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NURS 1505- Units 1-3- Exam 1 > Exam 1 material > Flashcards

Exam 1 material Flashcards

1
Q

What should be included in your assessment of a patient?

A
  • Pt. History
  • Physical Assessment
  • Pt’s. Perceived needs
  • Pt’s current and past health practices
  • Values and Lifestyle
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2
Q

When setting priorities on your pt’s care, they should be based on what 5 things?

A
  • Urgency of health problem
  • Tx Plan
  • Pt’s priorities
  • Pt’s values and beliefs
  • Resources avail.
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3
Q

What are the ABCs of oxygenation?

A

Airway, Breathing, and Circulation

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4
Q

What all is included in a CBC Test?

A

RBC, Hgb, Hct, RBC Indices, WBC, and Diff. WBC

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5
Q

What are the possible causes of an increased RBC?

A

Dehydration, Polycythemia vera, High Altitude, and Cardiovascular Disease

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6
Q

What could be the cause of a decrease in RBC?

A

Blood loss, Anemias, over-hydration, Leukemias, Chronic renal failure, and pregnancy

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7
Q

What could be the cause of increased Hgb?

A

Polycythemia, Dehydration, COPD, Heart Failure

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8
Q

What could be the cause for a decrease in Hgb?

A

Blood loss, Anemias, Kidney disease, and Cancer

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9
Q

What could be the cause for an increase in Hct?

A

Dehydration, burns, and hypovolemia

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10
Q

What could be the cause for a decrease in Hct?

A

Acute blood loss, pregnancy, dietary deficiencies, and anemias

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11
Q

What are the possible causes for an increase in WBC?

A

Acute Infections, Tissue necrosis, and collagen disease

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12
Q

What are the possible causes of a decrease in WBC?

A

Viral infections, hematopoietic disease, and rheumatoid arthritis

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13
Q

What are the possible causes for an increase in platelet count?

A

Infections, Polycythemia vera, Acute blood loss, and splenectomy

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14
Q

What are the possible causes of a decrease in platelets?

A
  • ITP (Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpa)
  • Cancer
  • Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
  • Some type of anemias
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15
Q

What are the possible causes for an increase in ALT?

A
  • Hepatitis
  • Mono
  • Acute Pancreatitis
  • Acute MI
  • Heart Failure
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16
Q

What are the possible causes for an increase in AST?

A
  • Liver diseases
  • Acute MI
  • Anemias
  • Skeletal Muscle Disease
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17
Q

Steps to Preparing for Diagnostic Testing

A
  • Instruct the pt and family about the procedure for the diagnostic test (Prep, NPO?, Length of test)
  • Explain purpose of test
  • Instruct the pt and family about activity restrictions related to the testing.
  • Instruct the pt and family on the reaction the diagnostic test may produce (flushing of dye, increase fluids after barium contrast, etc.)
  • Provide the pt. with detailed information about the diagnostic testing equipment.
  • Inform the pt and family about the time frame for when the results will be available.
  • Instruct the client and family to ask an questions so that the health care provider can clarify information and allay any fears.
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18
Q

What are the 3 phases of the diagnostic process?

A

Pre-test, Intratest, and Post-test

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19
Q

A thorough assessment and data collection assists the nurse in determining communication and teaching strategies in which phase of diagnostic testing?

A

Pre-Test

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20
Q

What must a nurse ask a female pt prior to having radiologic studies?

A

the potential for pregnancy

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21
Q

What phase of the diagnostic process focuses on specimen collection and performing/assisting with certain diagnostic testing?

A

Intratest

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22
Q

What phase of the diagnostic testing does the nurse provide emotional and physical support while monitoring the pt as needed?

A

Intratest

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23
Q

What phase of the diagnostic testing does the nurse ensure correct labeling, storage and transportation of a specimen?

A

Intratest

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24
Q

What phase of the diagnostic testing does the nurse focus on the pt care of follow-up activities and observations?

A

Post-test

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25
What phase of the diagnostic testing does the nurse compare previous and current test results and modifies NIs as needed?
Post-Test
26
After testing for arterial blood gases (ABGs) on a patient, how long must the nurse assure pressure is held on the site after removing the needle?
5-10 min.
27
When testing for fecal occult blood, what foods and medicines can cause a false-positive?
- Red meats - Raw veggies or fruits (radishes, turnips, horseradish and melons) - Meds that irritate the gastric mucosa and cause bleeding (NSAIDs, aspirin, steroids, iron preps, and anticoagulants)
28
If ingested, what can cause a false negative on a fecal occult blood test?
Vitamin C
29
Clients with ______ cannot undergo an MRI because of the strong magnetic field.
Implanted metal devices (Pacemaker, metal hip, etc.)
30
Red dye in tattoos, permanent cosmetics, and people wearing transdermal patches w/ foil backing can be problematic during which diagnostic test?
MRI
31
After a liver biopsy, the pt is typically placed on what side? Why?
Positioning the client on the biopsy site to apply pressure to prevent bleeding
32
If test results from ____ & _____ are abnormal, the liver biopsy from a client may be contraindicated.
PT and Platelet count
33
Morphine sulfate or aspirin, prescribed for pain, is what type of therapeutic drug?
Palliative
34
What does a palliative drug do?
Relieves the symptoms of a disease but does not affect the disease itself.
35
What does a curative drug do?
Cures a disease or condition
36
What does a supportive drug do?
Supports body function until other txs or the body's response can take over.
37
What does a substitutive drug do?
Replaces body fluids or substances
38
What does a chemotherapeutic drug do?
Destroys malignant cells
39
What do Restorative drugs do?
Returns the body to health
40
What is pruritus?
Itching of the skin with our without a rash
41
What is angioedema?
Edema due to increased permeability of the blood capillaries
42
What it rhinitis?
Excessive watery discharge from the nose
43
What is lacrimal tearing?
Excessive tearing
44
What are 8 symptoms a common mild allergic response?
- Skin rash - Pruritus - Angioedema - Rhinitis - Lacrimal tearing (eye watering) - Nausea, Vomitting - Wheezing, Dyspnea - Diarrhea
45
What are the 7 essential parts of a drug order?
- Full name of client - Date and Time the order is written - Name of the drug to be administered - Dosage of the drug - Frequency of administration - Route of administration - Signature of person writing order
46
What are the 9 parts of a prescription?
- Descriptive information about the client; name, address, and sometimes age - Date on which the prescription was written - The Rx symbol - Medication name, dosage and strength - Route of admin. - Dispensing instructions for pharmacist - Directions for admin to be given to the pt. - Refill and/or special labeling - Prescriber's signature
47
Practice Guidelines- Administering Meds
- Question any order that is illegible or that you consider incorrect. Call the person who prescribed the medications for clarification. - Be knowledgeable about the medication you administer; know WHY the client is taking them - Do not use liquid medications that are cloudy or have changed color - If a pt vomits after taking an oral med, report to the charge nurse.
48
What are the 6 "Rights" of Med Administration?
- Right Medication - Right Dose - Right Time - Right Route - Right Client - Right Documentation
49
What are some of the physiological changes associated with aging that influences medication admin and effectiveness?
- Altered memory - Decreased visual acuity - Decrease in renal and liver function - Less complete and slower absorption from the GI tract - Higher portion of fat to lean body mass - Decreased organ sensitivity - Altered quality of organ responsiveness - Decrease in manual dexterity
50
What types of medication cannot be administered by NG or Gastrostomy tube?
- Enteric-coated (EC) - Sustained-action - Buccal - Sublingual
51
What should you do before giving medications through an NG or Gastrostomy tube?
Aspirate all the stomach contents and measure the residual volume
52
What is the process of administering medications through an NG or Gastrostomy tube?
- Remove the plunger from the syringe and connect syringe to a pinched or kinked tube. - Put 15-30 mL of sterile water into barrel to flush the tube before admin. first medication - Pinch or clamp the using before all the water is instilled to avoid excess air entering the stomach - Pour liquid or dissolved med into barrel and allow to flow by gravity into the internal tube. - If more than one med, administer separately & flush in between. - When all medications have been administered, flush with 15-30 mL of warm water to clear the tube.
53
What is the typical size needle for an adult requiring a subq injection?
#24-26 gauge & 3/8-5/8" long (up to 1" for obese pts)
54
What is the correct size needle for the pt's requiring an intramuscular injection?
#20-22 gauge & 1-1 1/2"
55
What are 5 factors that influence the flow rate of IV fluids?
- The position of the forearm - The position and patency of the tubing - The height of the infusion bottle - Possible infiltration or fluid leakage - Relationship of the size of the angiocath to the vein
56
What are the 5 QSEN competencies?
- Provide pt- centered care - Collaborate with the interdisciplinary team - Implement EBP - Use quality improvement in Pt care - Use informatics in pt care
57
_____ uses data to monitor outcomes of care processes and use improvement methods to design and test changes to continuously improve the quality and safety of health care systems.
Quality improvement
58
What ways can nursing students participate in Quality Improvement in the clinical setting?
- Survey completion for clinical sites - Assisting w/ chart audits - Having a question in mind
59
_____ refers to all errors caused by all members of the health care team or system that lead to pt injury or death.
medical harm
60
_____ is the ethical principle that implies a person's self-determination and self-management.
autonomy
61
_____ promotes positive actions to help others; "Do good"
beneficence
62
____ emphasizes the importance of preventing harm and ensuring the pt's well-being; "Do no harm"
Nonmaleficence
63
_____ refers to the agreement that nurses will keep their obligations or promises to patients to follow through with care.
fidelity
64
______ is the principle in which the nurse is obligated to tell the truth to the best of his/her knowledge.
veracity
65
What is SBAR, and what does it stand for?
- SBAR is a formal method of communication between 2 or more members of the healthcare team. - Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation
66
What are the 5 "Rights" of delegation?
- Right Task - Right Circumstance - Right Person - Right Communication - Right Supervision
67
What are some things to note on a patient before activation RRT?
- Increase in HR - Decrease in BP - Increase in Pain - Change in AAO status
68
What is the prioritization of needs?
(Red)- Oxygenation (Orange)- Nutrition, Elimination, Safety, and Fluid/Electrolytes (Yellow)- Comfort, Sensory, Rest and Activity (Green)- Sexuality, Spirituality, Learning, and Human Interaction
69
What are the 5 components of the nursing process?
Assessing, Diagnosing, Planning, Intervention, and Evaluation
70
What are the 3 types of nursing diagnoses?
- Actual - Risk - Health Promotion/Wellness
71
The TJC creates what every year?
NPSG- National Patient Safety Goals
72
What does QSEN stand for?
Quality and Safety Education for Nurses

NURS 1505- Units 1-3- Exam 1 (2 decks)

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