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Basis Pac Proc & Mgt > Exam 1: Overview of Veterinary Technology > Flashcards

Exam 1: Overview of Veterinary Technology Flashcards

1
Q

The science and art of providing professional support for veterinarians.

A

Veterinary Technology

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2
Q

A graduate from an AVMA accredited program in veterinary technology.

A

Veterinary Technician

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3
Q

A graduate of a 4 year AVMA CVTEA-accredited program.

A

Veterinary Technologist

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4
Q

A person with less education than that is required for a veterinary technician

A

Veterinary assisstant

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5
Q

A graduate of a 4 year AVMA accredited College of Veterinary Medicine

A

Veterinarian

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6
Q

The combination of all the personnel mentioned above as well as the support staff of the clinic.

A

Veterinary Team

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7
Q

Different types of private veterinary practices

A

Small animal practice
Mixed animal practice
Specialty and food animal practices

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8
Q

Types of non-practice career opportunities

A 
Education
University/College
Diagnostic/Research
Government Positions
Industry
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9
Q

VTNE?

A

Veterinary Technician National Exam

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10
Q

AAVSB?

A

American Association of Veterinary State Boards

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11
Q

For individuals interested in a specific discipline of veterinary medicine that must represent a distinct and identifiable specialty, supported by an existing veterinary specialty.

A

Society

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12
Q

Designates veterinary technicians receiving recognition as a specialty and is restricted to credentialed veterinary technicians, who must complete a formal process of education, training, experience and testing to qualify.

A

Academy

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13
Q

NAVTA?

A

National Association of Veterinary Technicians in America

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14
Q

AVMA?

A

American Veterinary Medical Association

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15
Q

AVTE?

A

Association of Veterinary Technician Educators

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16
Q

VHMA?

A

Veterinary Hospital Managers Association

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17
Q

AAHA?

A

American Animal Hospital Association

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18
Q

VSPN?

A

Veterinary Support Personnel Network

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19
Q

In the life of dogs and cats, the period between __ to __ months is the most active time of growth.

A

3 to 6

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20
Q

The rate at which small breed dogs reach their mature weight (can vary between breeds)

A

9 to 10 months

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21
Q

The rate at which large and giant breed dogs reach their mature weight (can vary between breeds)

A

11 to 15 months

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22
Q

The rate at which small breed dogs and cats reach their mature size (can vary between breeds)

A

9 to 12 months

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23
Q

The rate at which large and giant breed dogs reach their mature size (can vary between breeds)

A

18 to 24 months

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24
Q

Orthopedic diseases that can develop include:

A

Osteochondrosis
Hypertrophic osteodystrophy
Hip dysplasia

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25
Q

Osteochondrosis?

A

The underlying boney matrix is not strong enough to overlying cartilage development. Cartilage function and metabolism is also disrupted. This combination leads to joint defects. The demands put on the joint due to skeletal changes and increased weight due to growth, exacerbate the problem.

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26
Q

Hip dysplasia?

A

The discrepancy in the muscle structure and the skeletal structure at this time can be contributing factors to the development of hip dysplasia.

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27
Q

Hypertrophic osteodystrophy?

A

During the time of rapid growth (3-6 months) puppies lack the ability to down regulate/manage their calcium levels. Due to the lack of this regulation, puppies during this time can receive an over abundance of calcium if it is present in the diet in high concentrations. This over absorption of calcium during the rapid growth period can lead to the development of skeletal abnormalities. This is especially seen in Great Danes.

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28
Q

States that every employee must receive an hourly wage

A

Fair Labor and Standards Act (FLSA)

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29
Q

General Information Form?

A

Lists the pertinent contact info for the client

 - mailing/physical address
 - home/cell/work numbers
 - emergency contacts - Usually given on first visit. Can include info about all the pets the client owns. Usually yes/no questions. Usually ends with statement about the payment policy for clinic. Required signature of the client after policy has been explained.
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30
Q

Patient General History Form?

A
  • Can be combined with the General Information form, or it can be a separate form.
  • Purpose of this form is to give a brief overview of the history of each new pet.
  • IS NOT to replace the medical history form.
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31
Q

Release Forms?

A
  • Forms must be signed any time that a treatment or procedure is authorized by the client.
  • Forms are filled out to protect the practice and ensure that the owner knows exactly what is being done to their pet.
  • Help clear any misunderstandings and allow the owner to ask any questions they may have.
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32
Q

Goal is to keep inventory costs between ___ to ___% of the total income of the clinic.

A

12-15%

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33
Q

Reorder point?

A

The point a stock level reaches before reordering.

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34
Q

Cost of the product multiplied by a % in order to recover the hidden costs associated with inventory management.

A

Mark-up.

Most products are marked up by 100-200%

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35
Q

A product must be marked-up at least ___% to break even.

A

40%

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36
Q

Ways to prevent inventory loss?

A
  • Travel sheets
  • Appropriate setting of fees
  • Structured inventory system
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37
Q

Direct (external) marketing is aimed towards who?

ex. Yellow Pages, newspaper ads, brochures

A

Potential clients

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38
Q

Internal marketing targets who?

ex. dental kits, newsletters, reminders, brochures

A

Existing clients

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39
Q

Client education, clean facilities, sincerity, honest service are examples of what type of marketing?

A

Indirect (unintentional; in-house marketing)

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40
Q

DART?

A

Disaster Animal Response Team

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41
Q

MART?

A

Mississippi Animal Response Team

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42
Q

SCDART?

A

Student Chapter of Disaster Animal Response Team

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43
Q

Purposes of Medical Records?

A
  • Identifies the patient and owner
  • Supports the generation of diagnostic and treatment plans
  • Supports continuity of care
  • Supports communication with team members and owners
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44
Q

Release of medical records

A

Before a copy of any record can be released to a client, another veterinarian, or an insurance company an authorization form or letter of request must be submitted by the animal’s owner.
Exceptions:
-Reportable diseases
-Rabies vaccination status

45
Q

Ad lib?

A

As desired

46
Q

Sid?

A

Once a day

47
Q

Bid?

A

Twice a day

48
Q

Tid?

A

Three times a day

49
Q

Qid?

A

Four times a day

50
Q

Qh?

A

Every hour

51
Q

q8h?

A

Every 8 hours

52
Q

U/A?

A

Urinalysis

53
Q

qd?

A

Every day

54
Q

STAT?

A

Urgent; rush

55
Q

DSH?

A

Domestic Short Hair

56
Q

DLH?

A

Domestic Long Hair

57
Q

Dx?

A

Diagnose

58
Q

Hx?

A

History

59
Q

Rx?

A

Prescription

60
Q

Sx?

A

Surgery

61
Q

TPR?

A

Temperature, Pulse, Respiration

62
Q

RMSF?

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

63
Q

RV?

A

Residual Volume

64
Q

FIP?

A

Feline Infectious Peritonitis

65
Q

FeLV?

A

Feline Leukemia Virus

66
Q

FIV?

A

Feline Immunodeficiency Virus

67
Q

DOA?

A

Dead on Arrival

68
Q

HW?

A

Heartworm

69
Q

Fec?

A

Fecal

70
Q

ECG?

A

Electrocardiogram

71
Q

FUO?

A

Fever of Unknown Origin

72
Q

N?

A

Normal

73
Q

A?

A

Abnormal

74
Q

IM?

A

Intramuscular

75
Q

IV?

A

Intravenous

76
Q

ICU?

A

Intensive Care Unit

77
Q

FUS?

A

Feline Urological Syndrome

78
Q

IP?

A

Intraperitoneal

79
Q

SQ?

A

Subcutaneous

80
Q

Common components of medical records

A
  • Client and patient information
  • History form
  • Master problem list
  • Working problem list
  • Progress notes (SOAP)
  • Physical examination form
  • May also include authorization forms and copies of discharge instructions
81
Q

Client Information

A
  • Name of owner
  • Address
  • Home/cell/work/alternate number
  • Referring person (if applicable)
82
Q

Patient Information

A
  • Name of the animal
  • Signalment
  • Color and markings
  • If applicable, tattoo, microchip number, and identification number
83
Q

Master Problem List

A

Includes the major medical disorders experienced by the patient in its lifetime

  • They are listed in chronological order
  • A date is noted if they are resolved
84
Q

Working Problem List

A

Often used in veterinary teaching hospitals more than in private practice.

  • Only contains signs, no true diagnosis is placed on this list
  • When a final diagnosis is made, it is placed on the MPL
85
Q

Pertinent history:

A 
The presenting complaint
Last normal
Frequency of episodes
Client observations/concerns
Current medications
Allergies
Current diet
86
Q

Previous history:

A
  • Previous problems
  • Previous treatments and response
  • Previous surgeries, medications, and diagnostic tests
  • Immunization history
  • Environmental and travel history
  • Patient’s weight history
  • Previous diets
87
Q

Physical:

A
  • Date, signalment, patient name
  • TPR, hydration status
  • Physical exam findings
  • Problem list
  • Tentative diagnosis -> definitive diagnosis
  • Prognosis, plan, treatments
  • ALL PROCEDURES PERFORMED
  • ALL CLIENT COMMUNICATIONS
88
Q

SOAPs?

A

S- subjective
O- objective
A- assessment
P- plan

89
Q

Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan

A
  • Subjective: should describe your evaluation of the animal
  • Objective: filled with data that you get from doing your physical exam, or any diagnostic tests (blood glucose)
  • Assessment: assessment of your patient
  • Plan: where you add treatments, tests, discharge plans
90
Q

Discharge instructions:

A
  • Case summary
  • List of procedures
  • List of medications
  • At home care
  • Re-check appointment
91
Q

The system of moral principles that determines appropriate behavior and actions within a specific group?

A

Ethics

92
Q

4 branches of Ethics:

A

Descriptive
Official
Administrative
Normative

93
Q

ASPCA?

A

American Society of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals

94
Q

Human-animal bond?

A

The special, healthy, relationship between people and their pets

95
Q

The duty to exercise the care that would be exercised by a reasonably competent veterinarian under the same circumstances?

A

Standards for animal care

96
Q

Three R’s of biomedical research

A

Replacement
Reduction
Refinement

97
Q

Performance of an act that a reasonable person under the same circumstances would not perform?

A

Negligence

98
Q

Can be considered a form of negligence; and it can be intentional and unintentional. It refers to unprofessional, illegal, or immoral conduct

A

Malpractice

99
Q

4 basic elements of malpractice:

A
  • Valid client-patient relationship must exist
  • Breach of duty
  • Proximate cause
  • Damages or harm were incurred by the patient as a result of neglect
100
Q

Examples of malpractice:

A
  • Incorrect drug administration
  • Incorrect strength of drug
  • Failure to clean animals
  • Abandonment
  • Failure to communicate
  • Disease transmission
  • Use of defective equipment or medication
101
Q

Ways to avoid malpractice suits:

A
  • Communicate with the client
  • Document every conversation in the medical record
  • Document every medication, procedure, etc, in the medical record
  • Document every recommendation and declined procedure
  • Inform clients before they make decisions
  • Refer the case if needed
102
Q

4 main categories of law that govern the daily practices in a veterinary practice:

A

Federal law
State law
Local/municipal law
Common law

103
Q

Laws that maintain a non-hostile working environment:

A 
Federal law
   - EEO
Common Law
   - Discrimination on the basis of sex, race, or religious belief
   - Whistle blower
104
Q

Most common complaints to the Board of Veterinary Medicine

A
  • Lack of communication
  • Unexpected death
  • Disrespect of clients
  • Unexpected expenses
  • Unexpected long-term care of injured or debilitated patients
105
Q

Most common violations presented to the Board of Veterinary Medicine:

A

Conduct
Record keeping
Premises violations
Pharmaceutical violations

106
Q

Designed to protect employees who work with animals. Written for the specific activities of each institution

A

Occupation Health and Safety Program (OHSP)

107
Q

Detailed description of how each important procedure should be performed?

A

Standard Operational Procedure (SOP)

108
Q

CDC Biosafety classifications?

A

Levels I, II, III, IV.

Higher the level, more risk involved with that level

Basis Pac Proc & Mgt (3 decks)

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