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Virology > Exam 1: introduction, pathogenesis, diagnosis, vaccination > Flashcards

Exam 1: introduction, pathogenesis, diagnosis, vaccination Flashcards

1
Q

Viruses acquire new host range via _____________ of viral genes

A

mutation

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2
Q

infection + disease in new host species -> ________ host range

A

increased

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3
Q

change in viral ____________ or _________ have the ability to spread efficiently between new individuals

A

receptor or proteins

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4
Q

infection of new _________ ________

Ex: mutations in feline enteric corona virus -> replication in macrophages -> feline infectious peritonitis

A

cell types

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5
Q

________ effects upon infected cells Ex: noncytopathic BVDV -> cytopathic BVDV -> mucosal disease

A

different

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6
Q

____________ viral replication -> ___________ severity of disease
Ex: higher affinity of viral spike to ACE2R in Delta SARs varian

A

increased viral replication -> increased severity of disease

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7
Q

T/F - Mutation does not always = more severe disease

Ex: Parvovirus 2a vs 2b vs 2

A

true

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8
Q

responsible for distinct strains of many viruses; used in epidemiological studies to track virus spread / determine host

A

antigenic drift

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9
Q

knowledge of viral ____________ is required for diagnosis, management, and prevention of viral disease

A

pathogenesis

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10
Q

in this disease, vaccinated puppies may get the disease, as maternal antibodies interfere with development to the immune response to the vaccine – need to vaccinate every 2 weeks

A

canine parvovirus

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11
Q

best test to differentiate between FIPV and feline enteric coronavirus

A

immunocytochemistry

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12
Q

replicate in nucleus of cell

A

DNA viruses

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13
Q

replicate in cytoplasm of the cell, high rate of mutation

A

RNA viruses

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14
Q

replicate in nucleus, integrated into host DNA as a provirus

A

retroviruses

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15
Q

an infectious, obligate intracellular parasites; hijack host cellular processes for replication & synthesis of viral components

A

virus

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16
Q

vehicles for viral transmission

A

virions

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17
Q

resistant to drying, heat, action of detergents, acid, and proteases

A

capsid

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18
Q

___________ transmission vital for long-term survival in the environment, retained infectivity on surfaces

A

fomite

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19
Q

_________________ viruses released via lysis of infected cell

A

non-enveloped

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20
Q

component sensitive to heat, drying, detergents, acid; must stay dry to be transmitted to new host via droplets, secretions, feces

A

envelope

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21
Q

T/F - Viruses with envelope do survive as long as non-enveloped viruses

A

false

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22
Q

the process by which the envelope is acquired from the host cell membrane - virus therefore does not need to kill cells to spread

A

budding

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23
Q

nuclear or cytoplasmic aggregates of viral substances, typically capsid protein; represent sites of viral multiplication
Ex: found in bronchiolar epithelial cells w canine distemper virus

A

inclusion bodies

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24
Q

cell membrane is punctured, made to further connect with the unfolding viral envelope (i.e. herpesvirus, retroviruses, influenza)

A

cell membrane fusion / hemifusion

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25
Q

host cell takes in viral particle through receptor-mediated endocytosis OR phagocytosis (i.e. parvovirus)

A

endocytosis

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26
Q

injection of viral genome into host cytoplasm through creation of a pore in host membrane, mediated by pore-forming peptide (i.e. poliovirus)

A

Pore mediated penetration

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27
Q

study of infection and spread of viruses in the animal, and the mechanism by which disease is produced

A

pathogenesis

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28
Q

virus capable of inducing disease or lesions

A

pathogenic

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29
Q

measure of the ability of a virus to produce disease in the host; important in determining outcomes of infection
Ex: modified live virus < wild-type virus

A

virulence

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30
Q

T/F - Some infectious animals replicate and shed virus without clinical disease

A

true

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31
Q

sources of viral infections include:

a) infected animals
b) persistently-infected animals
c) animal products
d) environment
e) reservoir hosts

A

all of the above

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32
Q

most important route of transmission for most viruses – direct contact, indirect contact, or vectors

A

horizontal

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33
Q

transmission between cohabitating animals (i.e. respiratory aerosol droplets)

A

direct contact

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34
Q

virus transmitted from parent to offspring (i.e. germplasm, eggs, placenta, milk)

A

vertical transmission

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35
Q

genetic material of an organism that may be transmitted from one generation to another

A

germplasm

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36
Q

dependent on titer of virus, distance between animals, air movement, droplet size, immunity to virus

A

respiratory transmission

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37
Q

Higher the titer = ________ the transmissibility

A

higher

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38
Q

Smaller distance between animals = ________ transmissibility

A

higher

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39
Q

Less air flow / ventilation = __________ transmissibility

A

higher

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40
Q

normal, immune fetus may result if infected in late pregnancy when fetus is immunologically competent

A

placental transmission

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41
Q

direct cell _________ -> loss of organ function
Ex: canine parvovirus: direct damage of crypt epithelium in SI -> failure to renew enterocytes -> blunting of villi + diarrhea

A

damage

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42
Q

cell ____________ -> tumor production + loss of organ function
Ex: Bovine leukemia virus  lymphosarcoma

A

transformation

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43
Q

____________ cells which target the virus cause destruction of cells in its vicinity (Ex: Distemper, FIPV)

A

inflammatory

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44
Q

occurs via destruction of lymphocytes and macrophages

A

immunosuppression

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45
Q

disease in which antigen/antibody complexes accumulate in the basement membrane of renal glomeruli, arteries, or choroid plexus (Ex: Equine Infectious Anemia)

A

immune-complex

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46
Q

severity of disease is dictated by (3)

A

location, function, regeneration

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47
Q

T/F - skin, liver have capacity to regenerate & require extensive damage to cause disease, whereas neurons cannot regenerate and little damage causes severe disease

A

true

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48
Q

entry, replication, lesions, shedding occur within same organ system (i.e. influenza virus)

A

localized infection

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49
Q

spread to other systems upon entry, shedding in several secretions and excretions (i.e. distemper)

A

systemic infection

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50
Q

viral spread via lymphatics to regional lymph nodes

A

primary amplification

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51
Q

virus enters bloodstream -> _________ ________ -> no clinical signs

A

primary viremia

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52
Q

dissemination into central organs such as the liver, spleen, bone marrow, and vascular endothelium -> __________ ___________ -> clinical signs such as fever/malaise

A

secondary viremia

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53
Q

____________ into sites of shedding & primary lesions -> characteristic clinical signs, damage

A

dissemination

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54
Q

viral ________ and __________ occur before and during fever / clinical signs – take diagnostic samples early, or wait until post-infection

A

replication and shedding

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55
Q

recovery from viral infections occurs via _____________ of susceptible cell populations

A

depletion

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56
Q

immune responses occur specifically via ________ and ______________ responses

A

antibody and cell-mediated cytotoxic

57
Q

study of frequency and distribution of viral diseases in a population

A

viral epidemiology

58
Q

prohibition or restriction on the movement or importation of animals / animal products from areas in which disease occurs (for imports, epidemics, biosecurity)

A

quarantine

59
Q

restricts sources of infection by reducing the risk of exposure of domestic animals to reservoir hosts – includes housing livestock, fencing pastures, removal / vaccination of wildlife

A

wildlife control

60
Q

intended to reduce the risk of spread of infection by insect vectors – includes insect proofing, insecticides, larvicides, adulticides

A

vector control

61
Q

associated with presence/absence of host cell receptors on target cells, transcription factors, DNA replication enzymes, proteases

A

susceptibility

62
Q

animals with defects in _________ _________ have higher susceptibility to viral infections

A

cell-mediated immunity

63
Q

inhibit viral replication & kill viral-infected cells (3)

A

interferon, NK cells, macrophages

64
Q

cell-mediated response occurs within________ , antibody production occurs within __________

A

10 days, 2 weeks

65
Q

antibody production / CMI occurs __________ in higher frequencies with vaccine protection

A

faster

66
Q

important in preventing initial entry of viruses, decrease initial load of virus in blood

A

antibodies

67
Q

important in recovery from established viral infection, preventing further viral replication & clearance from host

A

cell-mediated immunity

68
Q

may be related to maturation of immune system or stage of differentiation of target cells
Ex: parvovirus – infects cardiomyocytes in puppies 3w or less
Ex: feline panleukopenia – infects neurons in cerebellum in kittens in-utero up to 4 weeks of age

A

age

69
Q

elevated body temp inhibits replication of many viruses, enhances host inflammatory reaction, aiding in viral clearance

A

fever

70
Q

surface barriers include (3)

A

skin, intestinal enzymes, mucus

71
Q

viruses __________ immune responses via:

a) induction of immunologic tolerance at a young age (i.e. BVDV)
b) infection of cells in immune-privileged sites
c) non-neutralizing antibodies
d) integration of viral genome into host chromosomal DNA
e) infection of lymphocytes & macrophages
f) inhibition of MHC function

A

avoid

72
Q

down-regulation of viral protein expression // intracellular localization hides viral proteins
i.e. alpha herpes virus – sensory ganglion neuron latently infected, no viral protein expression

A

latency

73
Q

viruses evade T cell-response via infection of cells lacking

A

MHCI

74
Q

mutation of viral genes responsible for large number of serologically distinct strains of viruses; subtle changes directed by requirement to retain function & escape detection by existing antibodies

A

antigenic drift

75
Q

viral genomic segments combine / reassort, producing highly pathogenic viruses; responsible for most severe influenza epidemics

A

antigenic shift

76
Q

occurs when viral antigen persists, continued immune response at the site of viral infection results in extensive damage to surrounding tissue via the bystander effect (i.e. canine distemper, feline infectious peritonitis)

A

virus induced immune mediated inflammatory disease

77
Q

antiviral antibody interacts with virus in the fluid phase, resulting in formation of virus-antibody immune complexes  continuous trapping within renal glomeruli, arteries, choroid plexus  glomerulonephritis, arteritis, choroiditis (i.e. equine infectious anemia)

A

immune-complex disease

78
Q

often occurs as some viruses destroy lymphocytes, predisposing the host to develop opportunistic infection (i.e. feline immunodeficiency)

A

immunosuppression

79
Q

detection of viral antigens/proteins via

A

ELISA/immunocytochemistry

80
Q

detection of viral nucleic acids via

A

PCR

81
Q

detection of antibodies to virus via

A

serology

82
Q

All are _____________ & will give a negative test if the target virus is not present, even if other viruses are

A

virus-specific

83
Q

________ result confirms presence of a specific virus OR antibody to a virus; indicates chronic infection (bovine leukemia) or disease (parvovirus, distemper)

A

positive

84
Q

Vaccination w high-titer vaccines -> positive PCR/ELISA test for ____________ with NO wild-type virus or disease (i.e. parvovirus)

A

7-10 days

85
Q

___________ antibody result indicative of previous infection, previous vaccination, OR maternally-derived passive antibodies

A

positive

86
Q

T/F- Antibody levels highly variable among animals – interpretation can be conclusive from a single sample

A

false

87
Q

__________ results - specific virus/antibody NOT detected, indicative of NO infection
Exceptions: wrong timing, wrong choice of sample, wrong individual animal

A

negative

88
Q

reasons for testing:

a) diagnosis / management of disease
b) certification of freedom from specific infections
c) disease surveillance
d) monitoring for public-health significance

A

all of the above

89
Q

Detection of virus dependent on (3)

A

site, animal, and time

90
Q

T/F - Virus replication does always coincides with observed clinical signs

A

false

91
Q

T/F =- Multiple samples are vital – for both virus + antibodies

A

true

92
Q

______ samples used for virus detection assays (PCR, ELISA)

A

unfixed

93
Q

______ samples used for microscopic examination / immunocytochemical assays (viral antigens)

A

fixed

94
Q

T/F - Vaccines do not prevent infection – used to prevent and manage viral disease by ‘priming’ the immune system to respond to exposure to the antigen

A

true

95
Q

T/F - Exposure to the same antigen results in lower level + more rapid secondary immune response

A

false

96
Q

T/F - Vaccine types vary in disease mitigation

A

true

97
Q

vaccine types are mostly ___________, EXCEPT for rabies and circovirus (inactivated)

A

modified-live

98
Q

herd immunity achieved between __________ vaccination, depending on how contagious the virus

A

70-90%

99
Q

antibodies produced following viral infection (3)

A

IgG, IgA, IgM

100
Q

for __________ spreading viruses (i.e. distemper) – high IgG titers + cell-mediated immunity are important

A

systemic

101
Q

for _________ infection (i.e. influenza) – secretory IgA offers protection

A

local

102
Q

Proof of protection is established by challenge of vaccinated animals with ___________ virus

A

wild-type

103
Q

If a virus is intracellular or has established a latent infection, ___________ immunity is more important for protecting

A

cell-mediated

104
Q

T/F - Serum IgG does not correlate w persistent / latent infections (i.e. retroviruses, alpha herpesviruses)

A

true

105
Q

If viremia occurs, serum _______ can bind virus and block entry into cells

A

IgG

106
Q

objectives of vaccination:

a) disease prevention
b) mitigation of disease
c) protection of unvaccinated population

A

all of the above

107
Q

T/F - One approach to vaccination applies to all viral diseases

A

false

108
Q

vaccines that protect from diseases that are endemic to a region, of public health significance, required by law, caused by highly infectious vaccines, those posing a severe risk of disease
i.e. canine parvovirus, distemper, adenovirus 2 – begin as early as 6w of age, at 2w intervals

A

core vaccines

109
Q

vaccinated puppies (8w) are protected from exposure to WT virulent parvovirus at

A

10 weeks

110
Q

most common cause of vaccine failure is _______ ________ interference

A

maternal antibody

111
Q

vaccine designed to immunize against two or more strains of the same microorganism, or two or more microorganisms

A

Multivalent vaccine

112
Q

T/F - Level + length of time of protection vary with individual vaccines and individual animals

A

true

113
Q

vaccine ______________ is often due to incorrect storage, expiration, or incorrect administration

A

inactivation

114
Q

Determination of __________ status is vital for assessment of animals with: unknown vaccination history, overdue vaccinations, those undergoing chemotherapy, immunosuppressive drugs, or history of adverse reactions

A

antibody

115
Q

contain agents capable of replicating within the animal, yet have attenuated pathogenicity (non-virulent)

A

Modified live vaccines

116
Q

derived from naturally-occurring pathogens, produced by generation of non-virulent virus by attenuation in cell culture

A

Modified live vaccines

117
Q

Contain high titers of a low passage strain of the target virus – may produce a higher level immune response, likely to overcome low levels of maternal antibodies

A

Modified live vaccines

118
Q

Choice for situation where multiple injections are not feasible, producing a higher level immune response (i.e. shelter animals)

A

Modified live vaccines

119
Q

Decreased potential for allergic reactions

A

Modified live vaccines

120
Q

Highly susceptible to inactivation – proper handling & storage is critical

A

Modified live vaccines

121
Q

May acquire mutations in host & revert to virulence – rare, but requires monitoring

A

Modified live vaccines

122
Q

stimulate a broad range of immune responses & long-lasting duration of immunity with administration of fewer dose; however, poses greater risk to animals

A

Live vaccines

123
Q

engineered by incorporation of genes for a pathogen’s antigen proteins into a harmless carrier virus

A

Recombinant vector vaccines

124
Q

Cannot induce a robust immune response in the host or revert to virulence or cause disease

A

Recombinant vector vaccines

125
Q

deletion or inactivation of a virus gene that is required for virulence, while leaving the capability of virus to replicate intact (aka DIVA – differentiating infected from vaccinated animals)

A

Deletion vaccines

126
Q

may be non-amplifying or self amplifying – lead to efficient generation of antigen-specific immune responses to inserted genes of target viruses
Ex) Venezuelan equine encephalitis virus – used as potential vaccine delivery platform
Ex) Alphavirus replicons – have structural proteins deleted, and replicate vector RANA in cytoplasm

A

RNA vaccines

127
Q

RNA viruses target specific pathogens to produce prescription, and may include __________ vaccines against viral and bacterial pathogens

A

customized

128
Q

non-infectious, no reversion to virulence, no shedding of virus after immunization; usually require a higher antigen mass, adjuvant, multiple doses, and frequent boosters

A

Inactivated vaccines

129
Q

Stable in storage

A

Inactivated vaccines

130
Q

Safe for pregnant and immune-suppressed animals

A

Inactivated vaccines

131
Q

Require adjuvants

A

Inactivated vaccines

132
Q

likely to induce hypersensitivity reactions, injection site-reactions (granulomas/abscesses). & sarcomas in cats (associated with adjuvants)

A

Inactivated vaccines

133
Q

contain a portion of the organism – specific purified proteins that are not infectious

A

Subunit vaccines

134
Q

DNA coding for antigenic proteins of a viral pathogen is directly injected into animals

A

DNA vaccines

135
Q

any undesirable side-effect or unintended effect including the apparent failure to protect from the disease

A

adverse events

136
Q

________ reactions (more common): pain, pruritis, alopecia, transient lameness

A

local

137
Q

T/F - Reversion to virulence (i.e. MLV vaccines) is common with commercial vaccines for most viral pathogens

A

false

138
Q

antiretroviral drugs that inhibit reverse transcriptase & nucleic acid synthesis

A

retrovir

139
Q

inhibits viral DNA polymerase preventing further viral DNA synthesis

A

acyclovir

Virology (1 decks)

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