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Prevention and Treatment of Athletic Injuries > Exam 1 Information > Flashcards

Exam 1 Information Flashcards

1
Q

What are infectious diseases

A

Pathogens that cause disease by disrupting vital body processes or stimulating the immune system to mount a defensive reaction. Symptoms may include high fever and inflammation.

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2
Q

Where can pathogens enter the body

A

Through the skin, respiratory system, digestive system, or reproductive system.

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3
Q

Which type of injury is at high risk for infection when it closes up.

A

Puncture injury

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4
Q

First stage of Pathogen Infection

A

Incubation- Not infectious

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5
Q

Second stage of Pathogen Infection

A

Prodromal- start to see signs and symptoms (Isolate Person)

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6
Q

Third Stage of Pathogen Infection

A

Acute- Highest development of disease, most at risk for spreading disease.

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7
Q

Fourth Stage of Pathogen Infection

A

Decline- start to recover and feel better, high risk for relapse.

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8
Q

Fifth Stage of Pathogen Infection

A

Recovery- recovering from pathogen, develop immunity (Permanent or temporary)

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9
Q

What is acquired Immunity

A

immunity that develops with exposure to various antigens

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10
Q

What are the four types of infectious diseases

A

Sporadic (random)
Endemic (certain area)
Epidemic (Widespread)
Pandemic (throughout the world, everywhere)

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11
Q

How is Hepatitis B spread

A

It is spread through unprotected sex, sharing needles, needlesticks or SHARPS

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12
Q

Will an individual always have symptoms if infected with hepatitis B

A

It is possible for an individual infected with HBV will exhibit no signs or symptoms and the virus may go undetected. Thus, the disease may be unknowingly transmitted to others through exposure to blood or other bodily fluids

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13
Q

What is the rate of infection for health care providers

A

8700 infected each year. 200 a year die.

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14
Q

What is the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

A

A retrovirus that combines with a host cell.

May infect cells of the immune system, T-cells, B cells, Macrophages.

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15
Q

What are signs and symptoms of HIV

A

Fatigue, weight loss, muscle/joint pain, painful/swollen glands, night sweat, and fever.

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16
Q

What is Acquired Immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

A

Most people with HIV will develop AIDS
No protection against infections
Extremely vulnerable to illnesses, opportunistic infections and cancer.
Kaposi’s Sarcoma and Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma.

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17
Q

What are the statistic for AIDS

A

2011: 1.2 million Americans have HIV infection
50,000 NEW INFECTIONS EACH YEAR
Since 1981, 600,000 people have died of AIDS
About 50% develop AIDS within 10 years of being infected with HIV
Life span about 2 years after developing AIDS

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18
Q

What is OSHA Occupational Safety and Health Administration

A

Sets standard requirements for employers to follows to ensure employee safety with regard to occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens.

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19
Q

What are the employee requirements for OSHA

A

Any employee who has the potential for occupational exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials (OPIM) is required to receive training according to the bloodborne pathogen standard.

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20
Q

What are some preventions for OSHA

A
  1. Engineering Controls
  2. Work Practice Controls
  3. Personal Protective Equiptment
  4. Universal Precautions
  5. Body Substance Isolation
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21
Q

Engineering and work practice controls

A

Used to eliminate or minimize exposure to bloodborne pathogens.
Employer is responsible for full cost.
Must be regularly maintained or replaced if not effective.
Required to provide hand washing facilities.
All work practices must minimize or eliminate the risk of exposure.

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22
Q

Contaminated Needles or Sharps

A

Any object that can penetrate the skin (needles, scalpels, broken tubes, dental wires)
Reusable sharps must be place in a clearly labeled puncture resistant, leak proof container immediately after use until they can be reprocessed

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23
Q

What are Universal Precautions

A

Aggressive standardized approach to infection control

Treat all human blood and certain body fluids as if they contain bloodborne pathogens.

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24
Q

What are materials that require universal precautions

A

blood, semen, vaginal secretions, cerebrospinal fluid, synovial fluid, pleural fluid, any body fluid with visible blood, any unidentifiable body fluid, saliva from dental procedures.

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25
Q

What are some materials that do not require universal precautions

A

Feces, Nasal secretions, Sputum, Sweat, Tears, Urine, Vomitus, Unless they contain visible blood.

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26
Q

What are some Personal Protective Equipment

A

gloves, gowns, aprons, face shields, masks, eye protection, lab coats, shields, and resuscitation bags.

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27
Q

What are employer requirements for Hepatitis B Vaccine

A

Must be provided by employer if employee is at risk for exposure.
Must be offered at a convenient time, during normal working hours.
Employer cannot require you to use your health insurance to pay for the vaccine.

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28
Q

What are CONTRAINDICATIONS for hepatitis B

A

Prohibited if sensitive to yeast or any other component of the vaccine.
Consultation with a physician is required for people with heart disease, fever or other illnesses. Consultations also recommended if pregnant or breastfeeding.

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29
Q

What happens if you are exposed to an OPIM

A

It must be reported to the supervisor

Testing may be provided for exposure upon employee request.

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30
Q

Which infection is of more concern in regards to athletic

A

Hepatitis B

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31
Q

What are the concerns in terms of exclusion from sports for an HIV infected athlete?

A

Athlete should avoid exhaustive exercise which can weaken the immune system.
Must have a medically sound reason for exclusion based on objective medical evidence.

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32
Q

What are the measures taken for Acute HBV

A

Removal from contact sports

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33
Q

What are the measures taken for chronic HBV

A

should be received from competition.

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34
Q

What is Right to Know

A

As a health care provider you have the right to know if an athlete has an infectious disease, must maintain information confidential.

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35
Q

What is the appropriate measures for caring for wounds

A

See the athlete on a daily basis. Before game/practice and after to clean if necessary and avoid infections.

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36
Q

What is trauma

A

An injury or wound produced by some sort of force (internal, external)

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37
Q

What is a mechanical injury

A

force, changes the structure and state of rest of a muscle

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38
Q

What are the four tissue properties

A

Load, Stiffness, Stress, Strain

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39
Q

What is load

A

External force, causes a reaction within the tissue

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40
Q

What is stiffness

A

Ability of a tissue to resist a load

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41
Q

What is stress

A

internal resistance to a load

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42
Q

What is strain

A

Internal change in tissue (seen in muscles and/or tendons)

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43
Q

Stress-strain

A

Beyond the yield point, creep begins thus injury starts past this point.

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44
Q

What is creep

A

Deformation in shape (constant fluid)

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45
Q

What is yield point

A

Point at which elasticity is almost exceeded
If deformation persists, following release of load permanent or plastic changes result
When yield point is far exceeded mechanical failure occurs resulting in damage.

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46
Q

What type of tissue loading

A

Tension, Compression, Shearing

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47
Q

What is tension

A

Constant stress pulling

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48
Q

What is compression

A

squishing movement (fractures, disc)

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49
Q

What is shearing

A

Cross stress on fibers (ex. blisters)

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50
Q

What is Bending

A

Two force pairs act as opposite ends of a structure (4 points)
Three forces cause bending (3 points)
Already bowed structures encounter axial loading

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51
Q

What is torsion

A

Loads caused by twisting in opposite directions from opposite ends
Shear stress encountered will be perpendicular and parallel to the loads.

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52
Q

What is acute injury

A

Something that comes on rapidly or suddenly (direct blow)

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53
Q

What is a chronic injury

A

Longterm, overuse, repetitive stress over time.

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54
Q

What are the anatomical characteristics of Musculotendinous Unit Injuries.

A

Composed of contractive cells that produce movement

Posses following characteristics: Irritability, Contractility, Conductivity, Elasticity.

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55
Q

What is a muscle strain

A

Stretch, tear or rip to muscle or adjacent tissue.

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56
Q

What causes a muscle strain

A

Abnormal muscle contraction is the result of:

  1. Failure in reciprocal coordination of agonist and antagonist.
  2. Electrolyte imbalance due to profuse sweating.
  3. Strength imbalance.
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57
Q

What is a common site for tendon/muscle rupture

A

bicep muscle

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58
Q

What is a Grade 1 Strain

A

some fibers have been stretched or actually torn resulting in tenderness and pain and ROM movement painful but full range present.

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59
Q

What is a Grade 2 Strain

A

number of fibers have been torn and active contraction is painful, usually a depression or divot is palpable, some swelling and discoloration result.

60
Q

What is a Grade 3 Strain

A

Complete rupture or muscle or musculotendinous junction, significant impairment, with initially a great deal of pain that diminishes due to nerve damage.

61
Q

What is a muscle cramp

A

Painful involuntary skeletal muscle contraction

62
Q

When does a muscle cramp occur

A

Occurs in well-developed individuals when muscle is in shortened position.

63
Q

What is muscle guarding

A

Following injury, muscles within an effected area contract to splint the area in an effort to minimize pain through limitation of motion. Involuntary muscle contraction in response to pain following injury.

64
Q

What is a muscle spasm

A

A reflex reaction cause by trauma

65
Q

What are the types of muscle spasms

A

Clonic and Tonic

66
Q

What is a clonic muscle spasm

A

Alternating involuntary muscular contractions and relaxations in quick succession.

67
Q

What is a Tonic muscle spasm

A

Rigid contraction that lasts a period of time.

68
Q

What is muscle sorness

A

overexertion in strenuous exercise resulting in muscular pain

69
Q

What are the two types of muscle soreness

A
  1. Acute-onset muscle soreness

2. Delayed-onset muscle soreness

70
Q

What is acute-onset muscle soreness

A

Accompanies fatigue, and is transient muscle pain experienced immediately after exercise

71
Q

What is Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS)

A

Pain that occurs 24-48 hours following activity that gradually subsides (pain free 3-4 days after)
Potentially caused by slight micro trauma to muscle or connective tissue structures.

72
Q

When do tendon injuries occur

A

Breaking point occurs at 6-8% of increased length.

Tears generally occur in muscle and not tendon.

73
Q

What is the tendon most susceptible to injury

A

Achilles Tendon

74
Q

What is tendinitis

A

Inflammation of a tendon

75
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of tendinitis

A

Gradual onset with diffuse tenderness due to repeated micro trauma and degenerative changes. There is obvious signs of swelling and pain. There may also be some crepitus.

76
Q

What happens if tendinitis is not healed properly

A

Without proper healing tendinitis may begin to degenerate and result in tendinosis. It will be visibly swollen with stiffness and restricted motion.

77
Q

What is tenosynovitis

A

Inflammation of the synovial sheath

78
Q

What are signs and symptoms of an acute case of tenosynovitis

A

Rapid onset, crepitus and diffuse swelling

79
Q

What are signs and symptoms of a chronic case of tenosynovitis

A

Results in thickening of tendon with pain and crepitus

80
Q

Where does tenosynovitis occurs most often

A

Often occurs in long flexor tendon of the digits and the biceps tendon

81
Q

What are myofascial trigger points

A

Discrete, hypersensitive nodule within tight band of muscle or fascia. Classified as latent or active.

82
Q

How are miofascial trigger points developed

A

Develop as a result of mechanical stress, either acute trauma or micro trauma. May lead to development of stress on muscle fiber

83
Q

What are some characteristics of latent trigger points

A

Does not cause spontaneous pain

May restrict movement or cause muscle weakness

84
Q

What are some characteristics of active trigger points

A

Causes PAIN at rest
Applying pressure=pain= jump sign
Found most commonly in muscles involved in postural support.

85
Q

What is a contusion

A

Result of a sudden blow to the body. Can be both deep or superficial.

86
Q

What are myositis ossificans

A

Calcium deposits that goes into the tissues. Do not want to deep massage or ultrasound because it develops into bone growth. Typically seen in the thigh and bicep.

87
Q

What is atrophy

A

Wasting away of muscle due to immobilization, inactivity or loss of nerve functioning.

88
Q

What is contracture

A

Abnormal shortening of muscle where there is a great deal of resistance to passive stretch. (Usually a result of injury, scar tissue)

89
Q

What are the three synovial joints

A

Synarthrotic- Immovable (sutures in skull)
Amphiarthrotic- slightly movable (vertebrae)
Diarthrotic- Freely movable (shoulder joint, hip joint)

90
Q

Synovial joint types

A

Ball and socket-allows all possible motion (hip, shoulder)
Hinge- flexion and extension (elbow, knee)
Pivot- rotation around an axis (atlas axis on cervical spine)

91
Q

Synovial joint types

A

Ellipsoidal- convex head on concave socket (wrist)
Saddle-shaped- reciprocally concavo-convex (MP joint of thumb)
Gliding- allows a small amount of gliding back and forth. Carpals/Tarsals and articular processes of the vertebrae

92
Q

How do ligament sprains occur

A

Result of traumatic joint twist that causes stretching or tearing of connective tissue

93
Q

What are characteristics of Grade 1 ligament sprain

A

Some pain, minimal loss of function, no abnormal motion, and mild point tenderness

94
Q

What are characteristics of Grade 2 ligament sprain

A

Pain, moderate loss of function, swelling, and instability with tearing and separation of ligament fibers

95
Q

What are characteristics of Grade 3 ligament sprain

A

Extremely painful, inevitable loss of function, severe instability and swelling, and may also represent subluxation

96
Q

What are the greatest difficulties when dealing with Grade 1 and 2 ligament sprains

A

Restoring stability due to stretched tissue and inelastic scar tissue which forms.

97
Q

What is critical of ligament sprains

A

Regin joint stability, and strengthening of muscles around the joint

98
Q

What is the purpose of a ligament

A

Provide joint stability

99
Q

What is a subluxation

A

Partial dislocation causing incomplete separation of two bones. Bones come back together in alignment

100
Q

What is a dislocation

A

When at least one bone in a joint is forced out of alignment and must be manually or surgically reduced. High incidence in fingers and shoulder.

101
Q

What should be done when someone suffers a dislocation

A

Refer for an X-ray

102
Q

What should every dislocation be assumed to be

A

A fracture

103
Q

What should be checked for when a dislocation occurs

A

Circulation- cap refill, pulse
Sensation- dermatomes, myotomes
Motor- movement

104
Q

When was the NATA established

A

1950-> 100 members all males

105
Q

What does an Athletic Trainer specialize in

A

Preventing, recognizing, managing and rehabilitating injuries.

106
Q

What does the mission of the NATA

A

To enhance the quality of health care for athletes and those who engaged in physical activity, and to advance the profession of athletic training through education and research in the prevention, evaluation, management and rehabilitation of injuries.

107
Q

How many members is the NATA composed of

A

32,000

108
Q

What is the most important role of an ATC

A

Preventing injuries

109
Q

What are the roles and responsibilities of the ATC

A

Injury/illness prevention and wellness protection
Clinical evaluation and diagnosis
IMMEDIATE AND EMERGENCY CARE (on-field eval)
Treatment and rehabilitation
Organizational and professional health and well-being

110
Q

What are the requirements for Certification as an athletic trainer

A

Must have extensive formal academic preparation and supervised practical experience.
Guidelines are set by the Board of Certification (BOC)

111
Q

What are the 5 domains that the exam assesses

A

Injury/illness prevention and wellness protection
Clinical evaluation and diagnosis
Immediate and emergency care
Treatment and rehabilitation
Organizational and professional health and well-being

112
Q

What are the requirements after passing the BOC

A

Continuing education every 2 years- 50 hours

113
Q

What is the purpose for the International federation of sports medicine

A

Principal purpose is to promote the study and development of sports medicine throughout the world.

114
Q

What is the purpose for the American Academy of Family Physicians

A

To promote and maintain high quality standards for family doctors who are providing continuing comprehensive health care to the public.

115
Q

What is the purpose for the American College of Sports Medicine

A

Interested in the study of all aspects of sports. Membership composed of medical doctors, doctors of philosophy, physical educators, athletic trainers, coaches, exercise physiologists, biomechanists and others interested in sports

116
Q

What is the purpose for the American Orthopedic Society for sports medicine

A

To encourage and support scientific research in orthopedic sports medicine and to develop methods for safer, more productive and enjoyable fitness programs and sports participation.

117
Q

What is the purpose for the National strength and conditioning association

A

To facilitate a professional exchange of ideas in strength development as it relates to the improvement of athletic performance and fitness and to enhance, enlighten, and advance the field of strength and conditioning.

118
Q

What is the purpose for the American Academy of Pediatrics, Sports Committee

A

Dedicated to providing the general pediatrician and pediatric sub-specialist with and understanding of the basic principles of sports medicine and fitness and providing a forum for the discussion of related issues.

119
Q

What is the purpose for the American Physical Therapy Association, Sports Physical Therapy Section

A

Promotes prevention, recognition, treatment and rehabilitation of injuries in an athletic and physically active population. Provides educational opportunities through sponsorship of continuing education programs and publications.

120
Q

What is the purpose for the NCAA Committee of Competitive Safeguard and Medical Aspects of Sports.

A

Makes Safety recommendations as well as supervises drug-education and drug-testing programs.

121
Q

What is the purpose for the National Academy of Sports Medicine

A

Focuses on the development, refinement and implementation of educational programs for fitness, performance and sports medicine professionals.

122
Q

What are the employment settings for ATCs

A

Athletic trainers started working primarily in the collegiate setting and then progressed to high schools and now work in a variety of settings including, military, professional teams, physician extenders, etc…

123
Q

When should an athlete begin weight training

A

After skeletal maturation

124
Q

What are some prevention measures that can be taken

A

Ensure safe environment
Conduct pre-participation physicals
Develop training and conditioning programs
Select and fit protective equipment properly
Explaining important diet and lifestyle choices

125
Q

When do most injuries occur and why

A

Most injuries occur during the second half of the game due to lack of endurance, causing the athlete to get tired and more susceptible to being injured.

126
Q

What are the guidelines for Clinical Evaluation and Diagnosis

A

Recognize nature and extent of injury
Involves both on and off field evaluation skills and techniques
Understand pathology of injuries and illnesses
Referral to medical care
Referral to supportive services

127
Q

What are the guidelines for Immediate and Emergency care

A

Administration of appropriate first aid and emergency medical care (CPR, AED)
Activation of emergency action plans (EAP)

128
Q

What are guidelines for treatment and rehabilitation

A 
Design preventative training programs
Rehabilitation program design
Supervising rehabilitation programs
Incorporation of therapeutic modalities and exercise
Offering psychosocial intervention
129
Q

What are guidelines for Organizational and Professional Health and Well-being

A

Record keeping
Ordering supplies and equipment
Establishing policies and procedures
Supervising personnel

130
Q

What are the professional responsibilities for an ATC

A

Athletic trainer as an educator
Athletic trainer and continuing education
Athletic trainers as counselor
Athletic trainers as researcher (participating and acquiring evidence for efficacious patient care)

131
Q

Why is it important to engage evidence based practice

A

To be able to have data that shows what is working and what isn’t. Being able to show patients what is producing positive outcomes.

132
Q

Evidence driving patient care

A

Failure to engage in evidenced based care could jeopardize patient care.

133
Q

What are EVB (evidence based practice) steps

A 
Develop clinical questions
Search literature
Appraise evidence
Apply evidence
Assess outcomes
134
Q

What are personal qualities of the athletic trainer

A 
Stamina and ability to adapt
Empathy
Sense of humor
Communication
Intellectual curiosity
Ethical practice
Professional memberships
135
Q

What are the NATA code of ethics

A

Members shall respect the rights, welfare and dignity of all
Members shall comply with the laws and regulations governing the practice of athletic training
Members shall maintain and promote high standards in their provision of services
Members shall not engage in conduct that could be construed as a conflict of interest or that reflects negatively on the profession

136
Q

What is an important aspect between the relationship of the athletic trainer and the team physician

A

Have similar philosophical opinions regarding injury management. This helps to minimize discrepancies and inconsistencies.

137
Q

Who is directly responsible for injury prevention

A

Coach, athletes must go through appropriate conditioning program.

138
Q

When did the AMA officially recognize athletic training as an allied health profession

A

June 1990

139
Q

What is the purpose for Specialty Certification

A

To provide the athletic trainer with advanced clinical practice credential that demonstrates attainment of knowledge and skills that will enhance patient care, enhance health-related patient quality of life, and optimize clinical outcomes in specialized areas of athletic training practice.

140
Q

What are the continuing education requirements

A

75 CEUs over the course of three years

141
Q

Licensure

A

Limits practice of athletic training to those who have met minimal requirements established by a state licensing board. Limits the number of individuals who can perform functions related to athletic training as dictated but the practice act.

142
Q

Certification

A

Can restrict performance of athletic training functions to only those individuals who are certified.

143
Q

Registration

A

Before an individual can practice athletic training he/she must register in that state.

144
Q

Exemption

A

State recognizes that an athletic trainer performs similar functions to other licensed professions, yet still allows them to practice athletic training despite the fact that they do not comply with the practice acts of other regulated professions.

145
Q

What is a big focus for the NATA

A

Placing an ATC in all high schools

Prevention and Treatment of Athletic Injuries (1 decks)

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