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Adv Principles A > Exam 1 (part 4) NORA > Flashcards

Exam 1 (part 4) NORA Flashcards

1
Q

AANA standard 1:

A

patient rights, privacy, safety

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2
Q

AANA standard 2:

A

pre anesthesia assessment and eval (K+, EKG, coags)

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3
Q

1 MET=

A

3.5 ml O2/kg/min

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4
Q

how many METs is a brisk walk?

A

5

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5
Q

how many METs is a casual walk?

A

2.5

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6
Q

> 12 METs=

A

excellent

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7
Q

AANA standard 3:

A

patient specific plan

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8
Q

AANA standard 4:

A

informed consent

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9
Q

AANA standard 5:

A

accurate, timely, and legible documentation

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10
Q

AANA standard 6:

A

verify equipment functioning, crash carts

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11
Q

AANA standard 7:

A

plan/modification of plan
***provide pt care until responsibility has been accepted by another

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12
Q

AANA standard 8:

A

patient positioning

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13
Q

AANA standard 9:

A

monitoring/alarms
**audible, no muting more than 2 min, variable pitch

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14
Q

AANA standard 10:

A

infection prevention
**no reusing needles

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15
Q

AANA standard 11:

A

transfer of care (to PACU)

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16
Q

Modified Aldrete categories

A

respirations
O2 sat
consciousness
circulation (BP)
activity

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17
Q

PADSS categories

A

vitals
I/O
bleeding
Pain/N/V
activity/mental status

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18
Q

PADSS <5=
PADSS>5=

A

phase I
Phase II

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19
Q

conscious sedation responsiveness level

A

purposeful response to verbal or tactile stimulation

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20
Q

conscious sedation airway management

A

no intervention needed

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21
Q

conscious sedation spontaneous ventilation

A

adequeate

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22
Q

conscious sedation CV function

A

usually maintained

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23
Q

minimal sedation characteristics

A

responds to verbal commands
Anxiolysis

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24
Q

moderate sedation characteristics

A

responds to verbal/tactile stimulation
depressed LOC

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25
Q

deep sedation characteristics

A

repsonds to painful stimulation
spon. ventilation may be impaired

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26
Q

if the patient loses the ability to respond purposefully, the anesthetic is considered:

A

general

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27
Q

what type of anesthetic is usually given for percutaneous cerebral aneurysm repair?

A

GETA

28
Q

is contrast usually given for percutaneous cerebral aneurysm repair?

A

yes

29
Q

HHH therapy=

A

hypertension, hypervolemia, hemodilution

30
Q

a synthetic graft placed in the abdominal aorta that provides:

A

non-aneurysmal lumen for blood to move through and prevent aneurysm rupture

31
Q

anesthesia for abdominal aneurysm:

A

GETA with frequent ACTs

32
Q

blood pressure parameters for abdominal aneurysm?

A

mild, controlled hypotension

33
Q

what vein is used to access the liver in a TIPS?

A

IJ

34
Q

can a TIPS correct existing liver damage?

A

no

35
Q

what procedure is used to decompress portal circulation in pts with portal HTN and recurrent GI bleeds who have failed medical therapy?

A

TIPS

36
Q

anesthesia for TIPS?

A

GETA, RSI d/t ascites

37
Q

fluid replacement for TIPS:

A

albumin, PRBCs

38
Q

how long are ablation procedures?

A

2-6 hours

39
Q

ablations are _____% effective on first attempt

A

60-85%

40
Q

what piece of equipment is a must for ablation patients?

A

external defib pads

41
Q

anesthesia for ablation:

A

either MAC or general (LMA)

42
Q

TEE with cardioversion is most successful within ____ days onset of Afib

A

7

43
Q

Lab monitoring for vitamin K antagonists, DTIs, and Factor Xa inhibitors?

A

INR
dTT
anti xA level

44
Q

reversal for Lab vitamin K antagonists, DTIs, and Factor Xa inhibitors?

A

vitamin K, FFP
discontinue
discontinue

45
Q

what is fondaparinux?

A

IV factor Xa inhibitor (like eliquis)

46
Q

what are bivalrudin and argatroban?

A

IV DTIs

47
Q

heparin and LMWH work on:

A

thrombin and fXa

48
Q

serious side effect of cetacaine spray?

A

methemoglobinemia

49
Q

why should lidocaine not be given on induction for pts undergoing cardioversion?

A

leads to asystole

50
Q

TAVR is for patients at _____ surgical risk with AS with a predicted survival of >____ months

A

high
12

51
Q

TAVR is for symptomatic patients >_____y/o and young patients with a life expectancy <____ years

A

80
10

52
Q

what are the 2 approaches for TAVR?

A

transapical (bad vasculature) or transfemoral

53
Q

positioning for EGD/colon?

A

lateral

54
Q

who gets intubated for EGD?

A

active bleeding, foreign body/esophageal obstruction

55
Q

why should you not give versed/fent in preop for EGD?

A

synergistic with prop

56
Q

what procedure is used to diagnose/treat biliary or pancreatic disorders

A

ERCP

57
Q

glucagon use in ERCP?

A

antispasmodic

58
Q

anesthesia for ERCP?

A

GETA

59
Q

positioning for ERCP?

A

prone

60
Q

the release of neurotransmitters in ECT causes:

A

tonic/clonic seizures

61
Q

ECT treatment is _____x/week for 12 weeks

A

3

62
Q

4 side effects of ECT

A

headache, incontinence, emergence agitation and confusion, and myalgias (2-7 days)

63
Q

succs brand name

A

anectine

64
Q

what doe hyperventilation do to CBF?

A

decrease

65
Q

what should be used to treat HTN in ECTs?

A

short acting Bblockers

Adv Principles A (5 decks)

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