Exam 1 (Material from Chapters 1 - 4) Flashcards

1
Q

Internet vs World Wide Web

A

The World Wide Web is a specific subset of the Internet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A _____ is the level of exposure to some event that has an effect on an asset

A

risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Definition of a vulnerability

A

A weakness that allows a threat to be realized or to have an effect on an asset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Definition of a threat

A

Any action, either natural or human induced, that could damage an asset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

_____ are hardware, operating system, and application software that work together to collect, process, and store data for individuals and organizations.

A

Information systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the collection of activities that protect the information system and the data stored in it?

A

Information systems security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some of the things we are securing?

A

Privacy of individuals
Corporate intellectual property
Online B2C and B2B transactions
Government intellectual property

(More examples on slide 11 from CH01 slides)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is confidentiality?

A

Only authorized users can view information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is integrity?

A

Only authorized users can change information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is availability?

A

Information is accessible by authorized users whenever they request the information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Confidential information includes?

A
  • Private data of individuals
  • Intellectual property of businesses
  • National security for countries and governments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is cryptography?

A

Practice of hiding data and keeping it away from unauthorized users

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is encryption?

A

The process of transforming data from cleartext into ciphertext

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is ciphertext?

A

The scrambled data that results from encrypting cleartext

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Availability Time Measurements

A

Uptime
Downtime
Availability [A = (Total Uptime)/(Total Uptime + Total Downtime)]
Mean time to failure (MTTF)
Mean time to repair (MTTR)
Mean time between failures (MTBF)
Recovery point objective (RPO)
Recovery time objective (RTO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the seven domains of a typical IT infrastructure?

A
  • User Domain
  • Workstation Domain
  • LAN Domain
  • LAN-to-WAN Domain
  • WAN Domain
  • Remote Access Domain
  • System/Application Domain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Common Threats in the User Domain

A
  • Unauthorized access
  • Lack of user awareness
  • User apathy toward policies
  • Security policy violations
  • User inserting CD/DVD/USB with personal files
  • User downloading photos, music, or videos
  • User destroying systems, applications, and data
  • Disgruntled employee attacking organization or committing sabotage
  • Employee romance gone bad
  • Employee blackmail or extortion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Common Threats in the Workstation Domain

A
  • Unauthorized workstation access
  • Unauthorized access to systems, applications, and data
  • Desktop or laptop operating system and software vulnerabilities
  • Desktop or laptop application software vulnerabilities and patches
  • Viruses, malicious code, and other malware
  • User inserting CD/DVD/USB with personal files
  • User downloading photos, music, or videos
  • Security risk due to user violation of acceptable use policy (AUP)
  • Bring Your Own Device (BYOD)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Common Threats in the LAN Domain

A
  • Unauthorized access to LAN
  • Unauthorized access to systems, applications, and data
  • LAN server operating system software vulnerabilities
  • LAN server application software vulnerabilities and software patch updates
  • Unauthorized access by rogue users on wireless LANs (WLANs)
  • Compromised confidentiality of data on WLANs
  • LAN servers with different hardware, operating systems, and software make them difficult to manage and troubleshoot
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Common Threats in the LAN-to-WAN Domain

A
  • Unauthorized network probing and port scanning
  • Unauthorized access through the LAN-to-WAN Domain
  • Denial of service (DoS)/distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks
  • IP router, firewall, and network appliance operating system vulnerability
  • IP router, firewall, and network appliance configuration file errors or weaknesses
  • Remote user download of sensitive data
  • Download of unknown file type attachments from unknown sources
  • Unknown email attachments and embedded URL links received by local users
  • Lost productivity due to local users surfing the web
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Common Threats in the WAN Domain (Internet)

A
  • Open, public, and accessible data
  • Most Internet traffic sent as cleartext
  • Vulnerable to eavesdropping
  • Vulnerable to malicious attacks
  • Vulnerable to DoS and DDoS attacks, TCP synchronize (SYN) flooding, and IP spoofing attacks
  • Vulnerable to corruption of information/data
  • Insecure Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) applications
  • Hackers, attackers, and perpetrators email Trojans, worms, and malicious software
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Common Threats in the WAN Domain (Connectivity)

A
  • Commingling of WAN IP traffic on the same service provider router and infrastructure
  • Maintaining high WAN service availability
  • Maximizing WAN performance and throughput
  • Using Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) applications and protocols maliciously (ICMP, Telnet, SNMP, DNS, etc.)
  • SNMP alarms and security monitoring 24/7/365
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Common Threats in the Remote Access Domain

A
  • Brute-force user ID and password attacks
  • Multiple logon retries and access control attacks
  • Unauthorized remote access to IT systems, applications, and data
  • Private or confidential data compromised remotely
  • Data leakage in violation of data classification standards
  • A mobile worker’s laptop is stolen
  • Mobile worker token or other authentication stolen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Common Threats in the System/Application Domain

A
  • Unauthorized access to data centers, computer rooms, and wiring closets
  • Downtime of servers to perform maintenance
  • Server operating systems software vulnerability
  • Insecure cloud computing virtual environments by default
  • Susceptibility of client-server and web applications
  • Unauthorized access to systems
  • Data breach where private data is compromised
  • Corrupt or lost data
  • Loss of backed-up data as backup media are reused
  • Recovery of critical business functions potentially too time consuming to be useful
  • Downtime of IT systems for an extended period after a disaster
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the weakest link in security?

A

Humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are some strategies for reducing risk?

A
  • Check background of job candidates carefully
  • Evaluate staff regularly
  • Rotate access to sensitive systems, applications, and data among staff positions
  • Test applications and software and review for quality
  • Regularly review security plans
  • Perform annual security control audits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Who defined a policy regarding acceptable use of Internet geared toward U.S. citizens

A

U.S. government and Internet Architecture Board (IAB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A _____ is a short written statement that defines a course of action that applies to entire organization

A

policy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A ____ is a detailed written definition of how software and hardware are to be used

A

standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

___ are written instructions for how to use policies and standards.

A

Procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A ______ is a suggested course of action for using policy, standard, or procedure

A

guideline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Data Classification Standards

A
  • Private data
    — Data about people that must be kept private
  • Confidential
    — Information or data owned by the organization
  • Internal use only
    — Information or data shared internally by an organization
  • Public domain data
    — Information or data shared with the public
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

U.S. federal government data classification standards:

A
  • Top secret
    — Applies to information that the classifying authority finds would cause grave damage to national security if it were disclosed
  • Secret
    — Applies to information that the classifying authority finds would cause serious damage to national security if it were disclosed
  • Confidential
    — Applies to information that the classifying authority finds would cause damage to national security
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

____ activities should align with the organization’s strategic goals

A

Risk Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

T/F: Risks can be positive or negative

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is a common pitfall when building a risk management plan?

A

Limiting the scope of the risk identification process to just inside the organization. Organizations sometimes forget to consider vendors or supply chain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Risk = ______ x _________

A

Risk = Threat x Vulnerability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A ___ is an opportunity to exploit a vulnerability.

A

Threat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

An exploited vulnerability results in an ___.

A

Impact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A ____ is a description of how you will manage risk.

A

Risk methodology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a risk register?

A

A list of identified risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The process of identifying, assessing, prioritizing, and addressing risks is apart of what?

A

Risk Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

This is an analysis of an organization’s functions and activities that classifies them as critical or noncritical

A

Business impact analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

This identifies the impact to the business if one or more IT functions fails and identifies the priority of different critical systems

A

Business impact analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the BIA Recovery Goals and Requirements?

A

Recovery point objective (RPO)
Recovery time objective (RTO)
Business recovery requirements
Technical recovery requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

This is the target state of recovered data that allows an organization to continue normal processing; the maximum amount of data loss that is acceptable

A

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the maximum allowable time in which to recover the function

A

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

This identifies any other business functions that must already be in place for the specified recovery function to occur and help in determining the recovery sequence

A

Business recovery requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

This defines technical prerequisites that are needed to support each critical business function

A

Technical recovery requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

This is a written plan for a structured response to any events that result in an interruption to critical business activities or functions

A

Business continuity plan (BCP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the order of priorities for a business continuity plan?

A

Order of priorities:
Safety and well-being of people
Continuity of critical business functions and operations
Continuity of components within the seven domains of an IT infrastructure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the elements of a complete BCP?

A
  • Statement defining the policy, standards, procedures, and guidelines for deployment
  • Project team members with defined roles, responsibilities, and accountabilities
  • Emergency response procedures and protection of life, safety, and infrastructure
  • Situation and damage assessment
  • Resource salvage and recovery
  • Alternate facilities or triage for short- or long-term emergency mode of operations and business recovery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

This directs the actions necessary to recover resources after a disaster

A

Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

This extends and supports the BCP by identifying events that could cause damage to resources that are necessary to support critical business functions

A

Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Explain a hot site, warm site, cold site, and mobile site.

A

Hot site
– Has environmental utilities, hardware, software, and data like original data center

Warm site
– Has environmental utilities and basic computer hardware

Cold site
– Has basic environmental utilities but no infrastructure components

Mobile site
– Trailer with necessary environmental utilities that can operate as warm or cold site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the 5 DRP tests?

A

Checklist test
Structured walk-through
Simulation test
Parallel test
Full-interruption test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The difference between the security controls in place and controls you need to address vulnerabilities

A

Security gap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The comparison of the security controls in place and the controls you need to address all identified threats

A

Gap analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the steps for conducting gap analysis?

A
  • Identify the applicable elements of the security policy and other standards
  • Assemble policy, standard, procedure, and guideline documents
  • Review and assess the implementation of the policies, standards, procedures, and guidelines
  • Collect inventory information for all hardware and software components
  • Interview users to assess knowledge of and compliance with policies
  • Compare the current security environment to policies in place
  • Prioritize identified gaps for resolution
  • Document and implement the remedies to conform to policies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Name the compliance laws

A
  • Family Education Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA)
  • Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council (FFIEC)
  • Children’s Online Privacy Protection Act of 1998 (COPPA)
  • Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)
  • Government Information Security Reform Act (Security Reform Act) of 2000
  • The USA PATRIOT Act of 2001
  • Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA)
  • Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX)
  • California Security Breach Information Act (SB 1386) of 2003
  • Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
  • Federal Information Security Modernization Act (FISMA)
  • European Union General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) of 2016
  • Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)
  • California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) of 2018
61
Q

T/F: Cannot undo a confidentiality violation

A

True

62
Q

Give examples of how to keep data confidential.

A

Authentication controls:
– Passwords and PINs
– Smart cards and tokens
– Biometric devices
– Digital certificates
– Challenge-response handshakes
– Kerberos authentication
– One-time passwords

Authorization controls:
– Authentication server rules and permissions
– Access control lists
– Intrusion detection and prevention
– Physical access control
– Connection and access policy filters
– Network traffic filters

63
Q

What are some BYOD Concerns?

A

Data ownership
Support ownership
Patch management
Antivirus management
Forensics
Privacy
Acceptable use policy
Onboard camera/video
Onboarding/ offboarding
Adherence to corporate policies
User acceptance
Architecture/ infrastructure considerations
Legal concerns

64
Q

What are the risk management key principles?

A
  • Do not spend more to protect an asset than it is worth.
  • Every countermeasure requires resources to implement and therefore should be aligned with a specific risk.
65
Q

Definition: The likelihood that something bad will happen to an asset

A

risk

66
Q

Something bad that might happen to an organization is a what?

A

Threat

67
Q

Any exposure that could allow a threat to be realized is a what?

A

Vulnerability

68
Q

The amount of risk or harm caused by a threat or vulnerability that is exploited by a perpetrator is the definition of what?

A

Impact

69
Q

A measurable occurrence that has an impact on the business is a ____?

A

Event

70
Q

Any event that violates or threatens to violate your security policy is a ____.

A

Incident

71
Q

___ includes both safeguards and countermeasures.

A

Control

72
Q

____ address gaps or weaknesses in controls that could lead to a realized threat.

A

Safeguards

73
Q

Counters or addresses a specific threat is the definition of what?

A

Countermeasure

74
Q

Component parts of risk:

A
  • Assets
  • Vulnerabilities
  • Threats
75
Q

Perform ___ to identify new or changed risks over time

A

risk assessments

76
Q

More than a quarter of all reported attacks are by _______

A

insiders

77
Q

The impact of insider attacks is proportionately _____ than attacks by outsiders

A

worse

78
Q

T/F: Risk can be reduced to zero

A

False. Risk can never be reduced to zero.

79
Q

_____ focuses on planning to anticipate and respond to risk without interrupting the most critical business functionality

A

Contingency planning

80
Q

Explain the risk management process.

A
  • Identify risks
  • Assess and prioritize risks
  • Plan risk response
  • Implement Risk Responses
  • Monitor and Control Risk Responses
81
Q

How do you identify risks?

A
  • Brainstorming
  • Surveys
  • Interviews
  • Working groups
  • Checklists
  • Historical information
82
Q

What are the risk register components?

A
  • A description of the risk
  • The expected impact if the associated event occurs
  • The probability of the event’s occurring
  • Steps to mitigate the risk
  • Steps to take should the event occur
  • Rank of the risk
83
Q

______ assessments are where the cost or value of the identified risk and its financial impact are examined

A

Quantitative risk

84
Q

This attempts to describe risk in financial terms and put a dollar value on each risk

A

Quantitative risk assessment

85
Q

______ risk assessments are examined by assigning a rating for each identified risk

A

Qualitative

86
Q

_____ assessments ranks risks based on their probability of occurrence and impact on business operations

A

Qualitative risk

87
Q

Quantitative assessments are hard or soft data?

A

hard

88
Q

Qualitative assessments are hard or soft data?

A

soft

89
Q

What is the formula for single loss expectancy(SLE)?

A

SLE = Asset Value * Exposure Factor

90
Q

What is the formula for annualized rate of occurrence (ARO)?

A

ARO = Number of incidents per year

91
Q

What is the formula for annualized loss expectancy (ALE)?

A

ALE = Single loss expectancy(SLE) * annualized rate of occurrence (ARO)

92
Q

In Qualitative Risk Analysis you judge risk on two scales. What are these two scales?

A
  • Probability or likelihood
  • Impact
93
Q

What are some examples of negative risks?

A

Reduce (reduction/mitigation)
Transfer (transference/assignment)
Accept (acceptance)
Avoid (avoidance)

94
Q

What are some examples of positive risks?

A

Exploit (exploitation)
Share (sharing)
Enhance (enhancement)
Accept (acceptance)

95
Q

______ = Total Risk - Mitigating controls

A

Residual Risk

96
Q

_____ manage the activity phase of security—the things people do

A

Administrative controls

97
Q

___ controls correspond to the life cycle of a security program

A

Activity phase

98
Q

T/F: Countermeasures might pose new risk to the organization

A

True

99
Q

Protecting ______ is a top-of-mind consideration for any organization

A

intellectual property

100
Q

The central asset of many organizations are:

A

Patents
Drug formulas
Engineering plans
Sales and marketing plans
Scientific formulas
Recipes

101
Q

____ assets are among highest-profile assets in any organization

A

Financial

102
Q

Loss of ___ assets due to malicious attacks is a worst-case scenario for all organizations

A

financial

103
Q

_____ can have long-term effects on a company’s reputation and brand image

A

Finances and Financial Data breaches

104
Q

_____ must be available for use when organizations need them

A

critical services

105
Q

____ is the time during which a service is not available due to failure or maintenance

A

downtime

106
Q

____ is the result of technical failure, human error, or attack

A

Unintentional downtime

107
Q

___ is the amount of money a company loses due to either intentional or unintentional downtime

A

Opportunity cost

108
Q

T/F: Companies that suffer from security breaches and malicious attacks that expose assets are likely to face serious negative consequences in the public eye even if the company’s response were swift and solved the problem effectively

A

True

109
Q

____ hackers try to break IT security and gain access to systems with no authorization to prove technical prowess or potentially steal sensitive data

A

Black-hat

110
Q

____ hackers are information systems security professionals who have authorization to identify vulnerabilities and perform penetration testing

A

White-hat

111
Q

White-hat hackers are also known as what?

A

ethical hackers

112
Q

____ hackers are with average abilities who may one day become black-hat hackers but could also choose to become white-hat hackers

A

Gray-hat

113
Q

____ transfers software companies’ risk to its end users from having vulnerable software and being held liable for a software vulnerability

A

End-User Licensing Agreement (EULA)

114
Q

Hackers continuously look for known software ____ as a means to find an exploitable weakness

A

vulnerabilities

115
Q

____ is the gap in time between the announcement of a vulnerability and the application of a patch

A

Vulnerability window

116
Q

____ is a vulnerability window of zero days because there is no patch yet for a known software vulnerability

A

Zero day

117
Q

What are the three threat types listed in the slides?

A

Disclosure threats
Alteration threats
Denial or destruction threats

118
Q

What are the four categories of attacks?

A

Fabrications
Interceptions
Interruptions
Modifications

119
Q

What Are Common Attack Vectors?

A

Attacks on availability
Attacks on people
Attacks on IT assets

120
Q

Focus on _____ and implement security controls that can help mitigate the risk caused by threats and vulnerabilities

A

countermeasures

121
Q

Best strategy for countermeasures is to identify _____ and reduce them to avoid attacks

A

vulnerabilities

122
Q

What are two ways that people like to communicate?

A

Real-time communications
– Occurs instantaneously

Store-and-forward communications
– Acceptable delay in transmitting communication

123
Q

IoT Applications That Impact Humans

A

Health monitoring and updating
Home security and smart home control systems
Online calendars
Near real-time tracking and monitoring via global positioning systems (GPS)
Online banking, bill paying, and financial transactions
Online e-commerce purchases
Automobiles with smart computers and always-on Wi-Fi Internet access

124
Q

IoT’s Impact on Business

A

Retail stores
Virtual workplace
Remote sensors
Traffic-monitoring applications
Business-to-consumer (B2C) service delivery model
Anything as a Service (AaaS) IoT applications

125
Q

What is B2C?

A

Business-to-consumer

126
Q

Customers purchase goods and services directly from their website describes what?

A

Business-to-consumer (B2C)

127
Q

What is B2B?

A

Business-to-business

128
Q

Businesses conduct sales with other businesses describes what?

A

Business-to-business(B2B)

129
Q

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) protects what?

A

private customer data

130
Q

What are some internet business challenges?

A

Growing the business through the Internet
Changing an existing conventional business into an e-business
Building secure and highly available websites and e-commerce portals
Building a web-enabled customer-service strategy
Finding new customers with Internet marketing

131
Q

What are some issues with mobile computing?

A

Network speed
Usability
Security

132
Q

T/F: Mobile IP enables user to move between local area network (LAN) segments and stay connected without interruption

A

True

133
Q

What is a MN?

A

Mobile Node

134
Q

What is a HA?

A

Home agent

135
Q

What is a FA?

A

Foreign Agent

136
Q

What is a COA?

A

Care of address

137
Q

What is a CN?

A

Correspondent node

138
Q

A mobile node connect to what?

A

A Foreign Agent

139
Q

A home agent assigns a ____ to a mobile node?

A

Care of address (COA)

140
Q

A care of address is a ____ for the mobile node?

A

Local address

141
Q

A correspondent node sends a message to the ____?

A

Mobile node

142
Q

Privacy challenges must be addressed by manufacturers and defined in the right-of-use and software ______?

A

End-User Licensing Agreement (EULA)

143
Q

The End-User Licensing Agreement (EULA) must contain:

A
  • Privacy policy statement
  • Definition of data, metadata, or analytical data use and rights
  • Ability for a user to provide consent to a manufacturer’s or application service provider’s privacy policy statement
  • Determine the domain of privacy
144
Q

_____ ensures interoperability and standards can be pursued for IoT solutions

A

Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)

145
Q

______ has significant financial impacts if not properly addressed

A

Interoperability

146
Q

T/F: Goal is to bring down the cost of IoT devices and supporting applications so they are affordable

A

True

147
Q

Privacy data is subject to the ____ of state you live in as well as state that the IoT hosting company resides in

A

privacy laws

148
Q

T/F: IoT vendor or solutions provider are required to adhere to security control requirements and data protection laws

A

True

149
Q

A void in _____ and ______ for IoT devices can create an environment of bad IoT devices

A

interoperability
standards