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NURS 709 Pathophysiology > Exam 1 Material > Flashcards

Exam 1 Material Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of health?

A

1)Attain lives free of presentable diseases, disability, injury and premature death
2)Achieve health equity and eliminate disparities
3)Promote good health for all
4)Promote healthy behavior across the lifespan

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2
Q

What is disease?

A

An acute or chronic illness that one acquires or is born with that causes physiological disfunction in one or more body structures

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3
Q

What is pathophysiology?

A

Physiology of altered health

Study of the structural and functional changes in cells, tissues and organs that cause or are caused by disease

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4
Q

What is etiology?

A

The causes of disease

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5
Q

What is pathogenesis?

A

How the disease process evolves

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6
Q

What are the 5 manifestations?

A

Sign, symptom, syndrome, sequela, complication

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7
Q

Manifestions:
What is a sign?

A

a manifestation noted by an observer

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8
Q

Manifestions:
What is a symptom?

A

A subjective complaint noted by the person who has the disorder

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9
Q

Manifestions:
What is a syndrome?

A

A compilation of symptoms that are characteristic of a specific disease state

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10
Q

Manifestions:
What is a sequela?

A

Lesions or impairments that follow or cause disease; a predictable result of disease; result is anticipated

EX: Fatigue from pnemonia

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11
Q

Manifestions:
What is a complication?

A

A possible adverse extension of disease or outcome of treatment; an unexpected result that actions are taken to prevent

EX: sepsis from pnemonia from bacteria in lungs spreading to bloodstream

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12
Q

Timelines:
What is the difference between acute and chronic?

A

Acute is relatively severe but self limiting while chronic is a continuous long term process

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13
Q

Timelines:
What is considered preclinical?

A

A disease that is not clinically evident but will progress to a clinical; patient most likely will not notice

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14
Q

Timelines:
What is subacute?

A

Intermediate between acute and chronic

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15
Q

What is an incidence?

A

Rate at which a certain event occurs

EX: The number of new cases of a specific disease during a particular point in time in a at risk population

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16
Q

What is prevalence?

A

The number of new and old cases of a disease in a population at a given time

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17
Q

What is morbidity?

A

The effect an illness has on a persons life

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18
Q

What is mortality?

A

The cause of death in a given population

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19
Q

What is primary prevention?

A

Keeping disease from occuring by removing risk factors

EX: Folic acid to prevent spinabifida

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20
Q

What is secondary prevention?

A

Detects disease early when it is still asymtomatic and treatment measures can still effect or stop a disease from spreading

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21
Q

What is tertiary prevention?

A

Directed at clinical interventions that prevent further deterioration or reduce complications

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22
Q

What are the main causes of atrophy?

A

Lack of movement, blood supply, hormone or malnutrition

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23
Q

What two types of tissue does atrophy appear in?

A

Muscles and fat

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24
Q

What is atrophy?

A

A decrease in cell size

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25
Q

What is hypertrophy?

A

An increase in cell size

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26
Q

What is an example of a physiological hypertrophy?

A

Gaining muscles

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27
Q

What are the two types of a pathological hypertrophy?

A

Compensatory and Adaptive

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28
Q

What is compensatory hypertrophy?

A

An organ may grow in size to make up for a missing organ-like a kidney

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29
Q

What is adaptive hypertrophy?

A

We may see hypertrophy appear because an organ is under too much strain, for example in the myocardium

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30
Q

What is Hyperplasia?

A

a increase in the number of cells; not always pathological in nature

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31
Q

What is metaplasia?

A

An area of tissue where cells are not expected type-> most likely a different subtype

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32
Q

What is displasia?

A

The cells are disorganized; they are the wrong size, age, arrangement

-Strong indicator of cancer

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33
Q

What is the difference in distrophic tissue calcification and metastatic tissue calcification?

A

Distrophic is calcification in a set area from injured or dead cells-can see calcification macroscopically

Metastatic is high calcium in the blood which leads to calcium deposits in tissues, no tissue damage, can only see microscopically

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34
Q

What two causes might cause metastatic calcification?

A

Bone cancers or parathyroid disorders

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35
Q

What are the types of blunt physical injury?

A

Contusion (bruise)
hematoma (bleeding beneath skin)
Abrasions (scrape in large area)
Laceration (tear in skin, accidental)
Fracture

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36
Q

What are the two types of Heat injury?

A

low intensity: damage to capillaries and cell membrance

high intensity: Worse damage to blood vessels, coagulations of proteins

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37
Q

What occurs during cold injuries?

A

Blood has a high viscosity and vasoconstriction in blood vessels

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38
Q

What are examples of ionizing radiation?

A

Gamma rays, Xrays,

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39
Q

Where does ionizing radiation sit on the UV spectrum?

A

Higher than the UV spectrum

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40
Q

Substances that are not fully phagocytosed end up?

A

Substances often accumulate in the cytoplasm (frequently in the lysosomes) or in the nucleus

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41
Q

How could one become injured from non-ionizing radiation?

A

Injuries would be caused by heat because non-ionizing radiation’s excess vibrations create thermal energy

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42
Q

What are two examples of non-ionizing radiation?

A

ultrasound, microwave

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43
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

deficency of oxygen directly in cells or tissues

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44
Q

What is hypoxemia?

A

deficency of oxygen in the blood

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45
Q

What are two causes of systemic hypoxia?

A

airways issues, lack of hemoglobin to transport O2

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46
Q

Localized hypoxia is caused by?

A

reduced arterial blood flow to tissues

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47
Q

Perfusion is the?

A

steady blood flow through arteries

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48
Q

What are the hypoxic injury effects?

A

Aerobic metabolism is impaired
Lactic acid buildup
Sodium/potassium pump halt

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49
Q

What is the result of the Sodium/potassium pump halt during an hypoxic injury?

A

The sodium and water contents of the cell build up and the cell becomes an acidotic water logged cell. If it continues, the lysosomal membranes and cell membranes will rupture

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50
Q

Ischemia is caused by?

A

Impaired blood supply with the most common cause being localized hypoxia

Athlerosclorosis is normally the reason

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51
Q

In an ischemia the tissue is?

A

impaired but not yet dead-can be reversible if blood supply is returned

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52
Q

What is Athlerosclorosis?

A

Buildup of plaque on walls of arteries

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53
Q

What is an Infarction?

A

Death of tissue caused by studden stoppage of blood supply and complete lack of O2

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54
Q

What is necrosis?

A

Localized cell death due to irreversible damage that is unplanned

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55
Q

What can happen to cells undergoing necrosis?

A

The unregulated cell digestion by enzymes and products being reduced into intracellular spaces can cause inflammation and cells may undergo liquefaction or coagulation

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56
Q

What is gangrene?

A

a large area of necrosis that is visible macroscopically

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57
Q

What normally causes gangrene?

A

an ischemia or infarction

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58
Q

Gangrene doesn’t just involve necrosis-what other factor deliniates gangrene from regular necrosis?

A

Saprophytic bacteria grows over the dead tissue feeding on the dead cells

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59
Q

What are the 3 types of gangrene?

A

Dry
Wet
Gas

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60
Q

What are the characteristics of dry gangrene?

A

Tissue has a dry, shriveled, wrinkled appearance that is dark in color and shows a line of demarcation

Normally seen in extremities

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61
Q

What causes dry gangrene?

A

Blockage of arterial blood flow

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62
Q

What are the characteristics of wet gangrene?

A

Tissue is cool, swollen and fluid filled. Presence of fluid filled blisters called bullae

Can occur in extremities or internally

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63
Q

What are the characteristics of gas gangrene?

A

Tissue is discolored with pockets of gas

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64
Q

What causes gas gangrene?

A

Clostridia bacteria in tissue, normally caused by a deep puncture wound.

As the bacteria spread they create gas

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65
Q

What are the two levels of immune defense?

A

1) Natural physical, chemical and mechanical barriers that prevent microorganisms from entering the body

2)Adaptive and Acquired immunity

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66
Q

If a tissue is vascular, what should you immediately know about it?

A

Contains blood vessels

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67
Q

What is the purpose of inflammation?

A

Gets tissue ready for repair
If a pathogen is introduced in an injury, inflammation will limit the pathogen and keep it contained
Helps transition to adaptive immunity

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68
Q

When you see the suffix of -itis on a word, what do you know about it?

A

it indicates an inflammatory condition

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69
Q

How long is acute inflammation?

A

It should be less than two weeks to return to normal

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70
Q

How long does it take acute inflammation to start?

A

minutes to hours

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71
Q

Which immune cell mostly responds in acute inflammation?

A

Neutrophils

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72
Q

In chronic inflammation, which immune cell responds after the acute period?

A

Macrophages

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73
Q

What are the 3 components of inflammation?

A

Vascular phase
Cellular phase
Inflammatory mediators

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74
Q

What coordinates the vascular and cellular phases?

A

Inflammatory mediators

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75
Q

What occurs in the vascular phase?

A

A very brief (a second or two) vasoconstriction or arterioles followed by vasodilation of arterioles and increased capillary permeability and dilation

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76
Q

What are the overall results of the vascular phase of inflammation?

A

-Vasodilation and increase capillary permeability
-Increased blood flow to area
-Macrophages and WBC are able to get access to area
-Aids in clotting

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77
Q

The vascular phase timing can change based on the?

A

Area of injury

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78
Q

What occurs during the cellular phase?

A

-A high concentration of leukocytes arrive near the injury cite because of chemical mediators released during the vascular phase. These leukocytes leak out of capillaries into tissue

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79
Q

During the cellular phase, what is the purpose of leukocytes?

A

Direct result: They conduct phagocytosis
Indirect result: They call more cells to the area

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80
Q

When mast cells are damaged they degranulate releasing 3 chemicals. What are they?

A

Histamine
Neutrophil chemotaxic factor
Eosinophil chemotaxic factor

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81
Q

The chemotaxic factors released by the mast cells pull ____________ out of the blood.

A

neutrophils

82
Q

The main cell of acute inflamation that always circulates in the blood is?

A

Neutrophils

83
Q

The function of the 1st to arrive neutrophils is to?

A

immediately start phagocytosis in the blood and release other chemotaxtic factors

84
Q

Macrophages/monocytes are attracted to the injured area by

A

neutrophils

85
Q

What is the function of Macrophages/Monocytes?

A

Phagocytosis

86
Q

If a young neutrophil count is up, this would be an indicator of an?

A

immune response

87
Q

What are the plasma derived mediators?

A

Kinin (Bradykinin)
Coagulation factors that form clots
Complement System Proteins

88
Q

What are the cell derived mediators?

A

Histamine, Serotonin

Arachidonic Acid Metabolites

Nitric Oxide

Cytokines

89
Q

What are the cell derived mediators that are made from Achidonic Acid Metabolites?

A

Leuktrienes, Prostaglandins, Thromboxane

90
Q

What are the meanings of these words:

Rubor
Calor
Tumor
Dolor
Functio Laesa

A

Rubor-Erthema-Redness
Calor-Heat (increased blood flow)
Tumor-Swelling
Dolor-Pain
Functio Laesa-Loss of function

91
Q

What is exudate?

A

Fluid accumulated in inflammed tissues usually containing plasma, WBC and proteins

92
Q

What are the 4 different type of exudate?

A

Serous, Fibrinous, Purulent/suppurative, hemorragic

93
Q

What increases body temp/ causes a fever?

A

Pyeogens-which are produced by both bacteria and leukocytes

94
Q

The MCV count is the

A

mean corpuscular volume

The average size of RBC

95
Q

Hematocrit is?

A

The percentage of RBC in blood

96
Q

Reticulocytes are? What is the Reticulocyte count?

A

Immature RBC and the reticulocyte count is the number of these in the blood

97
Q

What is a normal WBC count

A

3.7-11K/uL

98
Q

What are the 3 types of Lymphocytes?

A

B-cells
T-cells
NK cells

99
Q

What is the average RBC count?

A

4-6 mill/mm^3

100
Q

What is the average MCV?

A

81-96 um^3/RBC

101
Q

What is the average hemoglobin concentration?

A

12-16% for women
40-54% for mean

102
Q

What is the average reticulocyte count?

A

1-2%

103
Q

What are the 3 important processes for Hemostasis?

A

Transient vasoconstriction
Platelet activation
Activation of clotting factors

104
Q

What are the phases of hemostasis?

A

Vasoconstriction
Platelet plug formation
Activation of clotting cascades
Formation of a blood clot
Dissolving of a clot

105
Q

What is the average lifespan and count of platelets?

A

Lifespan of 10 days
A average of 150,000-400,000/mm^3

106
Q

What is PTT or PT?

A

Both measure how long a sample takes to clot after chemicals are added

PTT-activated partial thromboplastin time (normal 40s)
PT-Prothrombin time (normal 11-13 sec)

107
Q

The INR is the ratio of?

A

PT/normal

PT-prothrombin time

108
Q

What is the normal WBC count?

A

3,700-11,000/mm^3

109
Q

What is the average concentratin of neutrophils in WBC?

A

55-65%

110
Q

What is the average concentratin of eosinophils?

A

1-3%

111
Q

What is the average concentratin of basophils?

A

0.3-0.5%

112
Q

What is the average concentratin of lymphocytes in WBC?

A

20-30%

113
Q

Neoplasm is a term for?

A

Malignancy (cancer)

114
Q

Leukopenia/Neutropenia is a?

A

Decreased WBC count, that most often effects neutrophils

115
Q

A neutrophil count of less than 1000ul would be an indicator of?

A

Neutropenia

116
Q

Neutropenic precautions are taken if the ANC count is below _______. These precautions are?

A

below 500ul

Precautions are reducing any risk of possible infection

117
Q

Agranulocytosis is?

A

A severe lack of neutrophils; the abscense of almost alm

118
Q

If a patient is in agranulocytosis, how might you see an infection present itself in the patient?

A

The infection may not show any normal manifestations of infection because of the lack of neutrophils

119
Q

Leukocytosis is?

A

An incresse in WBC, specifically neutrophils that is often a temporary response to infection but ever so occasionally can be chronic

120
Q

Infectious Mononucleosis is?

A

A self limiting lymphoproliferative disorder usually due to Epstien-Barr virus or CMV (cytomegalovirus)

121
Q

Infectious Mononucleosis is spread via? and is most common in what demographic?

A

Contaminated saliva and is most common in teenagers and young adults

122
Q

What is the time frame for Infectious Mononucleosis?

A

4-6 week incubation period, then a prodromal period then overt symptoms

Acute phase lasts 2-3 weeks

Full recovery in 2-3 months

123
Q

What are the symptoms of Infectious Mononucleosis?

A

Fever, pharyngitis, lmphadenopathy, possible hepatitis, malaise, spenomegaly/inflammation, fatigue, leukocytosis

124
Q

A lymphoma is?

A

a malignancy of the lymphatic system

125
Q

Where does the initial lymphoma tumor present itself?

A

in the 2ndary lymphatic organs

126
Q

An adult patient has a solid tumour in the lymph tissue, specifically in the lymphnode. A needle biopsy is done, and there is an abscense of Reed-Stendenburg cells. The patient is not reporting any chest discomfort. Based on this information, what type of lymphoma would it seem to be?

A

Non-Hodkins lymphoma

127
Q

A teenage patient comes inn complaning of chest discomfort. A tumour is found in the chain of lymphnodes in the diaphram. Upon a biopsy, a large abnormal lymphocute with 2 nuclei was found. What type of lymphoma would this appear to be?

A

Hodkins Lymphoma

128
Q

What is a leukemia?

A

A proliferation of malignant hematopoietic stem cells which replace normal bone marrow cells and move out into the blood.

129
Q

Leukemia would be considered what type of cancer?

A

A blood cancer

130
Q

What is the most common cause of cancer in children?

A

Leukemia

131
Q

A child comes in with a sudden onset of symptoms including malaise, fever, bleeding, bone pain and tenderness, abdominal discomfort, anemia. A sample of blood and bone marrow is taken. The sample shows a high count of immature lymphoblasts and a low erythrocyte and platelet count. What might be the diagnosis for this patient?

A

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia

132
Q

If a high number of immature myeloblasts are found in a bone sample instead of lymphoblasts-what type of leukemia would this be?

A

Acute Myeloid leukemia

133
Q

An older adult patient comes in with various leukemia manifestations such as lymphadenopathy, anemia and bleeding problems. Upon a sample the WBC count is over 20,000 with lymphocytes being 70-90% of the count. What is the most likely cause?

A

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

134
Q

A patient comes in with anemia, fatigue and lymphadenopathy. The patient has a high WBC count and a lymphoblast count of over 100,000. The patient has a genetic panel run and it is returned with the presence of a ‘philadelphia chromosome’. What is the most likely cause of the symptoms?

A

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia

135
Q

A philadelphia chromosome is a?

A

Translocation of portions of chromosome 9 and 22

136
Q

In older adults Malignant B-cells produce M proteins (or Bence-Jones) protiens that damage bones (especially the skull. What type of leukemia would this be?

A

Multiple Myeloma

137
Q

Anemia is?

A

a lowering in number, size or hemologlobin concentration in RBC

138
Q

A polycythemia is>

A

and increase in the size of RBC

139
Q

The mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration or MCHC is?

A

What gives the RBC their color due to the hemoglobin concentration. Not enough results in hypochromic (pale) RBC

140
Q

Macrocytic would be an indicator of what with a RBC?

A

Large size

141
Q

Normochromic, normocytic RBC but with just a low concentration would indicate what type of anemia?

A

Acute blood loss anemia, Hemolytic Anemia or Aplastic anemia.

RBC’s are normal but due to the bleed there isn’t enough to have proper perfusion

142
Q

RBCs that are microcytic, have a low MCV and hypochromic would be an indication of what type of anemia?

A

Chronic blood loss anemia

143
Q

A hemolytic anemia is an anemia caused by?

A

Destruction (hemolysis) due to intrinsic or extrinsic problems with RBC

Intrinsic: Defective hb, imparied globulin synthesis, membrane defects, enzyme deficences

Extrinsic: Isoimmune or autoimmune responses, malaria, hyperspeenism

144
Q

A patient comes in with jaundice and a bone marrow sample shows a hyperactive number of reticulocytes. What is the most likely cause?

A

Hemolytic anemia

The jaundice is caused from high bilirubin levels

145
Q

What is Sickle Cell disease?

A

An autosomal recessive genetic mutation that changes the structure of Hb to HbS and is the most common form of hemolytic anemia

146
Q

1/600 African Americans have what type of Anemia?

A

Sickle cell

147
Q

What is a sickle cell crisis?

A

When a desaturated HbS mol changes shape or ‘sickles’ which can cause the RBC to clump together causing vascular occlusion especially in the capillaries

148
Q

What are the common manifestations in sickle cell?

A

Vaso-occlusive pain
Acute chest syndrome
Bone pain, swelling, slowed bone growth
Neurological complications
Infection risk

149
Q

What are the causes for deficent erythrocyte production?

A

Lack of essential “building blocks” for RBC

Disruption of Bone Marrow Function

Chronic damage of kidneys or liver

150
Q

Iron deficent Anemia is caused by?

A

low iron intake, impaired absorption of iron, or iron loss

151
Q

RBCs in iron deficent anemia would be classified as?

A

microcytic, hypochromic

152
Q

What are the two causes for Megaloblastic Anemia?

A

B12 or Folic Acid deficency

153
Q

A B12 deficency can cause?

A

A problem with maturation and division of RBC and maintence of myelin sheaths

154
Q

How is B12 absorbed?

A

In the stomach the B12 molecule links with the parietal cells in stomach and then is absorbed through the small intenstine

155
Q

What are the causes for a Folic acid deficency?

A

Malnutrition, Poor diet

Alcoholism or malabsorption problems are most likely causes

156
Q

Aplastic Anemia is?

A

A disorder of the stem cells in the bone marrow. A very high stem cell is the cause.

157
Q

Aplastc Anemia can become life threatening when?

A

it causes pancytopenia which is a low count of WBC, Platelets or any blood cell

158
Q

How can chronic kidney disease cause anemia?

A

The kidney secrets erythropoietin which stimulates RBC stem cell production. If the kidney doesnt secret the right amount then you can end up with microcytic hypochromic RBC

159
Q

Primary Absolute Polyscythemia is?

A

A neoplastic disease of bone marrow and all blood cell counts are high. This contributes to high blood viscosity and clots

160
Q

How is primary Absolute Polyscythemia treated?

A

Phlebotomy or medication to lower platelet aggregation and WBC count

161
Q

Secondary Absolute Polyscythemia is?

A

high levels of erythropoietin due to chronic hypoxia

162
Q

What is the treatment of secondary Absolute Polyscythemia?

A

Supplemental O2, cescation of smoking, better management of COPD

163
Q

What is relative polythemia?

A

A reduction in the amount of plasma that causes a relative increase in hematocrit. No more RBCs are produced but the decrease of plasma

164
Q

What are the causes of relative polythemia and the treatment?

A

Dehyrdration, medications, pretty much anything that causes loss of blood volume.

Oral or IV fluids

165
Q

What is Edema?

A

An accumulation of excess fluid in the ISF

166
Q

The “tissue space” is referred to as the?

A

ICF

167
Q

The venus space is referred to as the?

A

IVF

168
Q

A high capillary hydrostatic pressure is the?

A

pushing pressure from fluid inside the capillaries

169
Q

The low oncotic pressure is the?

A

same as osmotic pressure

The pressure of fluid compartment based of the concentration of particles in a compartment attract water in the compartment

170
Q

What is an example of oncotic pressure?

A

Albumin in capillaries are to large to cross the membrane, so if a buildup occurs, it will draw in water if water content is too low

171
Q

Edema can be caused by what 6 Factors?

A

1) decreased production of plasma proteins
2)decreased capillary oncotic pressure
3)Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure->net movement of fluid into ISF
4)Lymph vessel obstruction->decreased ISF absorption via lymph vessels
5)High tissue oncotic pressure
6)Increased capillary permeability->loss of plasma proteins

172
Q

A pitting edema would be diagnosed how?

A

If you push thumb or finger into tissuse and an indentation remains due to tissue overload

173
Q

A nonpitting edema is caused by?

A

Fluid, but it also contains other substances that provide structure

174
Q

What is third spacing?

A

The movement of a large amount of fluid into one of the transcellular fluid compartments

175
Q

What causes third spacing?

A

Poor lymphatic drainage that causes the trapping of fluid in transcellular spaces

176
Q

Body Fluid Imbalances:
Volume imbalance

A

the loss/gain of equal amounts of H2O and electrolytes

Causes change in ECF

Proportionate

177
Q

Body Fluid Imbalances:
Osmolality imbalances

A

Unequal loss/gain of water and electrolytes that causes change in ICF

178
Q

What is Ascites?

A

Accumulation of fluid between lining or peritoneal lining

179
Q

What are the mild effects of a ECF volume deficit and what percentage of water loss means mild?

A

2%
Thirst

180
Q

What are the moderate effects of a ECF volume deficit and what percentage of water loss?

A

5%

Worsening thirst, dry mucous membranes, poor skin tugor, BP drop, increased HR, orthostatic hypotension, decreased urine volume, high Hgb/Hct/BUN

181
Q

What are the severe effects of a ECF volume deficit and what percentage of water loss?

A

8%

Pallor, worsening BP drop, tachycardia, weak pulses, severely decreased urine output, change in LOC

182
Q

What are the potientially fatal effects of a ECF volume deficit and what percentage of water loss?

A

> 8%
Anuria and severly decreased BP

183
Q

What are the effects of ECF excess?

A

Mild weight gain is best indicator
Increased BP
High venus distension
Often edema because distension increases capillary hydrostatic pressure

184
Q

Osmolality imbalances are usually due to?

A

overall excess of deficency of sodium

Hyperglycemia in diabetes mellitus is less common cause

185
Q

Osmolality imbalances between ECF and ICF cause a shift of water. Which direction?

A

Plasma shift between tissues into cells

186
Q

Hypoatremia occurs when?

A

kidneys fail to excret water
excessive hypotonic IV fluids
compulsive water drinking

Think: Na < 135mEq/l

187
Q

What are the symptoms of hypoatremia?

A

Muscle cramps
decreased reflexes
weakness

188
Q

What is the treatment of hypoatremia?

A

Water restriction or Na administration

189
Q

What are the causes of Hyperatremia?

A

Inadequate intake of H2O from waterloss (due to fever/diaphoriesis/burns/diarrhea/renal problems/Diabetes insipitus)
excess hypertonic IV fluids

190
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperatremia?

A

thirst
lethargy/irritability progressing to seizures/coma
increased body temp
dry mucous membranes
oligura

191
Q

What are the serum Na numbers for someone experiencing hyperatremia?

A

Serum Na>145mEq/L

192
Q

What are the causes of hypokalemia?

A

decreased dietary intake of potassium
GI losses
Shift in cells (H+/K+ buffer system)
Increased loss in kidneys (through physiology or diuretics

193
Q

What are the symptoms of hypokalemia?

A

Fatigue
Weakness/muscle cramps
decrease in deep tendon reflexes
EKG changes-depressed T waves**

194
Q

What are the causes of hyperkalemia?

A

Inadequate renal excretion
Shift of fluid to ECF*
Excess oral intake

*acidosis, burns, crush injuries

195
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperkalemia?

A

Muscle weakness
Dyspenea
Dysrythmias
Peaked T waves****

196
Q

Can there be a human error in the diagnosis of hyperkalemia?

A

Yes-

An incorrect blood drawing technique, a tournquet left on too lonf, a tube of blood being shaken; anything that can cause the RBC to hemolyze releasing the potassium into the IVF

197
Q

PaO2 is?

A

the amount of free dissolved O2 floating in plasma not attached to hemoglobin

198
Q

What is the standard lab value for PaO2?

A

80-100mmHg

199
Q

What are the numbers to indicate Acidosis or Alkadosis regarding pH?

A

<7.35=Acidosis
>7.45=Alkadosis

200
Q

What is the normal PaCO2 range?

A

35-45mmHg

201
Q

What is the standard HCO3 range?

A

22-26mEq/l

NURS 709 Pathophysiology (5 decks)

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