EXAM 1 Med Surg Flashcards

1
Q

The charge nurse is making assignments for clients cared for on the intensive care stepdown unit. Which client will the charge nurse assign to the RN who has floated from the pediatric unit?

A

Client with acute asthma episode who is receiving oxygen at FiO2 of 60% by non-rebreather mask

RATIONALE: The charge nurse would assign the asthma client to the float pediatric nurse. Because asthma is a common pediatric diagnosis, the pediatric nurse would be familiar with the assessment and care needed for a client with this diagnosis.

Although chronic pleural effusions can occur in the pediatric population, this diagnosis is more common in the adult population. If this client has not already received teaching for this procedure, he or she may have questions that the pediatric nurse would not be as comfortable answering as a nurse who is regularly assigned to the stepdown unit. Emphysema is a diagnosis associated with an adult population. Although an RN could instruct a client about home oxygen therapy, this client might have questions that would be better answered by an RN with adult experience. The adult client who has just had a lobectomy needs careful assessment from an RN with adult stepdown unit experience.

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2
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who has had a lobectomy and placement of a chest tube 8 hours ago. When performing an initial assessment, which of these requires immediate follow up?

A

200 mL red drainage from chest tube over 2 hours

RATIONALE: The nurse must immediately report 200 mL of red drainage over a 2 hour span of time. Chest drainage should slow down after surgery. More than 70 mL of drainage/hour must be reported to the surgeon.

A client who had a surgical procedure, anesthesia, and analgesia may spend most of the day sleeping, but should be able to be aroused. A small amount of drainage after surgery is expected, such as a 3 cm area. The nurse should circle the area and report increasing amounts to the surgeon. Pain at the surgical and chest tube insertion site is expected and will be managed by the nurse in collaboration with the provider after airway, breathing, and circulation are ensured.

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3
Q

A client has just been admitted to the intensive care unit after having a left lower lobectomy via video-assisted thorascopic surgery. Which of these prescriptions will the nurse implement first?

A

Titrate oxygen flow rate to keep O2 saturation at or greater than 93%

RATIONALE: Airway and oxygenation are main priorities in the immediate postoperative period. The client will likely be intubated, so coordination of care with respiratory therapy will be important.

Although antibiotic therapy may be ordered, this is not a priority at this time. Pain management in the postoperative period is important, but is secondary to airway, breathing, and circulation. PRBCs to maintain the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood will be performed after oxygenation. Pain medication and antibiotic administration will be performed last.

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4
Q

The change-of-shift report has just been completed on the medical-surgical unit. Which client will the oncoming nurse plan to assess first?

A

Client with cystic fibrosis (CF) who has an elevated temperature and a respiratory rate of 38 breaths/min

RATIONALE: The client with CF with an elevated temperature and respiratory rate of 38 breaths/min is exhibiting signs of an exacerbation/infection and needs to be assessed first.

The nurse will need to speak with the client who has COPD to help find a plan that will enable the client to obtain his or her prescribed medications. This may involve contacting case management or social services and discussing the discharge with the discharge health care provider. An oxygen saturation of 89% may be normal and expected for a hospice client with end-stage pulmonary fibrosis. There is no indication that this client is in distress. The nurse can delegate administration of the IV antibiotic to another RN, or it could be administered before the client is brought to the operating room.

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5
Q

A client with acute exacerbation of asthma has been admitted to the medical surgical unit for treatment. The client is reporting increased shortness of breath with inspiratory and expiratory wheezes. When planning care for this client, which medication will the nurse administer first?

A

Albuterol-2 inhalations

RATIONALE: The nurse first needs to administer Albuterol, which is a rescue medication, to treat the client with increased shortness of breath with inspiratory and expiratory wheezes. Albuterol is a rapidly acting beta2 agonist that promotes bronchodilation.

Fluticasone is a corticosteroid and needs to be given after a bronchodilator is given to open the airways. It is used to prevent asthma attacks by decreasing airway inflammation, and is not used as a rescue medication. Ipratropium is an anticholinergic drug that allows the sympathetic system to dominate and cause bronchodilation. It is not immediately effective like a short acting a beta2 agonist, so it is not a first-line drug. Salmeterol is a long-acting beta2 agonist that must be used regularly over time and is not used as a rescue medication.

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6
Q

The nurse is providing education to a client with chronic bronchitis who has a new prescription for a mucolytic. Which of these will the nurse teach the client about the purpose of the medication?

A

Mucolytics thin secretions, allowing for easier expectoration

RATIONALE: Client with chronic bronchitis typically produces large amounts of thick mucus interfering with gas exchange. Mucolytic means “breaking down mucus,” resulting in thinner secretions which are easier to expectorate.

Mucolytics do not decrease secretion production. Mucolytics may increase gas exchange as secretions are cleared, but this is an indirect property and is not the main function. Mucolytics do not have any bronchodilation properties.

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7
Q

When caring for the client with chronic bronchitis, which of these interventions will assist the client in mobilizing secretions?

A

consume at least 2 liters of fluid daily

RATIONALE: Clients with chronic bronchitis tend to have thick secretions. Hydration with at least 2 liters of fluid daily thins tenacious (sticky) secretions, making them easier to expectorate. The goal is to consume fluid to thin secretions and perform controlled coughing. If health issues require fluid restriction, the client would attempt to consume the total amount permitted.

Head of bed elevation may promote oxygenation and lung expansion, but does not promote secretion mobilization. Clients need to sit with both feet on the floor when performing controlled coughing. The tripod position is assumed during episodes of hypoxemia, but will not facilitate mobilization of fluid.

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8
Q

he nurse in the clinic is following up on diagnostic testing for a client recently diagnosed with metastatic lung cancer and back pain. Which of these findings does the nurse expect to uncover?

A

Hypercalcemia

RATIONALE: Hypercalcemia is the result of increasing parathyroid hormone as a paraneoplastic complication of cancer as well as bone metastasis. Bone metastasis should be suspected in the presence of back pain.

Paraneoplastic syndromes are manifested by Cushing’s syndrome, weight gain and dilution of electrolytes (SIADH) with resulting hyponatremia. Gynecomastia and hypoglycemia may also occur. Hyperkalemia most typically occurs with tumor lysis syndrome where multiple electrolyte imbalances develop impaired renal function and oliguria.

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9
Q

The nurse is educating the client with COPD who requires home oxygen therapy for discharge. Which of these teaching points takes the highest priority?

A

Removing combustion hazards present in the home

RATIONALE: The highest priority of education is that oxygen is highly combustible. The nurse must ensure that no open flames or combustion hazards are present in a room where oxygen is in use.

The oxygen delivery system in the home will be different than in the hospital. Therefore, this skill may be verified by the visiting nurse or company providing the oxygen. The client must be able to state signs and symptoms of hypoxemia, although safety is the priority. Pulse oximetry may be useful for monitoring the client’s oxygenation status and the visiting nurse or respiratory therapy partner can assess this. The client needs to be able to state the signs and symptoms of hypoxemia and when to notify the health care provider.

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10
Q

The nurse is preparing to administer oxygen to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has hypoxemia and hypercarbia. The nurse recognizes that a positive outcome to therapy has been achieved by which of these findings?

A

The oxygen saturation is between 88% and 90%

RATIONALE: Clients with hypoxemia, even those with COPD and hypercarbia, should receive oxygen therapy at rates appropriate to reduce hypoxia and maintain SpO2 levels between 88% and 92%.

Gases diffuse independently, therefore applying oxygen will not decrease the carbon dioxide level; hypoxemia may still be present. Flushing of the face can be a symptom of hypercarbia. A report of less distress is appropriate. The nurse, in any case, needs to use an objective measure of oxygenation such as pulse oximetry or blood gas results.

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11
Q

The nurse on a medical surgical unit is planning bed assignments for a new admission who has cystic fibrosis (CF) and is infected with Burkholderia cepacia. Which of these room assignments is most appropriate for this client?

A

A private room with a bathroom

RATIONALE: The most appropriate room for this client is a private room and separate bathroom. This provides maximum protection from organisms which can easily cause infection in the client with CF. A serious bacterial infection for clients with CF is Burkholderia cepacia, which is spread by casual contact from one CF client to another. To reduce spread of infection, measures include separating infected CF clients from noninfected CF clients on hospital units and seeing them in the clinic on different days.

Laminar air flow is used in operating rooms and other areas where removing circulating air will provide for infection prevention. This is not required for those with CF. A client with Down syndrome may be unable to be careful with covering the mouth when coughing, using tissues, and handwashing, and would not be cohorted with a client who has high risk for infection.

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12
Q

When caring for a client who had a lobectomy the nurse notes small bubbles in the water seal chamber of the disposable chest drainage device during coughing. Which of these reflects the appropriate action by the nurse?

A

Document the finding in the medical record

RATIONALE: The nurse recognizes that gentle bubbling in the water seal chamber is normal during the client’s exhalation, forceful cough, or position changes. This indicates air is leaving the pleural space which is the intended purpose of the chest drain.

Bubbling in the water seal chamber is absent if a kink or a blockage is present because air would not be able to escape from the chest cavity. Increasing the amount of suction without an order could damage lung tissue. There is no indication that the level of fluid in the water seal chamber is low.

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13
Q

After receiving education on the correct use of emergency drug therapy for asthma, which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the nurse’s instructions?

A

“I must have my emergency inhaler with me at all times.”

RATIONALE: The statement by the client that indicates a correct understanding of the instructions is that the emergency inhaler must be with the client at all times. Because asthma attacks cannot always be predicted, clients with asthma must always carry a rescue inhaler such as a short-acting beta agonist (e.g., albuterol).

Asthma medications are specific to the disease and to the client and should never be shared or used by anyone other than the person for whom they are prescribed. They are not always good for everyone and, in fact, may do harm. An emergency inhaler should be carried all the time and not just when activity is anticipated. Preventive drugs are those that are taken every day to help prevent an attack from occurring, and do not stop an attack once it begins.

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14
Q

The client says, “I hate this stupid COPD.” What is the best response by the nurse?

A

“You sound fed up with managing your illness.”

RATIONALE: The best response by the nurse is “You sound fed up with managing your illness.” This response encourages the client to express his or her feelings about the disease and its challenges.

Lecturing the client regarding his smoking habits disregards the client’s need for support. “Why” questions can seem accusatory and may make a client less likely to talk about what he or she is feeling. Asking the client if anyone in the family has COPD is a “yes” or “no” question and does not encourage the client to talk about his or her feelings. The client’s feelings should never be minimized.

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15
Q

Which statement by a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and a 10 pound (4.5 kg) weight loss indicates the need for additional follow-up instruction?

A

“I should consume plenty of fluids with my meal.”

RATIONALE: The need for additional follow-up instruction is noted when the client states that he or she will drink more fluids before and during meals. This action will cause a sensation of fullness and limit adequate nourishment.

Eating smaller, more frequent meals, trying to eat more protein, and performing mouth care before eating are all appropriate and positive client comments.

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16
Q

The nurse is assessing a client admitted with status asthmaticus. The nurse finds a sudden absence of wheezing in the lung fields and sets which of these as the priority action?

A

Activation of the rapid response team to secure an airway

RATIONALE: Sudden absence of wheezing in a client having an asthma attack indicates complete airway obstruction and requires immediate action; a tracheotomy may be required.

This is an emergency and educating the client is not appropriate. A bronchodilator is given when breath sounds are present and the client can inhale. Reducing anxiety is not a consideration in an emergency situation.

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17
Q

The school nurse is teaching a group of adolescents about risk factors for lung cancer and lung disease. Which of these would be included in the discussion?

A

Cigarette smoking

RATIONALE: Cigarette smoking is highly addictive and is the number-one risk factor for lung cancer and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

Alcohol can cause some cancers and liver disease and can increase risky behaviors, but it is not a major cause of lung cancer. Cocaine use, while highly addictive, poses a risk for cardiovascular disorders such as ACS, MI, or stroke. Heroin use does not increase one’s risk of developing lung disease or lung cancer.

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18
Q

A client with COPD calls the pulmonary clinic reporting the last 24 hours the peak flow meter readings have been in the yellow range. Which of these interventions by the nurse is appropriate at this time?

A

Use your prescription for rescue medication and retest yourself

RATIONALE: The nurse would tell the client to use the rescue medication and then retest. This instruction by the nurse is appropriate. Reliever drugs (also called “rescue” drugs) are used to stop an attack once it has started or when the peak flow meter is in the yellow range or 50%–80% of personal best range.

The reading is not satisfactory. Frequent readings in the yellow zone indicate the need to reassess the asthma plan and the need to possibly change controller drugs. Satisfactory readings are in the green zone and are at least 80% of or better than the personal best readings. The client needs to seek care in the ED when the readings are in the red zone or below 50% of the personal best reading. Nurses do not prescribe medications or change dosing.

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19
Q

The nurse is evaluating understanding of the treatment regimen for a client newly diagnosed with asthma. Which of these statements by the client indicates understanding of the regimen?

A

“I will take the long acting beta agonist even when my breathing seems OK.”

RATIONALE: The client indicates understanding of the dosing regimen when stating, “I will take the long-acting beta agonist even when my breathing seems OK.” Long-acting medications are useful in preventing an asthma attack but cannot stop an acute attack.

Short-acting beta2 agonists (SABAs) provide rapid, short-term relief. These “rescue” type inhaled drugs are most useful when an attack begins (as relief) or as premedication when the client is about to begin an activity that is likely to induce an attack. They are not used on a regular schedule. The client must always carry the relief drug inhaler with him or her and ensure that they do not run out of this medication. Anti-inflammatory medications decrease airway inflammation and are considered controller medications. They are not used for acute attacks.

20
Q

When caring for the client returning from thoracotomy and placement of a chest tube, the client reports severe pain. What does the nurse do first?

A

Assess location and quality of pain

RATIONALE: The nurse would assess the location, quality, radiation, severity of the pain, and the last time the client received pain medication before other actions are taken. Taking medication before pain becomes severe needs to be emphasized.

The professional nurse is qualified to assess pain and provide pain medication when indicated. There is no information that suggests the client is unstable requiring the RRT to be called. The nurse will assess the chest drainage system at intervals, but pain is not typical when a chest tubes is blocked. The nurse would not call the health care provider before assessing the client’s pain.

21
Q

A client recently diagnosed with asthma has a prescription to use an inhaled medication with a spacer. The nurse evaluates the client has correct understanding of the use of an inhaler with a spacer when the client states which of these? (Select all that apply.)

A
  • “If the spacer makes a whistling sound, I am breathing in too rapidly.”
  • “I should hold my breath for at least ten seconds after inhaling the medication.”

RATIONALE: Slow and deep breaths ensure that the medication is reaching deeply into the lungs. The whistling noise serves as a reminder to the client of which technique needs to be used. The client should hold the breath for at least 10 seconds, however attempting to hold the breath for a minute is unnecessary and could pose a threat to oxygenation.

The client must wait 1 minute between puffs regardless of the method of delivery of the medication. The client should rinse the mouth but not swallow the water. The mouth needs to be rinsed after using an inhaler with or without a spacer. This is especially important if the inhaled medication is a corticosteroid; rinsing will help prevent the development of an oral fungal infection. An empty inhaler will float on its side in water while a full inhaler will sink. Shaking an inhaler helps ensure that the medication is dispersed and the same dose is delivered in each puff.

22
Q

The nurse is providing preoperative teaching for the client with lung cancer for whom a lobectomy is planned. Which of these does the nurse include in the preoperative education session? (Select all that apply.)

A
  • “You will wake up with a drain in your chest which removes blood and allows the remaining lung to expand.”
  • “Plan to request pain medication before your pain becomes severe.”
  • “You may have a tube in your throat connected to a mechanical ventilator to assist you with breathing.”

RATIONALE: Preoperative teaching for a client scheduled to have a lobectomy for cancer includes telling the client that a chest drain will be in place, to request pain medication before the pain gets severe, and the possibility of having an endotracheal tube in the throat to assist with breathing.

The nurse providing preoperative teaching for the lobectomy client would not tell the client that he or she will be able to get out of bed after the chest tube is removed. Bed rest may be necessary beyond the time the chest tube is removed in order to allow for proper healing; conversely the presence of the tube is not a contraindication for sitting in a chair. The nurse would not tell the client to lie on the operative side; this is typical after a pneumonectomy. Lying on either the operative or nonoperative side is a decision made by the surgeon.

23
Q

The nurse is providing teaching for a client who has been newly diagnosed with lung cancer and will be undergoing radiation therapy. Which of these points would be covered in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)

A
  • Do not expose the site to sun
  • Fatigue may occur
  • Changes in taste may occur

RATIONALE: Skin in the path of radiation is more sensitive to sun damage. Clients must avoid direct skin exposure to the sun during treatment and for at least 1 year after radiation is completed. Side effects also include skin irritation and peeling, fatigue, nausea, and taste changes. Some clients have esophagitis during therapy, making nutrition more difficult.

Alopecia, or hair loss, is a side effect of chemotherapy, not of radiation to the chest. Loss of appetite is not specific to radiation therapy. Radiation therapy itself is painless and sensation-free.

24
Q

Which client does the charge nurse on the medical-surgical unit assign to an RN who has floated from the postanesthesia care unit (PACU)?

A

Client who had 1200 mL of pleural fluid removed by thoracentesis

RATIONALE: A nurse working in the PACU would be most familiar with assessing vital signs and respiratory status for a postoperative client after an invasive procedure such as thoracentesis. When a large volume of fluid has been removed, there is a greater risk for instability. This client is within this nurse’s skill set.

Endoscopy is typically performed with sedation, not general anesthesia, which will not require the critical rescue skills of the PACU nurse. Pulmonary function testing is not a procedure the PACU nurse would typically encounter nor will it require the skill level of the PACU nurse. Although a client with pancreatitis is seriously ill and would require a chest x-ray before undergoing operative procedures, a nurse with a PACU monitoring skill set would not be required.

25
Q

The RN and the LPN/LVN are working together to provide care for a group of clients on a medical surgical unit. Which of these actions is most appropriate for the RN to perform?

A

Plan client and family teaching regarding upcoming pulmonary function testing

RATIONALE: The most appropriate action for the RN to perform is developing the teaching plan for upcoming pulmonary function test. These skills are complex, requiring use of the nursing process, and are not in the scope of practice of the LPN/LVN.

Medication administration and monitoring of vital signs and client status after procedures can be accomplished by the LPN/LVN. Monitoring of oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry can also be included in the vital signs assessment.

26
Q

A client has returned to the medical surgical unit after a bronchoscopy. Which nursing task is best for the charge nurse to delegate to the experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

A

Monitor blood pressure and pulse

RATIONALE: The best nursing task for the charge nurse to delegate to the experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is monitoring blood pressure and pulse. An experienced UAP would have experience in taking client vital signs after procedures requiring conscious sedation or anesthesia.

Evaluating breath sounds, gag reflex, and determining level of consciousness are considered nursing assessments and require the skill and knowledge of a higher-level provider or professional nurse.

27
Q

The RN has received report about four clients. Which client needs the most immediate assessment?

A

Client with acute asthma who has an oxygen saturation of 89% by pulse oximetry

RATIONALE: The client in need of the most immediate assessment is the one with acute asthma with an oxygen saturation of 89% by pulse oximetry. An oxygen saturation level less than 91% indicates hypoxemia and instability requiring immediate assessment and intervention to improve blood and tissue oxygenation.

The client who is scheduled for a thoracentesis will be able to receive teaching and will have the opportunity to ask questions and have them answered before the procedure is performed. There is no evidence the client who had a bronchoscopy 3 hours ago is unstable and therefore does not require attention at this moment. It would not be unusual to have diminished breath sounds at the base of the lung of the client with pleural effusion.

28
Q

The home health nurse is assigned to visit these clients when a change in agency staffing requires that one of the clients be rescheduled for a visit on the following day. Which client will be best to reschedule?

A

Client with emphysema who has been on home oxygen for a month and has SpO2 levels of 91% to 93%

RATIONALE: The best client for the nurse to reschedule for a home visit is the client with chronic emphysema who is on home oxygen and who has an appropriate SpO2 level. A SpO2 level of between 89% and 92% is appropriate and satisfactory.

The client with a positive Mantoux test, in addition to a history of cough, weight loss, and night sweats, is highly suspicious for tuberculosis and needs to be seen that day. The nurse needs to perform follow-up assessment and coordinate follow up testing. The nurse may need to provide reporting to the public health department and to develop a plan for close personal contacts. A client with a newly diagnosed pleural effusion needs a complete and thorough admission and intake assessment to ensure that oxygenation and underlying needs are addressed. A percutaneous lung biopsy may be performed as an outpatient procedure. The client who had a percutaneous lung biopsy and is experiencing increased dyspnea needs to be assessed that day to determine whether a life-threatening pneumothorax or hemothorax has developed.

29
Q

Which assessment finding in the client with exacerbation of emphysema requires intervention by the nurse?

A

Bronchial breath sounds heard at the bases

RATIONALE: The client with bronchial breath sounds needs intervention by the nurse. These sounds are not normally heard in the periphery and may indicate atelectasis or increased lung density, as might present with a tumor or an infectious process such as pneumonia.

The anteroposterior diameter is the same as the lateral-to-lateral or side-to-side diameter in a client with emphysema, so the client will generally have a barrel-shaped chest. Air-filled cavities, such as the lung, are hyperresonant to percussion. Air trapping causes the ribs in a client with emphysema to lie in a more horizontal direction.

30
Q

The nurse in the outpatient clinic is scheduling a client for pulmonary function tests. When teaching the client about pulmonary function testing (PFT), which point is essential for the nurse to emphasize?

A

Ensure the client does not smoke for 6 hours before the test

RATIONALE: The essential nursing intervention for a client being prepared for a PFT is to make sure that the client does not smoke for 6 hours before the test. Smoking can alter parts of the PFT (diffusing capacity [DLCO]), yielding inaccurate results.

Administering bronchodilators is not indicated for PFT, but they may be withheld for 4 to 6 hours before the test. Encouraging fluid intake does not have an effect on PFT testing. Supplemental oxygen is not required and will alter the results of PFT. However, oxygen may be given if the client develops distress during testing.

31
Q

The nurse is preparing a client with possible pulmonary embolism for a CT scan with contrast. Prior to the scan, which of these assessment questions is essential for the nurse to ask?

A

“Did you take metformin today?”

RATIONALE: The assessment question that is essential for the nurse to ask is, “Did you take metformin today?” IV contrast material can be nephrotoxic. Metformin is stopped at least 24 hours before contrast dye is used and is not restarted until adequate kidney function is confirmed.

If pulmonary embolism is confirmed, warfarin may be prescribed. If so, vitamin K-containing foods and vitamins will need to be limited. Peanut allergy does not pose a risk with contrast. Shortness of breath is a typical finding when a PE is present, and is not the priority assessment prior to CT.

32
Q

The nurse is caring for four clients who came to the emergency department with a productive cough. Which of these clients requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

A

The client with pink, frothy sputum

RATIONALE: The nurse would immediately assess and interview the client with a productive cough and pink, frothy sputum. Pink, frothy sputum is common with pulmonary edema, a life-threatening exacerbation of heart failure. This client requires immediate assessment and intervention.

Blood in the sputum may occur with chronic bronchitis or lung cancer. These conditions develop over time and therefore do not require immediate attention. Mucoid sputum may be related to smoking and does not require immediate attention. Although yellow sputum may indicate an infection that requires treatment, the condition is not life threatening.

33
Q

A client with asthma reports shortness of breath. Which of these findings does the nurse anticipate when assessing this client’s chest?

A

Expiratory wheezing not cleared by coughing

RATIONALE: In a client with asthma and shortness of breath, the nurse expects to hear expiratory wheezing not cleared by coughing. Wheezes are squeaky, musical, continuous sounds associated with bronchospasm, typical with asthma. They may be heard without a stethoscope and usually do not clear with coughing.

Bronchial breath sounds are normal breath sounds, heard over the trachea and larynx. Crackles, an adventitious breath sound, will sound like popping, discontinuous sounds caused by air moving into previously deflated airways or coarse rattling sounds caused by fluid. Bronchovesicular breath sounds are normal breath sounds heard over major bronchi where fewer alveoli are located. They are best heard between the scapula and anterior chest.

34
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure and acute kidney injury. For which of these breath sounds will the nurse assess?

A

Crackles

RATIONALE: When caring for a client with heart failure and acute kidney disease, the nurse would assess for crackles. Crackles are described as a popping, discontinuous sound caused by air moving into previously deflated airways or areas of fluid.

Rhonchi are low-pitched, coarse snoring sounds caused by thick secretions in larger airways. A pleural friction rub sounds grating, loud, or scratchy as inflamed surfaces of the pleura rub together. Wheezes are frequently referred to as musical or squeaky sounds caused by bronchospasm. They may occur on inspiration or on expiration as air rushes through narrowed airways.

35
Q

The nurse in the medical clinic is performing an assessment on an older adult client. Which finding requires further assessment by the nurse?

A

Inability to state name and date of birth

RATIONALE: The nurse would further assess the client who is unable to state name and date of birth. The older adult has a higher risk for hypoxemia than a younger client. The older adult can become confused during acute respiratory conditions, which requires additional investigation.

Progressive Kyphoscoliosis occurs with aging because the thorax becomes shorter. With aging, laryngeal muscles lose elasticity, and airways lose cartilage causing the client’s voice to become soft and difficult to understand. This is due to age-related changes in chest wall compliance and elasticity. Increased need for rest periods during exercise may occur.

36
Q

The nurse in a life care community for geriatric clients is providing education to a group of residents on expected changes during aging. Which of these activities does the nurse encourage the older adult to perform to maintain respiratory function?

A

Walk as tolerated each day

RATIONALE: The best activity for the older adult to perform in order to maintain respiratory function is to try and walk each day. Ambulation to the client’s ability is easily performed in an older adult facility as it does not require special equipment. Health and fitness help keep losses in respiratory functioning to a minimum.

Older clients have less tolerance for exercise and may need increased rest periods during exercise. However, bedrest is not necessary or desirable. Encouraging adequate calcium intake to prevent osteoporosis is more helpful prior to menopause, and is less helpful with elderly clients. Oral hygiene aids in the removal of secretions when present, but is not the best intervention to maintain respiratory function.

37
Q

The nurse is preparing the client for a diagnostic bronchoscopy. Which nursing intervention is essential for the nurse to perform prior to the procedure?

A

Ensure the client has had nothing by mouth

RATIONALE: When preparing a client for a diagnostic bronchoscopy, it is essential for the nurse to make sure the client is NPO for 4 to 8 hours before the procedure to reduce the risk for aspiration.

It is important to verify allergies, however ensuring NPO status is maintained is essential to prevent aspiration, which can be life threatening. The nurse will verify that consent for the procedure was obtained. Until the client has a gag reflex and is fully alert, he or she should be maintained on NPO status to prevent aspiration. Aggressive chest physiotherapy is not indicated in a client who has had a bronchoscopy and may cause bleeding if biopsies have been obtained.

38
Q

When caring for a client who has just undergone thoracentesis, which of these interventions does the nurse perform first?

A

Schedule an immediate chest x-ray

RATIONALE: After thoracentesis, the nurse first makes sure a chest x-ray is performed to rule out possible pneumothorax and mediastinal shift (shift of central thoracic structures toward one side).

Coughing and deep breathing is done to promote lung expansion as part of the treatment for the underlying disorder. This can wait until a chest x-ray is completed. The volume of fluid will be recorded in the medical record, after the nurse schedules the x-ray to ensure a pneumothorax did not occur. Pigtail drain catheters may be left in place to a waterseal drainage system, rather than performing thoracentesis aspiration on a recurring basis, but this action is not standard.

39
Q

The nurse is assessing a client with chronic bronchitis who smoked 3 packs of cigarettes daily for 32 years. How does the nurse document pack-year history of smoking in the medical record?

A

Client has a 96 pack-year history

RATIONALE: This client has a 96-year pack history. Pack-year history refers to the number of packs per day multiplied by the number of years the client smoked.

Pack-year history refers to the number of packs per day multiplied by the number of years the client smoked.

40
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who just returned from an open lung biopsy and has a prescription for morphine by client controlled analgesia (PCA). Which of these actions to detect early opioid induced respiratory depression does the nurse recommend?

A

Continuous capnography

RATIONALE: For early detection of opioid-induced respiratory depression, the nurse recommends continuous capnography. Capnography detects exhaled carbon dioxide which increases during opioid-induced respiratory depression.

Capnography, to detect opioid-induced respiratory depression, has been proven to be superior for early detection of respiratory changes and is a more sensitive indicator of respiratory depression than pulse oximetry. Arterial blood gas measurement is painful and expensive, and is not practical to use this methodology on a continuous basis. Apnea monitoring will detect a lack of breathing, but capnography will alert the nurse to respiratory depression prior to that time.

41
Q

The nurse is working in an urgent care clinic where four clients are waiting to be seen. Which client needs to be evaluated first by the nurse?

A

Client who is speaking in three-word sentences and has an SpO2 of 90%

RATIONALE: The client that requires first and immediate evaluation by the nurse is the client who is speaking in three-word sentences and displaying dyspnea. This, coupled with an SpO2 of 90%, indicates hypoxemia.

The client displaying shortness of breath after walking up two flights of stairs may be displaying signs/symptoms of underlying cardiopulmonary disease. This is not an emergency as there is no indication of dyspnea at rest. Induration, not redness, reflects a positive Mantoux test with possible TB. This develops slowly and will not take priority over airway and breathing. Sore throat and fever are symptoms of infection that require further evaluation, but not emergently.

42
Q

A client is admitted to the medical floor with a new diagnosis of lung cancer. How will the nurse initially assist the client in managing the anxiety associated with the new diagnosis?

A

Encourage the client to ask questions and verbalize concerns

RATIONALE: The best way for the nurse to initially assist the client in managing anxiety related to a new diagnosis of cancer is to encourage the client to ask questions and voice concerns. The availability of the nurse to answer questions and listen to the client’s concerns will help to decrease anxiety.

The client may choose to be alone, although this may be a maladaptive coping behavior. Diazepam every 8 hours will reduce the client’s anxiety but not help to manage its cause such as fear of the unknown or fear of death. It is more important to work with the client to assist him or her in dealing with those issues first. Knowledge about cancer diagnosis and treatment may help relieve anxiety but the nurse must first assess the client’s needs as well as the plan of care.

43
Q

A client is admitted to the surgical floor with chest pain, shortness of breath, and hypoxemia after having a knee replacement. What primary assessment will the nurse make while preparing the client for a computed tomography (CT) scan?

A

“Are you allergic to iodine or shellfish?”

RATIONALE: While preparing the client for a CT scan, the nurse’s primary assessment would be to determine whether the client has any sensitivity to the contrast material by asking if the client has a known allergy to contrast, iodine or shellfish. CT scans, especially spiral or helical CT scans, with injected contrast can detect pulmonary emboli.

Assessing for any metal in the body is done when clients undergo MRI. Diabetes is not a contraindication for CT with contrast. However, if the client receives metformin, the drug is stopped at least 24 hours before contrast dye is used and withheld until adequate kidney function is confirmed. Assessing regular alcohol intake is important, but is not the primary assessment.

44
Q

The emergency department nurse is assessing a client who believes he has sustained a pneumothorax after an outpatient thoracentesis earlier today. For which of these symptoms will the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)

A
  • Sensation of air hunger
  • Tracheal deviation
  • Blue discoloration of the lips

RATIONALE: The nurse would assess for a pneumothorax if the client has a sensation of air hunger, tracheal deviation, and blue discoloration of the lips. All clients need to be taught to go to the ED for symptoms of a pneumothorax after a thoracentesis. Symptoms include pain on the affected side, rapid heart rate, rapid, shallow respirations, sensation of air hunger, prominence of the affected side that does not move in and out with respiratory effort, tracheal deviation to the unaffected, new onset of “nagging” cough and cyanosis.

Tachycardia, rather than bradycardia, is consistent with a pneumothorax. Pain occurs on the affected side, not the unaffected side.

45
Q

The nurse is providing education on preventing pulmonary disorders at a community health fair. Which of these groups does the nurse target? (Select all that apply.)

A
  • Bakers
  • Coal miners
  • Furniture refinishers
  • Potters

RATIONALE: The groups the nurse targets as people at risk for pulmonary disorders include bakers, coal miners, furniture refinishers, and potters. Being exposed to flour as a baker for prolonged periods of time may cause a condition called occupational asthma. Coal miners are at risk for developing pneumoconiosis as the result of inhalation of coal dust. Owing to the chemicals used to refinish furniture (paint strippers, solvents, etc.), masks and adequate ventilation are essential for furniture refinishers. One of the main solvents involved will metabolize in the body to carbon monoxide and will impair the ability of the tissue to extract oxygen. Silicosis or inhalation of silica dust is a hazard for professional and recreational potters.

Except in unique situations, electricians and plumbers do not need to wear masks or utilize special ventilation for their jobs.