crash carts

Question 11

AANA standard 7:

Answer 11

plan/modification of plan
***provide pt care until responsibility has been accepted by another

Question 12

AANA standard 8:

Answer 12

patient positioning

Question 13

AANA standard 9:

Answer 13

monitoring/alarms
**audible, no muting more than 2 min, variable pitch

Question 14

AANA standard 10:

Answer 14

infection prevention
**no reusing needles

Question 15

AANA standard 11:

Answer 15

transfer of care (to PACU)

Question 16

Modified Aldrete categories

Answer 16

respirations
O2 sat
consciousness
circulation (BP)
activity

Question 17

PADSS categories

Answer 17

vitals
I/O
bleeding
Pain/N/V
activity/mental status

Question 18

PADSS <5=
PADSS>5=

Answer 18

phase I
Phase II

Question 19

conscious sedation responsiveness level

Answer 19

purposeful response to verbal or tactile stimulation

Question 20

conscious sedation airway management

Answer 20

no intervention needed

Question 21

conscious sedation spontaneous ventilation

Answer 21

adequeate

Question 22

conscious sedation CV function

Answer 22

usually maintained

Question 23

minimal sedation characteristics

Answer 23

responds to verbal commands
Anxiolysis

Question 24

moderate sedation characteristics

Answer 24

responds to verbal/tactile stimulation
depressed LOC

Question 25

deep sedation characteristics

Answer 25

repsonds to painful stimulation spon. ventilation may be impaired

Question 26

if the patient loses the ability to respond purposefully, the anesthetic is considered:

Answer 26

general

Question 27

what type of anesthetic is usually given for percutaneous cerebral aneurysm repair?

Answer 27

GETA

Question 28

is contrast usually given for percutaneous cerebral aneurysm repair?

Answer 28

yes

Question 29

HHH therapy=

Answer 29

hypertension, hypervolemia, hemodilution

Question 30

a synthetic graft placed in the abdominal aorta that provides:

Answer 30

non-aneurysmal lumen for blood to move through and prevent aneurysm rupture

Question 31

anesthesia for abdominal aneurysm:

Answer 31

GETA with frequent ACTs

Question 32

blood pressure parameters for abdominal aneurysm?

Answer 32

mild, controlled hypotension

Question 33

what vein is used to access the liver in a TIPS?

Answer 33

IJ

Question 34

can a TIPS correct existing liver damage?

Answer 34

no

Question 35

what procedure is used to decompress portal circulation in pts with portal HTN and recurrent GI bleeds who have failed medical therapy?

Answer 35

TIPS

Question 36

anesthesia for TIPS?

Answer 36

GETA, RSI d/t ascites

Question 37

fluid replacement for TIPS:

Answer 37

albumin, PRBCs

Question 38

how long are ablation procedures?

Answer 38

2-6 hours

Question 39

ablations are _____% effective on first attempt

Answer 39

60-85%

Question 40

what piece of equipment is a must for ablation patients?

Answer 40

external defib pads

Question 41

anesthesia for ablation:

Answer 41

either MAC or general (LMA)

Question 42

TEE with cardioversion is most successful within ____ days onset of Afib

Answer 42

7

Question 43

Lab monitoring for vitamin K antagonists, DTIs, and Factor Xa inhibitors?

Answer 43

INR dTT anti xA level

Question 44

reversal for Lab vitamin K antagonists, DTIs, and Factor Xa inhibitors?

Answer 44

vitamin K, FFP discontinue discontinue

Question 45

what is fondaparinux?

Answer 45

IV factor Xa inhibitor (like eliquis)

Question 46

what are bivalrudin and argatroban?

Answer 46

IV DTIs

Question 47

heparin and LMWH work on:

Answer 47

thrombin and fXa

Question 48

serious side effect of cetacaine spray?

Answer 48

methemoglobinemia

Question 49

why should lidocaine not be given on induction for pts undergoing cardioversion?

Answer 49

leads to asystole

Question 50

TAVR is for patients at _____ surgical risk with AS with a predicted survival of >____ months

Answer 50

high 12

Question 51

TAVR is for symptomatic patients >_____y/o and young patients with a life expectancy <____ years

Answer 51

80 10

Question 52

what are the 2 approaches for TAVR?

Answer 52

transapical (bad vasculature) or transfemoral

Question 53

positioning for EGD/colon?

Answer 53

lateral

Question 54

who gets intubated for EGD?

Answer 54

active bleeding, foreign body/esophageal obstruction

Question 55

why should you not give versed/fent in preop for EGD?

Answer 55

synergistic with prop

Question 56

what procedure is used to diagnose/treat biliary or pancreatic disorders

Answer 56

ERCP

Question 57

glucagon use in ERCP?

Answer 57

antispasmodic

Question 58

anesthesia for ERCP?

Answer 58

GETA

Question 59

positioning for ERCP?

Answer 59

prone

Question 60

the release of neurotransmitters in ECT causes:

Answer 60

tonic/clonic seizures

Question 61

ECT treatment is _____x/week for 12 weeks

Answer 61

3

Question 62

4 side effects of ECT

Answer 62

headache, incontinence, emergence agitation and confusion, and myalgias (2-7 days)

Question 63

succs brand name

Answer 63

anectine

Question 64

what doe hyperventilation do to CBF?

Answer 64

decrease

Question 65

what should be used to treat HTN in ECTs?

Answer 65

short acting Bblockers