Exam 1 - Lecture 1 & 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the drug development process

A

Steps involved in the marketing of drugs are:

  • preclinical testing (animal models),
  • Clinical testing phases
    • I (Safety),
    • II (Efficacy- does it work) &
    • III (Double-blind studies) [all phases drug metabolism],
  • NDA (FDA New Drug Application) and
  • Phase IV or post-marketing surveillance.

To be approved for marketing by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), a drug must be shown by studies to be “safe and effective”, terms that are relative to each particular drug.

Results from post-marketing surveillance have revealed rare but serious adverse reactions to drugs not reported during the investigational stages.

This may result in a “warning” added to the drug literature (e.g., torsade’s de pointes with thioridazine) or even withdrawal of the drug from the market (such as seen with Seldane, Vioxx, Redux, etc.

When a new drug is approved for marketing in the USA its conditions for use are detailed in the package insert the compilation of scientific data submitted by the manufacturer for FDA review and approval “indications.”

However, many drugs, once marketed, often find therapeutic utility for different purposes or in populations other than those described in the package insert.

Such drugs are used for “unlabeled” purposes.

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2
Q

What does phase I clinical testing test?

A

I (Safety),

Phase I clinical evaluation is the first testing of a new compound in subjects, for the purpose of establishing the tolerance of healthy human subjects at different doses; defining its pharmacological effects at anticipated therapeutic levels; and studying its absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion patterns in humans.

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3
Q

What does phase II clinical testing look for?

A

II (Efficacy- does it work)

Phase II clinical evaluation is controlled studies performed on patients with the target disease or disorder to determine a compound’s potential usefulness and short-term risks.

A relatively small number of patients, usually no more than several hundred subjects, are enrolled in phase II studies.

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4
Q

What does phase III clinical testing look for?

A

III (Double-blind studies) [all phases drug metabolism]

Phase III trials are controlled and uncontrolled clinical trials of a drug’s safety and efficacy in hospital and outpatient settings.

Phase III studies gather precise information on the drug’s efficacy for specific indications, determine whether the drug produces a broader range of adverse effects than those exhibited in the small study populations of phases I and II studies, and identify the best way of administering and using the drug for the purpose intended.

Woo, Teri Moser; Robinson, Marylou V (2015-08-03). Pharmacotherapeutics For Advanced Practice Nurse Prescribers (Page 39). F.A. Davis Company. Kindle Edition.

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5
Q

What is an IND?

A

An investigational new drug (IND) application is filed with the FDA prior to human testing.

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6
Q

What is an NDA?

A

New Drug Application

Regulatory Review: New Drug Application To market a new drug for human use, a manufacturer must have a new drug application (NDA) approved by the FDA. All information about the drug gathered during the drug discovery and development process is assembled in the NDA. During the review period, the FDA may ask the company for additional information about the product or seek clarification of the data contained in the application.

The FDA has 60 days to determine whether the NDA will be filed for review. Once the FDA files the NDA, a team is assigned to review the drug sponsor’s research on the safety and effectiveness of the drug.

Usually, the FDA requests additional information, and the manufacturer needs from 1 to 5 years to complete any additional well-controlled trials necessary to support the claimed indications or prove the drug’s safety.

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7
Q

What is a phase IV clinical trial?

A

Clinical trials conducted after a drug is marketed (referred to as phase IV studies in the United States) are an important source of information on as-yet undetected adverse outcomes, especially in populations not included in the premarketing trials (e.g., children, the elderly, pregnant women), and the drug’s long-term morbidity and mortality profile.

Regulatory authorities can require companies to conduct phase IV studies as a condition of market approval.

Clinical experience with a new drug may include no more than 1,000 to 2,000 patients. The detection of rare (less than 1 in 1,000) adverse drug reactions is not reliable until hundreds of thousands of patients have taken the drug.

Woo, Teri Moser; Robinson, Marylou V (2015-08-03). Pharmacotherapeutics For Advanced Practice Nurse Prescribers (Page 40). F.A. Davis Company. Kindle Edition.

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8
Q

What is bioavailability?

A

Bioavailability is the percentage of the dose of the drug administered by any route reaches the systemic circulation.

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9
Q

What is bioequivalence?

A

Bioequivalence is “equivalent release of the same drug substance from 2 or more drug products or formulations.”

Two different dosage forms of the same drug are considered to be bioequivalent when they produce AUC, Cmax and Tmax values that are neither clinically nor statistically different.

Levothyroxine and certain brands of phenytoin sodium are examples of drugs where the bioequivalence of various brands of the drug are questionable.

Sustained-release dosage forms may not be bioequivalent because of differences in the sustained-release formulation (e.g., niacin).

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10
Q

What is a drug indication?

A

Drugs condition for use.

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11
Q

What is drug use for unlabeled purpose?

A

Unlabeled Purpose: the therapeutic utility for different purposes or in populations other than those described in the package insert (discovered after marketing).

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12
Q

What are orphan drugs?

A

The Orphan Drug Act of 1983 provides incentives for the development of drugs for treatment of diseases affecting fewer than 200,000 patients in the US, or for research using commonly available (nonpatentable) chemicals for treatment of specific diseases.

The incentives (usually tax breaks) are to encourage companies to do research for which they are unlikely to recoup their costs.

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13
Q

Generic vs. Trade Drugs

A

Must prove equivalence “bioavailability” or equivalence

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14
Q

Controls required for Scheduled I drugs:

A
  • No accepted medical use
  • No legal use permitted
  • For registered research facilities only

Examples:

Heroin, LSD, mescaline, peyote, marijuana

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15
Q

Controls required for Scheduled II drugs:

A
  • No refills permitted
  • Written prescriptions only (no telephone orders)
  • Prescription expires in 72 h if not filled

Examples:

Narcotics (morphine, codeine, meperidine, opium, hydromorphone, oxycodone, oxymorphone, methadone)

Stimulants (cocaine, amphetamine, methylphenidate), hydrocodone,

Depressants (pentobarbital, secobarbital)

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16
Q

Controls required for Scheduled III drugs:

A
  • Prescription must be rewritten after 6 mo or 5 refills
  • Telephone prescription okay

Examples:

Stimulants (benzphetamine, chlorpheniramine, diethylpropion)

Depressants (butabarbital),

Testosterone

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17
Q

Controls required for Class IV drugs:

A
  • Same as schedule III
  • Penalties for illegal possession are different
  • Prescription must be rewritten after 6 mo or 5 refills
  • Telephone prescription okay

Examples:

Pentazocine, propoxyphene, phentermine, benzodiazepines, meprobamate

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18
Q

Controls required for Class V drugs:

A
  • Same as all prescription drugs
  • May be dispensed without a prescription unless regulated by the state.

Example:

Loperamide, diphenoxylate

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19
Q

Describe Schedule I Drugs:

A

Schedule I: Addictive substances with no approved medical use, no legal use, and only used in medical research facilities (e.g., heroin)

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20
Q

Describe Schedule II Drugs:

A

Schedule II:

No refills permitted,

No telephone orders

Unless emergency and written order to be provided within 7 days,

Electronic prescribing permitted with certain software

(Woo & Robinson, 2016). (e.g., morphine)

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21
Q

Describe Schedule III Drugs:

A

Schedule III: Prescription must be rewritten after 6 months or 5 refills, and a telephone or fax prescription is acceptable.

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22
Q

Describe Schedule IV drugs:

A

Schedule IV: Has same control requirements as schedule III, but penalties for illegal possession are different (e.g., Benzodiazepines)

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23
Q

Describe Schedule V drugs:

A

Schedule V: Same as all prescription drugs, and may be dispensed without a prescription unless state regulated. Texas law requires a prescription for Schedule V drugs so essentially, in Texas, there is no difference in prescribing or how schedules III, IV, & V are handled. (e.g., Loperamide)

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24
Q

Pharmacology

A

•The total knowledge of drugs including history, chemistry, source, biochemical & physical effects, pharmacodynamics (what the drug does to the body), pharmacokinetics (what the body does to the drug), therapeutics, site of action, interactions, distinctive features, etc.

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25
Q

Clinical Pharmacology

A

•The study of the effect of drugs in man (as compared to animal or comparative pharmacology). (The emphasis is on the drug and its uses.)

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26
Q

Pharmacotherapeutics

A

•deals with the use of drugs in prevention & treatment of disease, usually to alleviate symptoms or, sometimes, to alter the course of the disease. The emphasis is on the disease and the treatment thereof.

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27
Q

Drug

A

•any substance which, when introduced into the body, produces a physiological change, a biological change, a decrease in population of resident or invading microorganisms, or a decrease in abnormal tissue development

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28
Q

Toxicology

A

•deals with adverse effects of drugs

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29
Q

Therapeutic Index

A

Relative toxicity of a drug;

Most commonly, the ratio of the dose capable of killing 50% of animals (LD50) over that required to achieve a beneficial effect in 50% of the animals (ED50). In clinical terms, a drug that has a “small therapeutic index” has little difference between the therapeutic dose and the dose that causes toxicity (e.g., digoxin).

A drug may have more than one therapeutic index, depending on the specific uses of the drug and the toxic effect being considered. The margin of safety of aspirin for relief of headache is greater than its margin of safety when used for relief of arthritic pain.

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30
Q

Tolerance

A

Hyporeactivity that occurs from chronic exposure to a drug (such as an opioid or alcohol). When tolerance develops, usually increasing doses are needed to provide a therapeutic effect. This is attributed to neuronal adaptation or cellular tolerance.

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31
Q

Cross-Tolerance

A

May develop between drugs within a class (e.g., opioids) or between drugs of different classes that produce similar pharmacologic effects (e.g., alcohol & inhaled anesthetics).

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32
Q

Metabolic Tolerance

A
  • Enzyme Induction: decreased response to a dose of a drug which develops because of an increase in rate of elimination of the drug
  • Enzyme Inhibition: increased response to a dose of a drug which develops because of a reduced rate of drug elimination
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33
Q

Downregulation

A

Downregulation: a decrease in the number or sensitivity of receptor sites after continued dosing (may need increased dose)

Example of downregulation: One theory of type 2 diabetes is increased intake of sugar causes release of large amounts of insulin. Continued exposure to high levels of insulin causes the insulin receptors to become less sensitive or down regulation of the receptors.

A change in receptor numbers may also be caused by other hormones. For example, thyroid hormones increase both the number of beta-receptors in heart muscle and cardiac sensitivity to catecholamines). Up regulation and down regulation may contribute to two clinically important phenomena: first, tachyphylaxis or rapid tolerance to the effect of some drugs, and second, the “overshoot” phenomena that follow withdrawal of certain drugs.

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34
Q

Upregulation

A

Upregulation: an increase in the number of or sensitivity of receptor sites after continued dosing (may need lowered dose)

Example of upregulation: In response to constant depression of receptors (as with beta blockers), the body may either increase the number of receptors or increase the sensitivity of receptors. May have an exaggerated response if the drug is withdrawn.

A change in receptor numbers may also be caused by other hormones. For example, thyroid hormones increase both the number of beta-receptors in heart muscle and cardiac sensitivity to catecholamines). Up regulation and down regulation may contribute to two clinically important phenomena: first, tachyphylaxis or rapid tolerance to the effect of some drugs, and second, the “overshoot” phenomena that follow withdrawal of certain drugs.

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35
Q

IDIOSYNCRASY

A

describes an unusual effect of a drug. It usually occurs in a very small percentage of patients and may not be related to the dose of the drug

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36
Q

Side Effect

A

usually describes any action of the drug other than the desired (therapeutic) effect.

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37
Q

Adverse Effect

A

•any noxious, unintended, and undesired effect that occurs at normal drug doses. The terms “side effect” and “adverse effect” are often uses synonymously but all side effects may not be “noxious”

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38
Q

Toxic Effect

A

•effect (usually expected) produced by large (toxic) doses of the drug.

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39
Q

Additive Effect

A

•occur when the effect of 2 drugs administered together is equal to the sum of the effect of the 2 drugs taken separately

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40
Q

Synergistic Effects

A

•occur when 2 drugs administered together interact in such a way that their combined effects are greater than the sum of the effects for each drug given alone.

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41
Q

Antagonistic Effects

A

•combination of 2 drugs results in drug effects that are less than the sum of the effects of each drug given separately

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42
Q

Incompatibility

A

•most commonly used to describe intravenous drugs. An undesirable reaction that occurs between the drug and the solution, container or another drug.

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43
Q

Selectivity

A

•Drugs may have a high selectivity for one receptor (e.g., acetylcholine) but may produce a number of effects because of the widespread locations of acetylcholine receptors.

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44
Q

Nonselectivity

A
  • On the other hand, diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is classified as an antihistamine although it also has both anticholinergic and sedative effects. Thus it is nonselective in its actions.
  • A drug’s desired effect on one occasion may be a side effect on another occasion. (For example, when codeine is used as an analgesic, constipation may be a side effect or untoward effect. Codeine {or a similar drug} may also be used for its constipating effect in the treatment of diarrhea).
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45
Q

Pharmacodynamics

A
  • Studies the relationship between the drug concentration and the patient’s response to the drug… it is what the drug does to the body.
  • AKA “pharmacology”
  • Variation in drug response is explained by a variation in
    • 1) environmental factors
    • 2) genetic factors (account for most of the variations in metabolic rates for many drugs)
  • Drug + Receptor ⇔ Drug-receptor complex → Response
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46
Q

Drug-Receptor Interactions:

Receptor Theory

A
  • The drug molecule must “fit” into the receptor.
  • Like a lock and key mechanism (not always this simplistic)
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47
Q

Drug-Receptor Interactions:

What does “binding” produce?

A

Once bound, initiates biochemical & physiological changes characteristic of the response to the drug, hormone, or neurotransmitter

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48
Q

Upregulation may lead to:

A.Higher response to a drug

B.Lower response to a drug

C: Exaggerated response if drug is withdrawn

D: No response

A

C: Exaggerated response if drug is withdrawn

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49
Q

What is Affinity?

(drug-receptor interactions)

A
  • The attraction between a drug and its receptor.
  • Determines potency
    • HIGHER affinity = HIGHER potency
    • LOWER affinity = LOWER potency
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50
Q

What is Intrinsic Activity (Efficacy)?

(drug-receptor interactions)

A

The ability of a drug to activate a receptor and produce an effect.

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51
Q

What are the two properties that produce an active compound?

A

Affinity

Intrinsic Activity (Efficacy)

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52
Q

What is the drug response curve?

A

Depicts the relation between drug dose and magnitude of effect.

Example: 50% of the max response occurs at a dose concentration at which a drug occupies 50% of its receptors.

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53
Q

What happens at doses below the dose-response curve?

A

Doses do not produce a pharmacological response.

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54
Q

What happens at doses above the dose-response curve?

A

Doses not produce much additional pharm. response.

It may have unwanted effects → toxicitiy

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55
Q

What is drug efficacy?

A
  • The maximum effect that a drug can produce regardless of dose.

Example: drugs used to treat mild pain will not work on severe pain no matter the dose. Opioids have higher efficacy for pain relief than NSAIDs or Acetaminophen.

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56
Q

What is drug potency?

A
  • “Think amount”
  • The amount of a drug that needed to produce a given effect.
  • Potency describes the difference in concentration/dosage of different drugs required to produce similar effect.
  • Drugs that are more potent may require a lower dosage to produce the same response
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57
Q

What is ED50?

A

AKA: Median Effective Dose

The concentration or dose of drug that causes 50% of maximum effect.

The dose o a drug to produce a specified intensity of effect in 50% of individuals.

Is determined by affinity of drug for receptor and number of receptors available

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58
Q

What is the median effective dose/ED50?

A
  • The dose o a drug to produce a specified intensity of effect in 50% of individuals.
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59
Q

What determines the potency of a drug?

A
  • Is determined by the affinity of the drug for its receptor and number of receptors available.
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60
Q

What is LD50/Median Lethal Dose?

A

The dose that is lethal to 50% of animals is the median lethal dose.

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61
Q

In the drug-response curve, what is the x-axis?

A

x-axis= drug concentration

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62
Q

In the drug-response curve, what is the y-axis?

A

y-axis = percentage of maximum effect

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63
Q

Which of these is most potent?

(has highest potency)

A

The red curve.

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64
Q

Which of these drugs has the lowest affinity?

A

Green curve. This is the least potent (has lowest affinity).

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65
Q

Assuming the following doses all produce an equal effect on a headache, which of these drugs has the highest potency?

A)200mg ibuprofen,

B)325 mg ASA,

C)50 mg ketoprofen

A

Ketoprofen requires the lowest dose so it has the highest potency.

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66
Q

Review pictograph

Efficacy vs. Potency

A
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67
Q

Why might a pt. respond to low doses of a drug?

A
  • May have sensitivity to the drug
  • May experience placebo effect
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68
Q

Why do different patients have different responses to same drug dose?

A

Multiple factors may affect pt. response to drug/drug dose:

  • Environmental
  • Genetic/Ethnic
  • Physiologic variations (pregnancy/breastbreastfeeding/children)
  • Phenogenomics
    *
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69
Q

Where does FDA publish information about generics vs. brand-name drugs?

A

“Orange Book”

70
Q

How many types of drug responses are described and what are they called?

A
  • Two types:
    • GRADED
    • QUANTAL
71
Q

What is a GRADED drug response?

A
  • It illustrates the degree of response to the dose.
  • Dose modification will adjust the physiological response:
    • Dose amount vs. BP response
    • amount vs. HR response
    • Dose amount vs. Pain response
72
Q

What type or drug response is seen by adjusting drug dose to get a different response in BP?

A

GRADED drug response.

73
Q

What is a QUANTAL drug response?

A

It is an “all or none” response.

Examples: seizures, pregnancy, sleep

(However, you may see graded drug response until a quantal response is achieved: i.e. reduction in seizures until pt. is seizure free)

74
Q

What type of drug response describes an “all or none” response?

(i.e. pregnant or not)

A

QUANTAL

75
Q

What is drug selectivity?

A

Selectivity refers to a drug’s ability to preferentially produce a particular effect and is related to the structural specificity of drug binding to receptors.

76
Q

What is a drug therapeutic index or range?

A
  • Type of drug selectivity ratio
  • Difference between the dose that produces desired effect, and dose that produces undesired effect. (LD50/ED50)
  • AKA “margin of safety”
  • Ratio of
Lethal dose (minimum toxic concentration)
———

therapeutic dose (minimum effective concentration)

77
Q

What is this ratio called: LD50/ED50

A

Therapeutic Index

78
Q

Can drugs have more than one therapeutic index? Explain.

A

Yes, a drug may have more than one therapeutic index, depending on the specific uses of the drug and the toxic effect being considered.

79
Q

What is another way to represent this ratio: LD50/ED50

A

MTC/MEC

MTC - Minimum toxic concentration

MEC - Minimum effective concentration

80
Q

What is the level below which therapeutic effects will not occur?

A

MEC: Minimum Effective Concentration

81
Q

What is another way to describe the level above which toxic effects of a drug begin?

A

MTC: Maximum Toxic Concentration

82
Q

Drug Action at Receptors - Define an AGONIST

A
  • Binds to receptor and causes CHANGE in cellular activity.
  • Has both AFFINITY and EFFICACY
  • Can have spare receptors
83
Q

Drug Action at Receptors - Define an ANTAGONIST

A
  • Binds to receptor, causes NO CHANGE in cellular activity.
  • Blocks ability of endogenous substances or other drugs to bind to receptor.
  • LACKS EFFICACY - cannot produce an effect
84
Q

Drug Action at Receptors - Define a PARTIAL AGONIST

A
  • Binds to receptor, causes LOW level change in cellular activity
  • Blocks endogenous substances or other drugs from binding to receptor.
  • Stimulate only some of the receptors (intrinsic activity)
  • They are part agonist and part antagonist
85
Q

Examples of partial agonists drugs

A

b-blocker ACEBUtolol

b-blocker PENBUtolol

b-blcoker PINDolol

These drugs partially block the effects of adrenergic nerves on the heart and keep heart rate from falling too low.

86
Q

Example of antagonist drugs

A

Beta Blockers -

  • act as antagonists at the beta-adrenergic receptors
  • stimulated adrenergic receptors = increased HR
  • beta blockers occupy the receptor without stimulating them
  • Will only have effect on patients with high adrenergic activity (lower HR)
  • Pts who lack adrenergic activity = little effect on HR
87
Q

What happens if an antagonist drug has an irreversible bind to its receptor?

A

Antagonisms will remain until new receptors are produced by the cell.

88
Q

What may happen with an abrupt discontinuation of an antagonist drug? (STAR)

A

There may be an exaggerated response given the increased number of newly available receptors.

89
Q

What may happen with chronic use of agonist?

A

a Effects may be downregulated, resulting in needing a HIGHER dose.

90
Q

What is the effect of antagonists on the agonist’s dose-response curve?

A

Antagonists shift the curve to be less potent (moves curve to the right).

91
Q

Not all drugs act using receptors. List some examples:

A
  • Anesthesia
  • Sodium Bircarb
  • Chelating Agents
92
Q

What is the pharmacokinetics of a drug?

A

ADME

A - Absorption

D - Distribution

M - Metabolism

E - Excretion

93
Q

What is drug absorption?

A

Movement of the drug from its site of administration into the bloodstream/ systemic circulation.

94
Q

What is distribution?

A

The reversible transfer of a drug from one location to another within the body (interstitial and intracellular fluids)

95
Q

What is drug metabolism?

A

The process by wich the body breaks down and converts the drug into ACTIVE chemical substances.

96
Q

What is excretion?

A

The process by which a drug is eliminated from the body.

97
Q

What are some factors that may affect drug absorption?

A
  • Nature of cell membrane
  • Vascularity (blood flow to site of administration)
  • Drug lipid solubility
  • pH
  • Molecular weight, size and comp.
  • Drug concentration
  • Dosage form
98
Q

Which route of administration does not affect drug absorption?

A

Intravenous and Intrathecal

99
Q

What is drug bioavailability?

A

The fraction of unchanged drug reaching systemic circulation regardless of route administered.

100
Q

Lists the plasma level profiles related to drug absorption:

A
  • Onset of action
  • Peak of action
  • Duration of action
  • Termination of action
101
Q

What is onset of action?

A

•time between administration and first sign of drug effect.

102
Q

What is peak of action?

A
  • Max concentration of drug (peak blood levels)
  • Point at which amount of drug being absorbed and distributed is equal to amount being metabolized and excreted
103
Q

What is duration of action?

A

Continued entry of drug into body with levels above minimum effective concentration.

104
Q

What is a main factor affecting maximum blood levels following drug administration?

A

ABSORPTION: Speed at which drugs enter the bloodstream

105
Q

Why are some drugs not administered as IV pushes?

A

For some drugs, immediate high levels of drug concentration in the blood can have toxic effects.

106
Q

Define Bioavailability

A
  • The percentage of drug that is absorbed and available to reach the target tissues
  • or The fraction of unchanged drug reaching the systemic circulation following administration by any route.
107
Q

What is the bioavailability of a drug administered IV?

A

100% bioavailable

108
Q

What factors affect bioavailability?

A

Route of administration and first-pass metabolism.

109
Q

What affects the bioavailability of drug administered orally?

A
  • Bioavailability decreased due to:
    • Incomplete absorption
    • First-pass metabolism
110
Q

How does bio-availability affect drug dosing?

A

Higher doses will be needed for lower bio-availability rates.

Example: PO Cipro has 80% bioavailability - so PO dose is 500mg, IV dose is 400mg.

111
Q

List order of drug bioavailability vs. route of administration:

A

IV > IM > SC > PO > PR Inhalation, Transdermal

112
Q

List bioavailability of PO drugs:

A

solution > suspension > capsule > tablet > coated tablet

113
Q

Define Drug Distribution:

A

Movement of absorbed drug in bodily fluids throughout body or target tissues.

114
Q

List properties that affect distribution:

A
  • Adequate blood supply (high blood flow areas get drug first, then low blood flow areas)
  • Molecular size/weight (smaller easier to diffuse)
  • Balance of Lipid to Water solubility
  • Environment (pH, proteins in the body to which drug could bind)
115
Q

What typ of ion charge does a drug need to passively diffuse through a membrane?

A

Uncharged / Unionnized

116
Q

Can drugs have molecular groups with different charges?

A

Yes, drugs may have charged and uncharged molecular groups (at the same time) and these charges may change depending on the pH of the environment (especially weak acids or bases).

117
Q

What is pKA?

A

The percentage calculation fo charged and uncharged molecules of a drug.

118
Q

For drugs, when does passive diffusion stop?

A

Passive diffusion happens UNTIL the concentration of the unionized drug is the same on both sides of the membrane.

119
Q

What would contribute to the difference in levels of ionized drug molecules between a bio-barrier or membrane?

A

The pH level in each respective side of given barrier.

120
Q

Are nonionized salicylic acid molecules lipid or water soluble?

A

Lipd soluble - and readily cross plasma membranes.

121
Q

Are ionized salicylic acid molecules lipid or water soluble?

A

Water soluble - usually do not readily cross plasma membranes.

122
Q

What is ion trapping?

A

It is the result when pH differences cause more drug to accumulate based on the fraction of unionized and ionized molecules.

123
Q

Describe what can happen when morphine sulfate is administered to a pregnant patient?

A

Morphine Sulfate, a weak base, in an acidic medium is predominantly in it’s ionized state - therefore, it gets “trapped” in the more acidic fetus.

124
Q

How is aspirin toxicity treated? Why does it work?

A
  • Giving sodium bicarb along with furosemide
  • The alkalinizing of the urine (making it more basic), which prevents salicylic acid from being reabsorbed in the kidney tubules.
125
Q

What is the drug-protein complex?

A

Free Drug + Bound Drug

126
Q

Is free drug available to bind at receptors of active site?

A

Yes! Drug action occurs through free, unbound drugs.

127
Q

What is the effect of low plasma protein levels in the blood regarding free drug?

A

Low plasma protein (albumin) results in MORE FREE DRUG in circulation.

128
Q

Why is fat a stable reservoir for drugs?

A

Because of its relatively low blood flow.

129
Q

List other reservoirs (besides protein binding) that drugs might accumulate?

A

Muscle (dig)

RBCs (cyclosporine)

130
Q

Define Volume of Distribution (VD)

A

A hypothetical value that reflects the volume in which a drug would need to be dissolved to explain the relationship between dose and blood levels.

131
Q

How does VD affect drug half-life?

A

Larger VD = Longer half-life

Lower VD = Lower half life

132
Q

What tissues will we find drugs with higher VD ?

A

Peripheral Tissues (fat, muscle, etc)

133
Q

What tissues will we find drugs with lower VD ?

A

Plasma or extracellular fluids.

134
Q

True/False: Volume of distribution is dramatically altered by body composition.

A

True

135
Q

How does fat affect VD?

A

Higher percentages of fat mean larger Vd for lipophilic agents.

136
Q

What is drug metabolism?

A
  • “biotransformation”
  • chemical change of drug structure by enzymes into new molecules called metabolites.
  • the primary purpose of metabolism is to change lipid soluble active compounds (which are not readily eliminated from the body) to water soluble inactive compounds that can easily be excreted.
137
Q

What five things happen with drug metabolism?

A
  1. Enhance excretion
  2. Inactivate the drug (usually by making the drug water-soluble)
  3. Increase duration of therapeutic action
  4. Activate a prodrug
  5. Increase or decrease toxicity
138
Q

What is first pass metabolism?

A

Refers to the rapid hepatic inactivation of certain drugs on their “first pass” through the liver.

139
Q

Which drug administration route has partial avoidance of “first pass”?

A

Rectal route.

The rectal route bypasses around 2/3 of the first pass due to rectal venous drainage path.

140
Q

Discuss the phases of metabolism

A

Active Drug → Phase I (via CYP450 isoenzymes) → oxidized product → Phase II (via enzymes) → Conjugated product → Inactive Drug

141
Q

Discuss Phase I of drug metabolism

A

Phase I metabolism results in small chemical changes that make a compound more hydrophilic so it can be effectively eliminated by the kidneys.

These reactions usually involve either adding or unmasking a hydroxyl group, or some other hydrophilic group such as an amine or sulphydryl group, and usually involve hydrolysis, oxidation or reduction mechanisms.

Cytochrome P450 enzymes are responsible for most phase I reactions.

Many Phase I molecules are rapidly eliminated, whereas others go on to phase II reactions

142
Q

What does “making a compound hydrophilic” mean?

A

Increases water solubility of the compound, usually so it can be effectively eliminated by the kidneys.

143
Q

What drug metabolism phase do we see reactions to make compounds more hydrophilic?

A

Phase I

144
Q

What compound is responsible for most chemical changes during Phase I drug metabolism?

A

CYP450 = Cytochrom P450 enzyme

145
Q

Describe Phase II of drug metabolism:

A
  • Phase II metabolism takes place if phase I is insufficient to clear a compound from circulation, or if phase I generates a reactive metabolite.
  • These reactions usually involve adding a large polar group (conjugation reaction), such as glucuronic acid by enzymes, to further increase the compound’s solubility.
146
Q

Describe Phase III of drug metabolism:

A
  • The last step (Phase III) involves drug transporters, which influence the effect, absorption, distribution and elimination of a drug.
  • Drug transporters move drugs across cellular barriers, and as such can target sites of accumulation.
  • They are located in epithelial and endothelial cells of the liver, gastrointestinal tract, kidney, blood-brain barrier and other organs.
147
Q

What is a SNP?

A

Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms

Are alterations in DNA that are sometimes associated with particular population groups and explain why some people are more or less sensitive to certain drugs

148
Q

What drug process is altered with concurrent drug therapy (CYP450 inducer and inhibitor)?

A

Concurrent therapy with an inhibitor or inducer may alter the metabolism of a drug.

149
Q

What does CYP450 enzyme induction mean?

A
  • “Induces” metabolism
  • Occurs when drug tx results in an increase in metabolism that decreases the amount of drug.
150
Q

What does CYP450 enzyme inhibition do?

A
  • “inhibits” or slows metabometabolism
  • s when drug tx results in DECREASE in metabolism, that INCREASES the amount of drug (could increase to levels of toxicity
151
Q

Which of these CYP450 enzyme actions could produce drug toxicity: enzyme induction or enzyme inhibition?

A

Enzyme Inhibition

Occurs when drug treatment results in a DECREASE in metabolism that INCREASES the amount of drug (increase toxicity!)

152
Q

What do you do with a patient who is a poor metabolizer?

A

REDUCE the dose

A person in whom the drug can build up in the body to toxic levels and cause treatment-related adverse reactions.

153
Q

What do you do if your patient is an ultra-rapid (fast) drug metabolizer?

A

INCREASE the drug dose.

A person who may process the drug so fast that the drug won’t have a chance to reach optimal blood levels, leading to limited amounts of drug that can act on the patient’s system

154
Q

What is drug half-life?

A

The time it takes for 50% of the drug in the body to be eliminated from the body.

When we measure “half-life” we determine the time it takes plasma concentration to be reduced by 50% –> better called “plasma elimination half-life.

155
Q

Drugs are generally administered at dosing intervals that are close to their half-life.

A

Drugs are generally administered at dosing intervals that are close to their half-life.

156
Q

What is steady (constant) state?

A

Point when the amount of drug going in is the same as the amount of drug that is excreted

157
Q

How many “drug lives” does it take to achieve “steady state”?

A

4 to 5 half-lives (97% steady state achieved)

158
Q

What is therapeutic index?

A

Ratio of MTC / MEC

(toxic / effective)

(bad over good)

159
Q

What is a trough?

A

Time when the drug is at the lowest concentration; To determine whether the drug level is at therapeutic range, blood samples drawn for serum drug concentration levels will use the trough level.

160
Q

What is a pro-drug?

A

A prodrug is a drug which is administered in an inactive (or significantly less active) form.

Once administered, the prodrug is metabolized in the body (often by CYP enzymes) into the active compound.

161
Q

List examples of pro-drugs:

A
  • Most ACE-inhibitors
  • Sulfasalazine
  • Codeine - prodrug - metabolized by CYP450 PCYP2D6 to generate morphine.
162
Q

What percent of the caucasian population may be missing CYP2D6?

A

7%

163
Q

List factors that influence metabolism:

A

Age

Genetically determined differences (including CYP450 metabolizers)

Pregnancy

Liver disease

Time of day

Environment

Diet

Alcohol (CYP450)

Drug-drug and drug-food interactions (CYP450)

Drug half-life

Pro-drugs

The rate of drug metabolism differs markedly among races and ethnic groups as well as individuals.

Infants & elderly often having decreased drug metabolizing capabilities.

164
Q

Why does breast milk accumulate more drugs?

A

Drugs with smaller molecular weight and that are lipid soluble.

Because breast milk is more acidic than plasma, it tends to accumulate basic drugs.

165
Q

What is drug excretion?

A

Removal of the drug from the body by organs of elimination.

166
Q

How are drugs typically excreted?

A
  • Most drugs are eliminated by the kidneys (urine).
  • Drugs are also eliminated by
    • Lungs (mainly for elimination of anesthetic gases & vapors)
    • Gastrointestinal (GI) tract (feces)
    • Mammary glands (breast milk)
    • Sweat and saliva and hair follicles
167
Q

What factors affect drug renal excretion?

A

Kidney function

Age

Hydration

Cardiac output

Drug must be unbound from protein. Free-, unbound, and water-soluble metabolites are filtered by the glomeruli.

168
Q

What is enterohepatic circulation?

A

After drug metabolite is excreted into GI tract via bile, the metabolite is enzymatically converted back to the active drug and reabsorbed. (Ex: estrogen)

169
Q

Discuss drug excretion via GI route:

A
  • Drug metabolizes in the liver
  • Excreted to GI tract via bile
  • This leads to fecal excretion
170
Q

Factors affecting how drug dosing is determined:

A
  • Dose-response relationship
  • Therapeutic index
  • Plasma level profile
  • Half-life
  • Bioavailability
    • First pass effect
  • Physiologic factors (next lecture)
    • Age, Pregnancy, etc.