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Spinal Anatomy > Exam 1 Material > Flashcards

Exam 1 Material Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four basic tissues of the human?

A

epithelial, muscle, neural & connective tissue

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2
Q

What is the function of each type of bone cell?

A

osteoblast - form bone
osteocyte - maintain or nurture bone
osteoclast - remodel bone

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3
Q

What are the bone cells embedded in?

A

an amorphous matrix consisting of ground substance, protein fibers and various minerals

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4
Q

What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

glycosaminoglycans

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5
Q

What types of glycosaminoglycans predominate in bone?

A

chondroitin sulfates, keratin sulfates & hyaluronic acid

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6
Q

What is the principle type of protein fiber in bone?

A

collagen type I

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7
Q

What are the primary constituents of the bone mineral?

A

calcium, phosphate, citrate & carbonate ions

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8
Q

What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

hydroxyapatite

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9
Q

Bone is also the repository for what additional ions?

A

sodium, magnesium, fluoride, lead, strontium & radium

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10
Q

What is Wolff’s Law as it pertains to bone?

A

living tissue will respond to stressors such as anxiety, tension or pressure; bone is formed or absorbed in response to these same stressors

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11
Q

What three responses of “living” bone were stressed in class?

A

it has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressor such as anxiety, tension nor pressure and to age

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12
Q

Bone is the embryological derivative of which specific connective tissues?

A

mesenchyme and/or cartilage

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13
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

intramembranous ossification

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14
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

from the second to third month in utero

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15
Q

What part of the axial skeleton is primarily formed by intramembranous ossification?

A

the skull

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16
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?

A

endochondral ossification

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17
Q

Wha tis the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

from the second to fifth month in utero

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18
Q

Which skull bones are ossified by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

the mandible, sphenoid, temporal & occipital bones

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19
Q

Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

the clavicle

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20
Q

Wha tare the names given to the venters of ossification based on time of appearance?

A

primary centers of ossification appear before birth

secondary centers of ossification appear after birth

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21
Q

Mature bone is described as being composed of what areas based on bone density?

A

cortical or compact bone and spongy, cancellous or trabecular bone

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22
Q

What is the name given to the bone below an articulating surface?

A

subchondral bone

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23
Q

What is the name of the outer fibro-cellular covering of a bone?

A

the periosteum

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24
Q

What is the name given to the fibro-cellular lining of bone?

A

the endosteum

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25
Q

What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?

A

sexual dimorphism (gender variation), ontogenetic variation (growth or age variation), geographic or population-based variation (ethnic variation) and idiosyncratic variation (individual variation)

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26
Q

Differences in the number of morphology of vertebrae within the population based on male and female variation is identified as which type of variation?

A

sexual dimorphism or gender variation

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27
Q

Differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on age or developmental variation is identified as which type of variation?

A

ontogenetic variation

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28
Q

Differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on ethnicity or locational variation is identified as which type of variation?

A

geographic variation or population based variation

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29
Q

What are the six more commonly used classifications of normal bone?

A

long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones and sesamoid bones

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30
Q

Which classifications of bone are characteristic of the appendicular skeleton?

A

long bones, short bones and sesamoid bones

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31
Q

What is the characteristic feature of a long bone?

A

it is longer than it is across (length greater than breadth)

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32
Q

What are the names given to the parts of a long bone?

A

the diaphysis (shaft) and typically two epiphyses (extremities)

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33
Q

What is the primary characteristic of short bones?

A

they are essentially cuboidal

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34
Q

What are examples of short bones?

A

most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus

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35
Q

What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?

A

the bone develops within a tendon

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36
Q

What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A

patella and pisiform

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37
Q

Which classification of bone are characteristic of the axial skeleton?

A

flat bones, irregular bones and paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones

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38
Q

What are flat bones?

A

a thin layer of spongy bone is sandwiched between two layers of compact bone

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39
Q

What are examples of flat bones?

A

the parietal bone and sternum

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40
Q

What is the name given to the spongy bone of the skull?

A

diploe

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41
Q

What is characteristic of irregular bone?

A

numerous projections or irregular outlines

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42
Q

What are examples of irregular bone?

A

the vertebrae and innominate bones

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43
Q

What is characteristic of pneumatic bone?

A

air spaces within the bone

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44
Q

What are examples of pneumatic bone?

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid & temporal

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45
Q

What bones contain paranasal sinuses?

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla & sphenoid

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46
Q

What are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed in Spinal Anatomy?

A

accessory and heterotopic bone

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47
Q

What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

A

accessory bone

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48
Q

What are examples of accessory bone?

A

para-articular processes and bony spurs of vertebrae

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49
Q

What is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?

A

heterotopic bone

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50
Q

What are examples of heterotopic bone?

A

calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart, and ligaments

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51
Q

What are the four basic surface feature categories?

A

elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways & facets

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52
Q

When do the surface features of a bone become prominent?

A

during and after puberty

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53
Q

What are the types of osseous elevations?

A

linear, rounded and sharp

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54
Q

What are the types of osseous linear elevation?

A

the line, ridge and crest

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55
Q

What are the types of rounded osseous elevation?

A

tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus

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56
Q

What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?

A

spine and process

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57
Q

What are the categories of osseous depressions?

A

linear and rounded depressions

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58
Q

What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?

A

notch or incisor, groove, and sulcus

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59
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?

A

fovea and fossa

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60
Q

What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?

A

ostium or orifice and hiatus

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61
Q

What is the definition of an osseous ostium?

A

a round or oval opening on the surface of bone

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62
Q

What is the definition of an osseous hiatus?

A

an irregular opening on the surface of bone

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63
Q

What are themes given to osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?

A

foramen or canal

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64
Q

What is the name given to to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind-ended passageway?

A

meatus

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65
Q

What are the categories of osseous facets?

A

flat facets and rounded facets

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66
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

articular heads and articular condyles

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67
Q

How many bones form the typical adult skeleton?

A

206 bones

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68
Q

What are the subdivisions of the skeleton?

A

the axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton

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69
Q

How many bones form the typical adult appendicular skeleton?

A

126 bones

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70
Q

How many bones form the typical adult axial skeleton?

A

80 bones

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71
Q

What bones form the axial skeleton?

A

the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum and ribs

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72
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult skull?

A

28 bones

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73
Q

What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?

A

the cranium

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74
Q

What are the names given to the top of the adult skull?

A

the calvaria or calva

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75
Q

What are the categories of bone forming the typical adult skull?

A

the neurocranium, the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral cranium) and the auditory ossicles

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76
Q

What is the neurocranium?

A

the bones that support or protect the brain

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77
Q

How many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?

A

8 bones

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78
Q

What bones form the neurocranium of the typical adult skull?

A

the frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid and ethmoid

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79
Q

How many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton)?

A

14 bones

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80
Q

What is the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral cranium)?

A

the bones that support the face or front of the head

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81
Q

What bones form the facial skeleton?

A

mandible, vomer, nasal, maxilla, lacrimal, inferior nasal concha, palatine and zygomatic

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82
Q

By strict definition, what is the splanchnocranium?

A

the bones that support the face minus the mandible

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83
Q

What bones form the splanchnocranium?

A

vomer, nasal, maxilla, lacrimal, inferior nasal concha, palatine and zygomatic

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84
Q

How many bones comprise the typical adult auditory ossicles?

A

6 bones

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85
Q

How many bones are present in the adult hyoid?

A

1 bone

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86
Q

What is the number of bones comprising each region of the typical adult spinal column or vertebral column?

A

7 cervical, 12 thoracic, and 5 lumbar vertebrae, 1 sacrum and 1 coccyx

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87
Q

What is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?

A

the spine

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88
Q

Wha tis the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?

A

24 bones

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89
Q

What is the definition of spine as it pertains to the vertebral column?

A

the pre-sacral region of the vertebral column or spinal column

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90
Q

How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum

A

1 bone

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91
Q

What regions are present along the typical adult sternum?

A

the manubrium stern, the corpus stern and the xiphoid process

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92
Q

How many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton?

A

12 pair or 24 ribs

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93
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adolescent?

A

33 segments

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94
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult?

A

26 segments

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95
Q

What constitutes the spine?

A

the 24 presacral segments; the cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae

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96
Q

How many segments unite to form the typical sacrum?

A

5 segments

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97
Q

How many segments unite to form the typical coccyx?

A

4 segments

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98
Q

What does the term “cervical” refer to?

A

the region of the neck

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99
Q

What is the typical number o segments in the cervical region?

A

7 segments

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100
Q

What does the term “thoracic” refer to?

A

breast plate or chest; it referred to the armor bearing region of the torso

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101
Q

What other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?

A

the dorsal segments; the dorsals

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102
Q

What is the typical number of segments in the dorsal or thoracic region?

A

12 segments

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103
Q

What does the term “lumbar” refer to?

A

the loin; the region between the rib and the hip

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104
Q

What is the typical number of segments in the lumbar region?

A

5 segments

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105
Q

What does the term “sacrum” refer to?

A

the holy bones or holy region

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106
Q

What does the term “coccyx” refer to?

A

a cuckoo birds’ bill or cuckoo bird’s beak

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107
Q

Which region of the spine is more stable in terms of the number of segments/vertebrae?

A

the cervical region

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108
Q

What is the length of a typical male spinal column?

A

about 70 centimeters or 28 inches

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109
Q

What is the length of a typical female spinal column?

A

about 60 centimeters or 25 inches

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110
Q

What is the difference in length between a typical male and typical female spinal column?

A

about 3 inches

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111
Q

What is the length of the male cervical region ?

A

about 12 centimeters or 5 inches

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112
Q

What is the length of the male thoracic region?

A

about 28 centimeters or 11 inches

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113
Q

What is the length of the male lumbar region?

A

about 18 centimeters or 7 inches

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114
Q

What is the length of the male sacrum?

A

about 12 centimeters or 5 inches

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115
Q

Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine?

A

about 58 centimeters or 23 inches

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116
Q

How does the vertebral column participate in protection of neural tissues?

A

the spinal cord and beginning PNS are located within the vertebral segments

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117
Q

How does the vertebral column participate in protection of the viscera?

A

ribs are attached to vertebrae to form the thorax thus protecting the heart and lungs

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118
Q

What parts of the body are supported by the vertebral column?

A

the head, upper extremities, ribs, viscera, and pelvis

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119
Q

How does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?

A

ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template

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120
Q

What levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weigh-baring transfer?

A

S1-S3 at the auricular surface

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121
Q

Distinguish between motion and locomotion.

A

motion is movement without travel; locomotion is movement to a new site or location

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122
Q

What is specifically responsible for shape and position of the human frame?

A

comparative anterior vs posterior height of the vertebral body and comparative anterior vs posterior height of the intervertebral disc

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123
Q

How does the vertebral column accommodate transmission?

A

the peripheral nerve communicates with the central nerve system via the intervertebral foramen

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124
Q

What organ(s) is (are) specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

A

the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

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125
Q

How is the vertebral column involved ins stabilization of visceral function?

A

integrity of the spinal column enhances appropriate nerve system control of viscera

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126
Q

When does gastrulation occur or a 3-layered embryo form?

A

third week in utero

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127
Q

What are the 3 layers of the embryo called?

A

ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm

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128
Q

Invagination of the ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic structure?

A

notochord

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129
Q

What is the name given to the mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column?

A

paraxial mesoderm

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130
Q

What does paraxial mesoderm give rise to that will form he vertebral column?

A

somites

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131
Q

Name the areas of cellular differentiation formed within the somite.

A

sclerotome, myotome and dermatome

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132
Q

What part of the somite will give rise to the vertebral column?

A

sclerotome

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133
Q

List, in order, the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during development?

A

membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal or osseous

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134
Q

Migration of sclerotomes to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature?

A

the perichordal blastema

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135
Q

The perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes?

A

neural processes and costal processes

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136
Q

What is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichordal blastemae?

A

intersegmental artery

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137
Q

Cell proliferation within the perichordal blastema will results in what features?

A

a loose cranial sclerotomite and a dense caudal sclerotomite

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138
Q

What forms between the sclerotomites of a perichordal blastema?

A

the intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)

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139
Q

The intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner) gives rise to what developmental feature?

A

the perichordal disc

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140
Q

The perichordal disc in the presumptive location of what adult feature?

A

the intervertebral disc

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141
Q

What is the earliest embryonic feature that will identify the position often adult intervertebral disc?

A

the intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)

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142
Q

Th union of a dense caudal sclerotomite and a loose cranial sclerotomite from adjacent perichordal blastemae gives rise to what feature?

A

the vertebral blastema

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143
Q

What vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema?

A

the segmental artery

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144
Q

When will cartilage first form in the membranous vertebral blastema?

A

beginning in the 6th embryonic week

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145
Q

What is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage?

A

chondrification

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146
Q

Chondrification is the first identified in which region of the embryonic vertebral column?

A

the cervical region

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147
Q

What is the names given to the centers of chondrification withi the vertebral blastema?

A

centrum center, neural arch center, transverse process center

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148
Q

How many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema?

A

Six…2 for the centrum, 2 for the neural arch, 2 for each transverse process

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149
Q

What is the earliest time that centers of ossification appear in the cartilaginous vertebra?

A

During the 7th embryonic week

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150
Q

Ossification begins in which region of the embryonic vertebral column?

A

The lower cervical-upper thoracic region

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151
Q

What is the name given to the centers of ossification based on time of appearance?

A

Primary centers appear in utero, secondary centers appear after birth

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152
Q

What is the ration of primary to secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

3 primary centers: 5 secondary centers

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153
Q

What are the names of the primary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

Centrum centers and neural arch centers

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154
Q

How many primary centers of ossification appear in the typical vertebra?

A

Three…1 for centrum, 2 for neural arches

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155
Q

What is te classification of the joint forming between primary centers of ossification?

A

Cartilage syndchondrosis/amphiarthrosis synchondrosis

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156
Q

What are the names of the synchondroses forming between primary centers of ossification in the typical vertebra?

A

Neurocentral synchondrosis and neural arch synchondrosis

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157
Q

What are the names of the five secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

Tip of the transverse process, tip of the spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers

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158
Q

How many secondary centers of ossification appear in the typical vertebra?

A

Five… 1 for the tip of each transverse process, 1 for the tip of the spinous process, 1 for each epiphyseal plate

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159
Q

Where are the names of the synchondroses forming between secondary centers of ossification and the rest of the typical vertebra?

A

Tip of the transverse process synchondrosis, tip of the spinous process synchondrosis, and epiphyseal ring synchondrosis

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160
Q

What is the range of appearance for secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra?

A

During puberty, typically ages 11-16 years old

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161
Q

What are the three basic osseous parts of a vertebra?

A

The vertebral body, vertebral arch, and the apophyseal regions

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162
Q

What is formed by the vertebral body and vertebral arch?

A

The vertebral foramen

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163
Q

What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical - rectangular; thoracic - triangular; lumbar - reniform

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164
Q

What is the name given to the compact bone at the superior and inferior surfaces of the vertebral body?

A

Superior epiphyseal rim, inferior epiphyseal rim

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165
Q

What is the name given to the cartilage found at te superior and inferior surface of a developing vertebral body?

A

Superior epiphyseal plate, inferior epiphyseal plate

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166
Q

What are the names of the openings found around the margins of the vertebral body?

A

Nutrient foramina or vascular foramina

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167
Q

What large opening is usually observe dat the back of the vertebral body?

A

The basivertebral venous foramen

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168
Q

What is the name of the vessel entering the nutrient or vascular foramen?

A

Osseous artery

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169
Q

What is the name given to the large vessel exiting the back of the vertebral body?

A

The basivertebral vein

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170
Q

What is the semicircular region of bone attached to the back of the vertebral body called?

A

The vertebral arch

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171
Q

What is the name given to the anterior part of the vertebral arch?

A

The pedicle

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172
Q

What is the name given to the posterior part of the vertebral arch?

A

The lamina

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173
Q

What is the name given to the intermediate part of the vertebral arch where the transverse process and articular processes attach?

A

The lamina-pedicle junction

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174
Q

What is the name of the feature at the upper and lower surfaces of the pedicle?

A

The superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure; th inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

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175
Q

What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical - posteriolateral
Thoracic - posterior, slight lateral
Lumbar - posterior

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176
Q

All lamina are oriented in what direction?

A

Posterior and median

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177
Q

What is the name given to the overlap of laminate seen on X-ray?

A

Shingling

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178
Q

What ligament will attach to the lamina?

A

The ligamentum flavum

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179
Q

What is the name given to abnormal bone the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?

A

Para-articular process

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180
Q

What classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?

A

Accessory bone

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181
Q

What is the name given to the lamina - pedicle junction at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical - articular pillar; thoracic and lumbar - pars interarticularis

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182
Q

What is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch - spinous process on lateral x-ray?

A

The spinolaminar junction

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183
Q

What is the name given to the tubular bone growth regions of the vertebral arch?

A

Apophyseal regions

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184
Q

What names may be given to each apophyseal of the spine?

A

The transverse apophyseal or transverse process; articular apophyseal or articular process; spinous apophysis or spinous process

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185
Q

What is the generic orientation of the transverse process for transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical - anterolateral; thoracic - posterolateral; lumbar - lateral

186
Q

All non-rib bearing-vertebra of the spine retain what equivalent feature?

A

The costal element

187
Q

What is the name given to rounded elevation at the end of the transverse apophysis or transverse process?

A

The transverse tubercle

188
Q

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?

A

Cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward and downward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position

189
Q

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?

A

The growth of the lungs remodel the shape of ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward

190
Q

What will the articular process/articular apophysis support?

A

The articular facet

191
Q

What is the name given to the joint formed between articular facets of a vertebral couple?

A

The zygapophysis

192
Q

What is the name given to the bone surface at the front of a zygapophysis?

A

The superior articular facet

193
Q

What is teh name given to the bone surface at the back of a zygapophysis?

A

The inferior articular facet

194
Q

What names are given to the part of the vertebra which supports the front of the zygapophysis?

A

The superior articular apophysis, the superior articular process, or the pre-zygapophysis

195
Q

What names are given to the part of the vertebra which supports the back of the zygapophysis?

A

The inferior articular apophysis, the inferior articular process, or teh post-zygapophysis

196
Q

In the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies anterior to the zygapophysis is called the _____?

A

Pre-zygapophysis

197
Q

In the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies posterior to the zygapophysis is called the _____?

A

Post-zygapophysis

198
Q

What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the pre-zygapophysis?

A

The superior articular process or superior articular apophysis

199
Q

What is the name given to teh part of the vertebral forming the post-zygapophysis?

A

The inferior articular process or inferior articular apophysis

200
Q

What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?

A

Calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/spinous apophysis and the horizontal plane

201
Q

What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes or spinous apophyses as seen on X-ray?

A

Imbrication

202
Q

What is the name given to the rounded elevation at the tip of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?

A

The spinous tubercle

203
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process/spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical - slight angle inferior
Thoracic - noticeable angle inferiorly
Lumbar - no inferior angle

204
Q

What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

The inferior articular process/post-zygapophysis, the superior articular process/pre-zygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum

205
Q

What will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

The inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

206
Q

What will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

The superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure

207
Q

What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

The vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament

208
Q

What name is given to the opening located within the vertebral body - vertebral arch enclosure?

A

The vertebral foramen

209
Q

The union of all vertebral foramina forms an apparent vertical cylinder called the ____?

A

The vertebral canal or spinal canal

210
Q

What neural structures will occupy the vertebral foramen until the level of L2?

A

The spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis, the proximal part of the peripheral nerve system, and the meninges

211
Q

What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/vertebral column?

A

Cervical - triangular
Thoracic - oval
Lumbar - triangular
Sacrum - triangular

212
Q

At what vertebral level will the spinal cord typically terminate?

A

L1

213
Q

At what vertebral level will the duray sac typically terminate?

A

S2

214
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the cervical spine?

A

the vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and medial (middle) sacral artery

215
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine?

A

the deep cervical artery, superior (highest) intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery and subcostal artery

216
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?

A

the lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

217
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra?

A

the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

218
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the sacrum?

A

the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery and median (middle) sacral artery

219
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the vertebral artery?

A

C1-C6

220
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the ascending cervical artery?

A

C1-C6

221
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the deep cervical artery?

A

C7-T1

222
Q

Which vertebra has the greatest number of segmental arteries associated with it?

A

L5

223
Q

Which branch of the dorsospinal artery will penetrate the meninges to enter subarachnoid space?

A

spinal artery

224
Q

Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space?

A

osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery

225
Q

What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior spinal canal artery & plexus

226
Q

What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the ligament flavor?

A

posterior spinal canal artery & plexus

227
Q

Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the subarachnoid space?

A

anterior radicular artery, posterior radicular artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery

228
Q

Which vessel will supply the venture/anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?

A

anterior radicular artery

229
Q

Which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior radicular artery

230
Q

Which artery is now said to enlarge and form the medullary feeder artery?

A

the radicular artery

231
Q

What is the name given to the artery that lies in front of the spinal cord along its length?

A

anterior spinal artery

232
Q

The anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

the vertebral artery

233
Q

Is the anterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord?

A

no

234
Q

As the anterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

A

anterior medullary feeder arteries

235
Q

The posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

the posterior inferior cerebellar artery

236
Q

What is the position of the posterior spinal artery relative to the spinal cord?

A

it lies in the posterolateral sulcus along the spinal cord

237
Q

Is the posterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord?

A

no

238
Q

As the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

A

posterior medullary feeder arteries

239
Q

What forms the arterial vasa corona?

A

anterior spinal arteries, posterior spinal arteries and communicating arteries

240
Q

What is the generic name given to arteries that penetrate the spinal cord?

A

intramedullary arteries

241
Q

What are the intramedullary branches of the arterial vasa corona?

A

dial perforating arteries and central/ventral/sulcal perforating arteries

242
Q

What artery gives off the ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries?

A

the anterior spinal artery

243
Q

What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?

A

ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries

244
Q

What intramedullary branches supply about one third of the spinal cord?

A

pial perforating arteries

245
Q

What is the source for pial perforating arteries?

A

the pial plexus

246
Q

What arteries form the pial plexus?

A

the posterior spinal arteries and the communicating arteries

247
Q

What arteries are responsible for supplementing the arterial vasa corona along the cord?

A

anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders

248
Q

What vessels drain the spinal cord?

A

pial veins

249
Q

What will pial veins drain into?

A

venous vasa corona

250
Q

Which vessels forms the venous vasa corona?

A

anterior longitudinal veins, posterior longitudinal veins, and communicating veins

251
Q

Which vessels will drain the venous vasa corona?

A

anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins

252
Q

Which vessels will rain the ventral/anterior nerve roots?

A

anterior radicular veins

253
Q

Which vessels will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve roots?

A

posterior radicular veins

254
Q

What vessel will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?

A

posterior radicular veins

255
Q

What veins are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein

256
Q

What lumens feature of the anterior internal vertebral venous plexus vessels may function like valves of typical veins?

A

trabeculae

257
Q

What veins are observed in the epidural space near the ligament flavum?

A

posterior internal vertebral venous plexus

258
Q

What venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen?

A

intervertebral veins

259
Q

What is the unique feature of veins along the spinal canal?

A

they lack the bicuspid valve of typical veins

260
Q

What are the vascular contents of the epidural space?

A

anterior and posterior spinal canal artery & plexus

anterior and posterior internal vertebral venous plexus basivertebral vein

261
Q

What are the neural contents of the epidural space?

A

recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve

262
Q

What ligaments are associated with the epidural space?

A

Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments
ligamentum flavum
posterior longitudinal ligament

263
Q

Which meningeal space is now thought to be a potential space, not an actual space?

A

subdural space - between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

264
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior spinal canal artery & plexus
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
basivertebral vein
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments

265
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?

A

posterior spinal canal artery & plexus
posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
ligamentum flavum
recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments

266
Q

What is the name given to the fluid present within the subdural space?

A

serous fluid

267
Q

What is the name given to the fluid with the subarachnoid space?

A

cerebrospinal fluid

268
Q

What ligaments may be present in the subarachnoid space?

A

dentate/denticulate ligament

269
Q

What contents of the subarachnoid space are changed below the level C6?

A

the arterial vasa corona consists of 1 anterior spinal artery, 2 posterior spinal arteries and 3 communicating arteries

270
Q

What is the name given to the lateral extension of pia mater along the spinal cord?

A

dentate (denticulate) ligament

271
Q

What is the unique feature of veins along the spinal canal?

A

they lack the bicuspid valve of typical veins

272
Q

In horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be the largest?

A

transverse

273
Q

What are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?

A

C3-T1, the cervical enlargement; T9-T12, the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement

274
Q

Where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord?

A

C6

275
Q

In which plane (or direction) will the diameter of the spinal decrease from C2 down to T1?

A

midsagittal or anterior-posterior plane

276
Q

What spinal nerves originate from the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement?

A

L1-S3 spinal nerves

277
Q

What is a generic cord level of origin - vertebral level combination for the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement?

A

L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra; L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra; L5, S1 cord levels in T11 vertebra; S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra

278
Q

What is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?

A

conus medullaris

279
Q

What spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?

A

typically S4, S5, and Co1

280
Q

In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?

A

L1

281
Q

What is the name given to the nerve roots below L1?

A

cauda equina

282
Q

What is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?

A

film terminale internum

283
Q

What is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column?

A

typically S2, the dural culture de sac

284
Q

Neural tissue has been identified in what part of the film terminale?

A

proximal part of the film terminale internum

285
Q

What is the fate of the neural tissue identified along the film terminale internum?

A

it joints peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3 and as low as S4

286
Q

What does the neural tissue associated with the tile terminale internum appear to innervate?

A

lower limbs and the external anal sphincter

287
Q

The last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on angiogram?

A

cruciate anastomosis

288
Q

What is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?

A

film terminale externum

289
Q

What is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?

A

coccygeal medullary vestige

290
Q

What is the name given to the condition in which the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the film terminale is thickened?

A

tethered cord syndrome

291
Q

What is the relationship between scoliosis and tethered cord syndrome?

A

it is suggested that the column will change normal curvatures to mitigate damage to the spinal cord caused by a tethered cord

292
Q

At the intervertebral ramen, what is the relationship between spinal nerve number and vertebral number along the cervical spine?

A

in the cervical spine, spinal nerves exit above the segment they are numbered after (C8 nerve is the exception to this rule). C3 nerve exits above C3 or between C2/C3

293
Q

What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?

A

the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple
the rib number related the the lower segment number in the vertebral couple
T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with this vertebral couple

294
Q

What osseous modification is observed tot eh front of the anterior arch of C1?

A

the anterior tubercle

295
Q

What is observed on the back of the anterior arch of C1?

A

the fovea dentis

296
Q

What attaches behind the anterior arch of C1?

A

the lateral mass

297
Q

What is the name of the rounded elevation on the medial aspect of the lateral mass of C1?

A

tubercle for the transverse atlantal ligament

298
Q

What is identified in the midline at the back of the posterior arch of C1?

A

the posterior tubercle

299
Q

What superior surface modification of the posterior arch of C1 is present near the lateral mass?

A

groove/sulcus for the vertebral artery

300
Q

What superior surface modification is present near the posterior tubercle of the posterior arch of C1?

A

the arcuate rim

301
Q

What attaches to the arcuate rim of the posterior arch of atlas and to the superior articular process of the lateral mass of atlas?

A

a complete ponticulus posticus

302
Q

Based on the amount of bony union between the superior articular process and the arcuate rim of C1 what structure will form?

A

an incomplete ponticulus posticus or a complete ponticulus posticus

303
Q

What names are given to the opening formed by the ponticulus posticus?

A

arcuate foramen or retroarticular canal

304
Q

What is observed on the undersurface of the posterior arch of C1?

A

the inferior vertebral notch

305
Q

What is the name given to the anterior part of the transverse process of C1?

A

the costal element

306
Q

What is the name given to the posterior part of the transverse process of C1?

A

the true transverse process

307
Q

What is the distal most part of the transverse process of C1?

A

the posterior tubercle

308
Q

What unique vertebral body modification is characteristic of C2?

A

the dens or odontoid process

309
Q

What surfaces are present on the odontoid process of C2?

A

facet for fovea dentis, groove for transverse atlantal ligament, attachment sites for the alar ligaments, attachment site for the apical-dental ligament

310
Q

What feature is identified on the anterior surface of the vertebral body of C2?

A

the longus colli muscle attachment

311
Q

What feature is identified on the anterior surface of the inferior epiphyseal rim of C2?

A

the anterior lip

312
Q

What feature is identified on the posterior surface of the inferior epiphyseal rim of C2?

A

the posterior lip

313
Q

What features are present at the lateral margins of the inferior epiphyseal rim of C2?

A

right and left lateral grooves

314
Q

What features arise from the posterolateral margins of the vertebral body of C2?

A

the pedicles

315
Q

What lies on the upper surface of the pedicle of C2?

A

the superior articular process

316
Q

What is the location of the superior vertebral notch of C2?

A

on the lamina-pedicle junction behind the inferior vertebral notch

317
Q

What osseous parts of the typical cervical transverse process are present at C2?

A

costal element, posterior tubercle and true transverse process

318
Q

What is the characteristic appearance of the C2 spinous process in humans?

A

it is bifid

319
Q

What are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

anterior groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate processes

320
Q

What are the names of the lateral modification s of the superior epiphyseal rumor a typical cervical?

A

uncinate process, unciform process, uncovertebral process, uncut or lateral lip

321
Q

What are the modification of the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left lateral grooves

322
Q

What bony feature is attached to the posterior end of the pedicle?

A

the articular pillar

323
Q

What is the name of the surface feature observed between the ends of the articular pillar?

A

the groove/sulcus for the dorsal ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

324
Q

What ligament attaches to the lamina of a typical cervical?

A

ligamentum flavum

325
Q

Ossification of the ligamentum flavum at the attachment site on the lamina will result in what feature?

A

para-articular processes

326
Q

What is the name given to the superior margin of the costotransverse bar?

A

sulcus for the ventral primary ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

327
Q

List, in order, the osseous parts of the typical cervical vertebra transverse process beginning at the vertebral body.

A

costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process

328
Q

What is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process?

A

the carotid tubercle

329
Q

What is the usual condition for the Caucasian typical cervical spinous process?

A

they are bifid

330
Q

What is the usual condition for the African-American typical cervical spinous process?

A

they are non-bifid

331
Q

What surfaces are present on the superior epiphyseal rim of the vertebral body of C7?

A

anterior groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate processes

332
Q

What is the appearance of the inferior surface of the vertebral body of C7?

A

typically flat, lacking anterior and posterior lips characteristic of the typical cervicals

333
Q

What are the osseous parts of the transverse process of C7?

A

costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process

334
Q

What are the features of the spinous process of C7?

A

long, horizontal, nonbifid

335
Q

What is the outline of the vertebral body of T1 from superior view?

A

somewhat rectangular with curved anterior margins

336
Q

What is the appearance of the superior surface of the vertebral body of T1?

A

it is somewhat cup-shaped with elevations at the posterior and lateral margin

337
Q

What is the appearance of the inferior surface of the vertebral body of T1?

A

typically flat, lacking anterior and posterior lips characteristic of the cervicals

338
Q

What surfaces are present on the upper and lower margins of the T1 vertebral body?

A

the right and left superior costal facet & right and left inferior costal demi-facets

339
Q

What is present not eh transverse tubercle of T1?

A

the transverse costal facet

340
Q

What is the angulation of the spinous process of T1?

A

the undersurface of the T1 spinous processes will be nearly horizontal

341
Q

What features will allow discrimination between T2-T4, and T5-T8 segmental groups?

A

the vertebral body, transverse process, articular process and spinous process

342
Q

On cranial view, what is the outline of the vertebral body for the T2-T4 group?

A

the vertebral body will have bilaterally convex sides

343
Q

On cranial view, what is the outline of the vertebral body for the T5-T8 group?

A

the left side of the vertebral body will be flattened, the right side convex

344
Q

What is the name given to the left side appearance of the vertebral body of T5-T8?

A

the aortic impression

345
Q

What part of the vertebral body is most influenced by the aorta at T5-T8?

A

the left side superior and inferior epiphyseal rims

346
Q

What synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical thoracic?

A

the right and left superior and the right and left inferior costal demi-facets

347
Q

What is the distance between the transverse tubercle in the typical thoracic region?

A

from T2 each transverse diameter becomes shorter as the transverse processes angle more posterior

348
Q

What is present on the transverse tubercle of a typical thoracic?

A

the transverse costal facet

349
Q

How do the transverse diameters of the articular processes compare in the T2-T4 region?

A

the superior articular process transverse diameter is greater than the inferior articular process transverse diameter for a given segment

350
Q

How do the transverse diameters of the articular processes compare in the T5-T8 region?

A

the superior articular process transverse diameter is the same as or equal to the inferior articular process transverse diameter for a given segment

351
Q

What name is given to the region between the superior and inferior articular processes in the typical thoracics?

A

the pars interarticularis

352
Q

What part of a vertebrate arises laterally from the pars interarticularis?

A

the transverse process

353
Q

What part of a vertebra arises medially from the pars interarticularis?

A

the lamina

354
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process of a typical thoracic?

A

they slant backward and downward

355
Q

Which vertebrae will have a spinous process angulation of up to forty degrees?

A

T2-T4

356
Q

Which vertebrae will have a spinous process angulation of up to sixty degrees?

A

T5-T8

357
Q

What synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of T8?

A

right and left superior costal demi-facets; right and left inferior costal demi-facets

358
Q

Which synovial joint surfaces may be absent from the vertebral body of T9?

A

inferior costal demi-facets

359
Q

What is present on the transverse tubercle of T9?

A

the transverse costal facet

360
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process of T9?

A

posterior and slightly inferior, it will shorten and become more horizontal

361
Q

What synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of T10?

A

the right and left superior costal facet

362
Q

Which synovial joint surface is absent from the vertebral body of T10?

A

inferior costal demi-facets

363
Q

What is the position and direction of the pedicle from the vertebral body at T10?

A

the pedicle arises from the upper third of the vertebral body and projects posterior and slightly laterally

364
Q

What feature is very commonly observed on the lamina of T10?

A

para-articular processes

365
Q

What part of the transverse process may be absent on T10?

A

The transverse costal facet

366
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process of T10?

A

Posterior and slightly inferior, it will shorten and become more horizontal

367
Q

What synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of T11?

A

The right and left superior costal facet

368
Q

Which synovial joint surface is absent from the vertebral body of T11?

A

Inferior costal demi-facets

369
Q

What part of the transverse process is absent on T11?

A

The transverse costal facet

370
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process of T11?

A

Posterior and horizontal along the undersurface

371
Q

What is the outline of the vertebral body of T12 on superior view?

A

Kidney-shaped or reniform

372
Q

What synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of T12?

A

The right and left superior costal facet

373
Q

Which synovial joint surface is absent from the vertebral body of T12?

A

Inferior costal demi-facets

374
Q

Which tubercle on T12 represents teh transverse process?

A

The lateral tubercle

375
Q

Which tubercle on T12 represents the mammillary process of the lumbar?

A

The superior tubercle

376
Q

Which tubercle on T12 represents the accessory process of the lumbar?

A

The inferior tubercle

377
Q

What joint surface of the typical thoracic transverse process is absent on T12?

A

The transverse costal facet

378
Q

What is the curvature of the inferior articular facets of T12?

A

They are significantly convex

379
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process of T12?

A

Posterior and horizontal

380
Q

What is the generic shape of the typical lumbar vertebral body from the cranial view?

A

Reniform or kidney-shaped

381
Q

The pedicle attaches at what location on vertebral body of a typical lumbar?

A

To the upper third or half of the vertebral body

382
Q

What is the name of the elevation near the origin of the lumbar transverse process?

A

Accessory process

383
Q

What is the name of the lamina-pedicle junction of typical lumbar vertebrae?

A

Pars interarticularis

384
Q

What is the name given to the projection on the lumbar superior articular process?

A

Mammillary process

385
Q

What characteristic of the L1-L4 pedicle may be used to differentiate it from the L5 segment? Be specific and complete as the difference(s) on a segment from each group.

A

On cranial view, the lateral surface of the pedicle is apparent on a L1-L4 segment.
At L5 the transverse process originates from teh vertebral body, pedicle and lamina-pedicle region

386
Q

What is the generic direction and length of the fifth lumbar transverse process?

A

It is directed straight lateral and is the shortest of all lumbar transverse processes

387
Q

What is the typical number of segments that unite to form the adult sacrum?

A

5 segments

388
Q

What forms the median sacral crest?

A

Fused spinous processes and their spinous tubercles

389
Q

What forms the intermediate sacral crest?

A

Fused articular processes and their facets

390
Q

What features may be identified along the intermediate sacral crest?

A

The mammillary process of S1 and the sacral cornu of S5

391
Q

What does the sacral cornu represent?

A

The inferior articular process and facet of S5

392
Q

What is the name of the inferior opening of the sacral spinal canal?

A

The sacral hiatus

393
Q

An imaginary line drawn from the transverse process of S1 to the inferior lateral sacral angle will form what feature?

A

The lateral sacral crest

394
Q

What is the sacral tuberosity?

A

The enlarged transverse tubercle of S2

395
Q

What feature is associated with the transverse tubercle of S5?f

A

Theinferior and lateral (inferolateral) sacral angle

396
Q

From the anterior view the intervertebral discs of sacrum will be replaced by what feature?

A

Transverse ridges

397
Q

What feature is identified on the lateral surface of S1-S3?

A

Auricular surface

398
Q

What feature does the anterior surface of the superior epiphyseal rim of S1 form?

A

The sacral promontory

399
Q

What is the name given to the region of bone extending laterally from the S1 vertebral body looking from the base view?

A

Sacral ala

400
Q

What forms the sacral ala?

A

The costal element and true transverse process

401
Q

What is the typical number of segments that unite to form the adult coccyx?

A

4 segments

402
Q

What bony features are present on teh coccyx?

A

All segments are represent by a vertebral body; in addition, Co1 has a coccygeal cornu and transverse process

403
Q

What is the homolog of the superior articular process and facet of Co1?

A

Coccygeal cornu

404
Q

What feature is present at the top of the manubrium sterni?

A

Jugular notch (suprasternal notch)

405
Q

What is the name given to the articular site at the superolateral margin of the manubrium sterni?

A

Clavicular notch

406
Q

What names are given to the articular sites for the joint with the first and second rib?

A

Costal notch I for the first rib costal cartilage

costal notch II for the second rib costal cartilage

407
Q

How many sternabrae for the corpus sterni?

A

4 sternabrae

408
Q

What surface feature no the corpus sterni identifies the location of the old synchondroses?

A

Transverse lines

409
Q

What articular sites for the costal cartilage of ribs will be identified on the corpus sterni?

A

Costal notches II-VII

410
Q

What are the primary parts of the vertebral end of a typical rib?

A

The head, neck and tubercle

411
Q

What names are given to the articular surfaces on the head of a typical rib based on location?

A

Superior articular surface/facet and inferior articular surface/facet

412
Q

What feature of the head of a rib separates the superior form inferior articular surface/facet?

A

The interarticular crest

413
Q

What features may be identified on the neck of a typical rib?

A

The crest of the rib

414
Q

Which feature of the tubercle of a typical rib is closer to the head of the rib?

A

The articular surface of the tubercle

415
Q

Which feature of the tubercle of a typical rib is closer to the shaft of the rib?

A

The non-articular surface of the tubercle

416
Q

What features may be identified on the body (corpus or shaft) of a typical rib?

A

The costal angle and costal groove

417
Q

What is present on the head of the first rib

A

A single articular surface

418
Q

Is there a crest on the neck of the first rib?

A

Not a well-developed one like on the typical rib

419
Q

What is unique about the body (corpus or shaft) of the first rib?

A

The body (corpus or shaft) of the first rib is flattened and has a scalene tubercle flanked by a groove for the subclavian artery and the groove for the subclavian vein

420
Q

Which groove on the body (corpus or shaft) of the first rib is close to the vertebral end?

A

the groove for the subclavian artery and the first thoracic nerve

421
Q

Which groove on the body (corpus or shaft) of the first rib is close to the sternal end?

A

the groove for the subclavian vein

422
Q

Is either the costal angle or costal groove apparent on the first rib?

A

neither the costal angle nor the costal groove are apparent on the first rib

423
Q

What features may be identified on the head of rib 2?

A

two articular surfaces and the interarticular crest

424
Q

What names are given to the articular surfaces on the head of rib 2 based on location?

A

superior articular surface/facet and inferior articular surface/facet?

425
Q

What feature mat be identified on the neck of rib 2?

A

the crest of the rib

426
Q

What features may be identified on the tubercle of rib 2?

A

the articular surface of the tubercle and the non-articular surface of the tubercle

427
Q

What is the costal angle of a rib?

A

the location on the body (corpus or shaft) of the rib where there is a directional change toward the sternum

428
Q

What unique feature is present on the body (corpus or shaft) of the second rib?

A

the tuberosity for the serratus anterior

429
Q

What distinguishes the vertebral end of rib 11 typical ribs?

A

the single articular surface, absence of a well-developed crest on the neck and the tubercle may be absent or if present, consists only of a non-articular surface

430
Q

What features maybe present on the body (corpus or shaft) of the eleventh rib?

A

the costal angle and costal groove are under-devloped

431
Q

What is the appearance of the sternal end of the eleventh rib?

A

it is somewhat pointed

432
Q

What helps to distinguish the vertebral end of the twelfth rib from other ribs?

A

the head has a single articular surface, the crest of the neck is poorly developed, the tubercle is absent

433
Q

What is the condition of the body (corpus or shaft) of rib 12?

A

the costal angle and costal groove are absent and it is the shortest of all ribs

434
Q

What is the appearance of the sternal end of the twelfth rib?

A

the sternal end is pointed

435
Q

What term is used to identify the study of joints?

A

arthrology

436
Q

What term is used to identify the study of ligaments?

A

syndesmology

437
Q

What are the three histological classifications of joints?

A

fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial fluid

438
Q

What were the three latin classifications of joints based on movement potential?

A

synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis and diarthrosis

439
Q

What is the classification of a joint held together with cartilage?

A

synchondrosis

440
Q

What is the classification of a joint formed by a growth condition?

A

symphysis

441
Q

What is the classification of a plane or gliding synovial joint?

A

arthrodia

442
Q

What is the classification of a hinge type synovial joint?

A

ginglymus

443
Q

What is the classification of a pivot type synovial joint?

A

trochoid

444
Q

What is the classification of a knuckle type synovial joint?

A

condylar or bicondylar

445
Q

What is the classification of a n oval-like synovial joint?

A

ellipsoidal

446
Q

What is the classification of a saddle type synovial joint?

A

sellar

447
Q

What is the classification of a ball and socket synovial joint?

A

cotyloid, spheroidal or enarthrosis

448
Q

What term is now used to identify the synarthrosis joint type?

A

fibrous joints

449
Q

What is the name given to a condition in which bones are fused together by bone?

A

synostosis

450
Q

What fibrous connective tissue classically fills the joint space of a syndesmosis?

A

a ligament

451
Q

Which classification of cartilage joint is the first to appear developmentally?

A

(amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis

452
Q

What are the characteristics of the (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?

A

they are primmer cartilage joints, temporary in longevity, composed of hyaline cartilage and form between ossification centers within a cartilage template

453
Q

Which classification of cartilage joint is secondary, permanent, composed of fibrous cartilage (fibrocartilage) and occurs between bones formed by endochondral ossification?

A

(amphiarthrosis) symphysis

454
Q

What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?

A

articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid

455
Q

What examples of synovial plane (diarthrosis arthrodial) joints occur along the vertebral column?

A

most zygapophyses of the vertebral column

456
Q

What is an example of synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid) joints along the vertebral column?

A

median atlano-axial joint

457
Q

What is the shared morphological characteristic of diarthrosis trochoid joints?

A

an osseous pivot point and an osteopath-ligamentous ring

458
Q

What example of synovial saddle (diarthrosis cellar) joint is identified along the spine?

A

the joint of Luschka of typical cervicals is a modified seller joint?

459
Q

What example of the diarthrosis condylar joint is identified along the spine?

A

the atlanto-occipital joint may be classified as a diarthrosis condylar joint

460
Q

Which joint classification exhibits a knuckle-shaped surface on one side of the joint and an elliptical, concave surface of the other side?

A

diarthrosis ellipsoidal

461
Q

What example of the diarthrosis ellipsoidal joint is identified along the spine?

A

the atlanto-occipital joint may be classified as a diarthrosis ellipsoidal joint

462
Q

Which synovial joint classifications are now often interchanged in textbooks?

A

ellipsoidal and condylar synovial joints

Spinal Anatomy (1 decks)

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