Exam 1 Lab Key Terms Flashcards

1
Q

What makes an exam room comfortable

A
  • adequate lighting for clear assessment of patient anatomy/physiologic features
  • patient can safely sit, stand, and lie down
  • room temperature
  • eliminating drafts in the room
  • warming blankets or towels to ensure patients warm and comfortable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When should an examination table be cleaned and what should it be cleaned with?

A
  • between each patient and a bacterial product, and a patient table paper would be placed each time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Due to examination tables being firm how should you place the patient and at what angle is best comfortable for patient

A
  • when patients lies supine, the head of the table should be raised to 30-degree angle and a small pillow should be used for patients head
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When a nurse is listening to the sounds made by the body organs/ systems what word is this action called

A
  • Auscultation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When a nurse checks the fingertips, and gently depresses the patients nail tip for 1 second and releases what would that nurse being checking

A
  • checking the capillary refill
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When checking the capillary refill after pressing the nail tip down for 1 second the nurse observes that the nail tip filled 2 to 3 seconds what is this response called, is it considered normal

A
  • brisk
  • yes it is the normal range
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A nurse is checking a capillary refill and the nail tip that is showing a slow sluggish return what type of complications could be the cause

A
  • respiratory or cardiac disease associated with hypoxia, anemia, or conditions linked to circulatory insufficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the steps of an abdominal assessment

A
  • Inspection
  • auscultation
  • palpation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does a nurse inspect the abdomen

A
  • patient is to lie supine and the nurse is to visually examine the abdominal 4 quadrants for an abnormal findings. colors, bruises, distentions, bulges, scars and noting any findings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Auscultation of the abdomen is assessed for the detection of

A
  • the detection of altered bowel sounds, rubs , or vascular bruits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Auscultation of the abdomen is preformed before palpation or percussion due to the risk of

A
  • artificial stimulation of the bowel, leading to altered bowel sounds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The nurse is listening over each of the ______ of the abdomen for the presence of ______

A
  • four quadrants
    -bowel sounds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A nurse is listening to the abdomen and hears normal air and fluid moving in the intestinal tract, the nurse hears _____ sounds that are irregular pattern every __ to ___ seconds

A

-gurgling
- 2 to 5 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Under normal circumstances it takes up to ____ to hear bowel sounds

A
  • 30 seconds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are bowel sounds described as

A
  • normal
  • audible
  • absent
  • hypoactive
  • hyperactive
  • distant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A nurse hears the absence of bowel sounds in a patients abdomen what could be the cause of the abnormality

A
  • bowel obstruction
  • paralytic ileus ( paralysis due to lack of peristalsis)
  • peritonitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

if an intestinal tract is overstimulated or has increased mortality, known as _____ bowel sounds which is also known as borborygmi known as a loud _____ sound.

A

-hyperactive
- grumbling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hyperactive bowel sounds can be caused by what factors, hyperactive bowels can also be audible above the level of a bowel ____.

A
  • diarrhea
  • intestinal inflammation
  • laxatives
  • intestinal bleeding
    -anxiety
  • a bowel obstruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

abdominal ____ are the next phase of abdominal examination, They make ____ sounds that are heard over the major ____ that are causes by ____ (narrowing) of the vessels.

A
  • bruits
    -swooshing sound
  • arteries
  • stenosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The cranial nerve III is called the _____ the function of this nerve innervates ___ of the ___ muscles that collectively execute most ___ ____. It is responsible for _____ constriction and ____.

A
  • oculomotor
  • 4 of the 6
  • eye movement
  • pupillary
  • dilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

a nurse is to assess the cranial nerve III ( oculomotor ) how would the assessment be preformed

A
  • assess the size of the pupil and light reflexes
  • also not the direction of gaze
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The symptoms of damage in the cranial nerve III ( oculomotor ) are signs of unilateral ___ ____with unilateral absent ____ reflex and/or eye that will not ___ upward which can indicate an internal ____ ____ or increased ______ pressure.

A
  • dilated pupil
  • light reflex
  • gaze
  • carotid aneurysm
    intracranial pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which type of poisoning is known as a public issue that occurs when ___ levels build up in the blood over ___ or ____, and it can affect all body systems.

A
  • lead
  • lead levels
  • month or years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

– When lead levels are greater than ___ __ of blood the ___ recommends initiation of public health actions. These blood levels are a common occurrence in children __ to __ years of age from being exposed too lead based ___ , ____ and, ___.

– What is the safe level of lead in children.

A
  • 5 mcg
  • CDC
    1 to 5 years of age
  • paint, older building, and toys

– THERE IS NO SAFE LEVEL OF LEAD IN CHILDREN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A nurse is educating her patient about the ____ amounts of lead exposure and how it can irreversibly damage the ___ system and impair the _____ in ____

A
  • small
  • nervous system
  • development in children
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The most common cause of lead poisoning in children comes from ____. but it can also come from ____ from lead ___

A
  • lead in paint
  • water
  • lead pipes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A colorless, odorless, gas that can cause sudden illness and death is which type of poisoning

A
  • Carbon monoxide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Sources of carbon monoxide come from

A
  • stoves
  • automobiles
  • gas ranges
  • wood
    portable generators
  • heating systems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how does carbon monoxide build up and what should never be used indoors

A
  • enclosed spaces such as vehicles
  • semi- enclosed spaces such as small room in houses
  • generators should never be used indoors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What type of poisoning causes dizziness, light headedness, and nausea, and death can occur if exposed in a enclosed area for a prolonged time.

A
  • carbon monoxide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

– A nurse is educating a patient on how to properly dispose of discontinued and expired medications what examples would the nurse give

– The _____ recommends these directions on how to dispose these medications

A
  • the medication bottle may have how to properly expose that type of medication
  • can take to a community take back programs
  • household trash mixed with coffee grounds or kitty litter (in jar or sealable plastic bag)
  • some medications can be flushed down the toilet

-The US food and drug administration (FDA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Fall related injuries have increased with ___ use

A

-restraint use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Skin impairment, incontinence, falls, serious injuries, and death have all been associated with _____ use

A

restraint use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Restraints may be physical and also ____, which is with the use of ____

A
  • chemical
    -medication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

P A S S

A

Pull the pin
Aim nozzle
squeeze the handle
Sweep at the base of fire

36
Q

R A C E

A

Rescue: all patients in immediate danger and move to safe area
Activate: the manual pull station/fire alarm and have someone call 911
Contain: the fire by closing doors, confining the fire and preventing the smoke to spread
Extinguish: the fire if possible after all the patients are evacuated from the area

37
Q

How often should a nurse check on a patient who is under restraints and why

A
  • Frequently because of the risk of the patient being injured due to entrapment and death from strangulation or asphyxiation which are a high result when a patient is trying to escape physical restraints
38
Q

Must always use a ____ ____ restraint to secure the restraint but still be able to quickly release the restraint if an emergency occur. Restraints should never be tied to the ___ ___ because injuries may result.

A

-quick release knot
- side rail

39
Q

The Center of Disease Control and Prevention CDC) foster __ and ____ environments by working with ___ nationally and worldwide.

A

-safe and healthful
-partners

40
Q

The nurse demonstrates ___ by using strategies to reduce the risk for __ to self and others and by ____ the nurses role in preventing errors

A
  • safety
    -harm
41
Q

When a nurse is demonstrating knowledge, skills, and attitudes concerning safety how does the nurse prove accuracy

A
  1. Discusses the impact of national patient safety resources, initiatives and regulations.
  2. uses patient safety resources for professional development and as a means of focusing attention on safety in care settings
  3. values the relationship between national safety campaigns and implementation in local practice settings
42
Q

There are 4 different types of immunity, a nurse is asked to name them what are the 4

A
  1. Innate immunity
  2. Adaptive immunity
  3. Humoral immunity
  4. Cellular immunity
43
Q

A nurse is asked to explain which type of immunity provides immediate defenses against foreign antigens. Examples of this immunity response is from the skin, cough reflex, mucus, enzymes on skin, and in tears. The acid in the gastrointestinal tract, also this immune response produces chemical mediators to fight infection, remove foreign substances, and activate the adaptive immune system.

A
  • Innate immunity (nonspecific)
44
Q

The nurse is asked to define which type of immunity that is acquired or specific component of the immune system that provides long-term immunity when the body is exposed to an antigen.

A
  • Adaptive immunity
45
Q

____ immunity and ____ immunity are two types of ____ immunity.

A
  • Humoral
    _ Cellular
46
Q

____ immunity is a defense system that involves WBCs that produce antibodies in response to antigens or pathogens circulating in the lymph and blood. The antigen-antibody reaction initiates a complex chain of events to protect the body from the invading microorganisms.

A
  • Humoral immunity
47
Q

____ immunity produces inflammatory molecules called ______ and _____ __. which these cause fever.

A

-Humoral immunity
- interferon and interleukin-1

48
Q

A patient came into the hospital with a high level of WBCs which shows a response to the body not recognizing types of microorganisms as their own, known as ____ immunity. T lymphocytes also known as ____ __ cells attack directly causing Helper T cells to release _____ that stimulate B cells and antigen destruction by other cells

A
  • cellular immunity
  • cytotoxic T cells
  • interleukins
49
Q

A nurse knows that adaptive immunity is antigen specific and involves active long-term immunologic memory. __ and ___ cells develop and they learn to differentiate between the body’s tissues and substances that are not normally found in the body. They are ____ cells that are sensitized by interaction with a specific antigen.

A
  • B and T cells
  • Memory cells
50
Q

A constant exposure to the antigen produces stronger and faster immune response by these ___ cells.

A
  • memory cells
51
Q

A nurse is educating a patients mother on the purpose of immunization vaccines. When explaining, she states the immunizations are an active immunity. The patient ask if they will be long or short term, which is an immunization shot known as

A
  • long term active immunity
52
Q

A nurse is explaining to a patient about when a person receives an antibody that is produced in another body, provides immediate but short-term protection against antigens, examples of this immunity are breast milk, naturally for a baby in utero, and can also be acquired when antibodies are transferred from one person to another by injection of an antibody - rich serum. This type of immunity is known as

A
  • Passive immunity
53
Q

An infectious agent is known as what 4 agents

A
  • bacterium
  • virus
  • parasite
  • fungus
54
Q

The ____ is the second step on the chain of infection, which can be acquired by (4)

A
  • source is the second step
  • animal or insect
  • inanimate object
  • human being
55
Q

The third step in the chain of infection is known as _____. It can be in what areas of the body

A
  • port of exit
  • Respiratory tract
  • GI tract
  • GU tract
  • Blood
  • skin/mucosal surfaces
56
Q

The forth step in the chain of infection is called ______ which can be acquired by

A
  • Mode of transportation
  • Contact
  • Airborne
  • Vehicle
  • Droplet
  • Vector-borne
57
Q

The 5th step in the chain of infection is called ____ and it enters which parts of the body

A
  • Port of entry
  • GI tract
  • GU tract
  • Nonintact skin
  • Respiratory tact
  • Mucous membranes
58
Q

The 6th step in the chain of infection is known as ____ and it is acquired by what type of actions

A
  • Susceptible Host
  • Immunocompromised
  • Trama
  • Surgery
  • Chronically ill
  • Elderly
59
Q

The use of PPE protects self and others when:

A
  • Caring for patients on isolation precautions
  • caring for patients when any contact with blood or bodily fluids may be expected
60
Q

The the first impression a patient gets from a nurse gives when obtaining a health history from the patient often sets the

A
  • ## tone for the subsequent interactions
61
Q

The patient interview has three phrases:
What are the three:

During this the patient expresses their emotional and physical concerns. What are some of the factors that affect the patient interview include:

A
  1. Orientation, working, termination
  2. Privacy, interruptions, the environment, and communication techniques
62
Q

A nurse uses multiple techniques during a patients interview what are these techniques:

A
  • private room or curtain
  • environment=comfortable/professional
  • comfortable temperature
  • good lighting
  • no extra noise
  • seated with eye level communication
  • relaxed and open posture
  • lean slightly toward patient
  • show interest, gestures to call communicated concerns
63
Q

When a nurse is in an interview process it is essential to provide

A
  • patient centered care and promote satisfaction and safety.
64
Q

Nurses should include these preferences when interviewing a patient

A
  • assessing the patient preferences in participating in their care
  • support their desires in participating in decision making/modify of care plans
  • mutual goal development
  • requested family/friend help
  • trusted source of knowledge sharing information
65
Q

_______ values are used to identify changes in a patients status: with a series of ___ ____ measurements to establish patient trends.

A
  • Baseline values
  • vital sign
66
Q

What are some situations that require vital sign assessments

A
  • before and after surgery
  • before and after administration of medication that affect cardiac, respiratory, or thermal regulation systems
  • before and after interventions (ambulation)
  • on going care to detect improvement
  • before discharge or transfer to validate readiness
  • any complications associated with chest pain, feeling hot, faint, dizzy, shortness of breath
67
Q

the average blood pressure for a 3 year old is Systolic _____, and diastolic _______. A respiration rate of ____, a pulse of ______ and an oral temperature of _____.

A
  • Systolic 90-105 Diastolic 55-70
  • respiration 22-30
  • pulse 80-150
  • oral temp of 35.5-37.5 C (96-99.5 F )
68
Q

The average 18 year old bp is systolic ____ and diastolic ____ and a respiration of ____ a pulse of ____ and a temperature of ____.

A
  • systolic of 110-135 and diastolic of 65-85
  • respiration 12-20
  • pulse 60-100
  • temp 36.4-37.6 C (97.6-99.6 F )
69
Q

An 65 and older adult bp is averaged to ___ a respiration of ___ a pulse of ___ and a temp of ____

A

-systolic 90-120 diastolic of 60-80
- respiration 15-20
- pulse 15-20
temp 35.8-36.9 C ( 96.4-98.5 F )

70
Q

A pulse rate is the number of _____ per min (bpm) while also checking the pulse ____ and ____

A

-heartbeats
-intensity and pattern

71
Q

A nurse must be able to navigate the electronic health records to view _____ patient data. They must understand the technology that supports clinical _____ _____.

A
  • baseline patient data
  • decision making
72
Q

A nurse notices sudden alterations in her patients vital signs and values outside the normal range, which indicated a ____ situation for the nurse. What will the nurse need to do after finding this

A
  • priority situation
  • further assess and for emergency measures they should be initiated as indirected by the patients statues
  • the PCP should be notified for alterations in vital signs
73
Q

The average adult oral temperature is

A

35.7-37.4 C
(96.3-99.3 F )

74
Q

Average adult rectal temp

A
  • 36.3-37.7 C
    (97.4-99.97 F )
75
Q

A tympanic (ear) average adult temp is

A

35.7 C and (97-99 F )

76
Q

Through patient centered care the nurse will provide physical and emotional support while treating symptoms of

A
  • altered body temperature
77
Q

A nurse is locating the ____ ____ that is used in cases of cardiac arrest and determining circulation to the brain.

A
  • carotid pulse
78
Q

A nurse determines that the peripheral pulse is irregular, what would the nurse do next to ensure an accurate measurement

A
  • count an apical pulse for one full minute
79
Q

A nurse has infants and children younger (than 2) patients she needs to check their pulse rates, what which location would be best to obtain their pulse rates and for how long

A
  • auscultation of the apical pulse for a full minute
80
Q

Which arteries do you NEVER palpate at the same time and what will be the result if you do

A
  • Carotid arteries
  • can limit blood flow to the brain and cause the patient to syncope aka faint
81
Q

difficulty breathing when lying flat that is relieve by sitting or standing is termed as _____

A

orthopnea

82
Q

The nurse is assessing a patient who is showing signs of difficult, labored breathing with a rapid, shallow pattern what would the nurse document as the name of this type of shortness of breath

A
  • Dyspnea
83
Q

the patient is struggling to get maximum lung expansion by having dyspnea, the nurse should have the patient do what and what position is that called

A
  • assume a sitting position, leaning forward over a raised beside table with arms resting on the table
  • tripod position
84
Q

Which stage of hypertension is the stage that is requiring to change lifestyle and diet before medication is prescribed

A

stage 1

85
Q

What bp is considered hypertension stage 2

A

140 and higher - systolic
90 and higher - diastolic

86
Q

Blood pressure should be taken after resting for ___ minutes, and ____ minutes after smoking or drinking caffeine.

A
  • 5 min
  • 30 min
87
Q

Orthostatic hypotension-

Orthostatic hypertension-

A
  • is a sudden drop in bp when the patient moves from lying down to a sitting to standing position.
  • most common causes of myocardial infarction, stroke, renal failure, and death