Exam 1 Emergency and Disaster Flashcards

1
Q

Who falls in the Immediate (RED) triage category?

A

tension pneumothorax
respiratory distress
major external hemorrhage
airway injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the primary survey in triage

A

Alertness and airway
Breathing and ventilation Circulation and control of hemorrhage
Disability
Exposure and environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why is alertness part of the airway assessment?

A

Assessment of alertness helps in the evaluation of the patient’s ability to protect the airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the components of airway assessment?

A

Bony deformity
Burns
Edema
Fluids (blood, vomit, or secretions)
Foreign objects
Inhalation injury (burns,singed facial hair,soot)
Loose or missing teeth
Sounds (snoring, gurgling, stridor)
Tongue obstruction
Vocalization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is oropharyngeal airway intervention?

A

-temporary measure

-for patient breathing spontaneously but unconscious

-this airway prevents tongue from falling back against posterior pharynx and obstructing the airway

-for patients without gag reflex

-providers able to suction secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What should be assumed with patients who have multiple traumatic injuries?

A

spinal cord injury unless proven otherwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the goals of treatment when caring for trauma patients

A

Determine extent of injuries and establish priorities of treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What do you do if the patient is unable to open their mouth or responds only to pain

A

perform the jaw thrust maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are steps to jaw thrust maneuver?

A

Stand at the head of the bed.

Place your index fingers under the angle of the lower jaw on each side of the patient’s face, your palms close to or on each cheekbone for stabilization.

Gently move the mandible upwards (vertically) and towards the patient’s feet (horizontally).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is insertion performed for OPA?

A

Measure the correct size by placing the proximal end (flange) of the OPA at the corner of the mouth. The tip should just reach the angle of mandible.
Depress the tongue using a tongue blade or a rigid suction device. Advance the OPA straight over the tongue, or insert the OPA at a 90-degree angle, and then turn the OPA while avoiding trauma to the palate.
With either method, it is essential to take care not to push the tongue backward, causing it to occlude the airway.
After insertion, reassess airway patency, ventilation, and oxygenation, and anticipate the need for a definitive airway. If ventilation or oxygenation is inadequate, consider the use of bag-mask ventilation to support the patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why is nasopharyngeal airway used?

A

to open the airway

enables air to pass behind the tongue

used in patients with gag reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When is NPA absolutely contraindicated?

A

facial trauma or a known or suspected basilar skull fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How to verify placement of ETT?

A

Attachment of a CO2 detector device. After 5 to 6 breaths, assess for the presence of exhaled CO2

Observation of adequate rise and fall of the chest with assisted ventilation

Auscultation, first for absence of gurgling over the epigastrium, and then for presence of bilateral breath sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What assessments should be performed to assess for BREATHING and ventilation?

A

Breath sounds
Depth, pattern, rate
Increased work of breathing
Open wounds or deformities
Skin color
Spontaneous breathing
Subcutaneous emphysema
Symmetrical chest rise and fall
Tracheal deviation or JVD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the next step if the breathing assessment reveals adequate ventilation?

A

Continue oxygen via an appropriate device for the ordered flow rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the next step if your breathing assessment reveals absent or inadequate ventilation?

A

Open the airway using a jaw-thrust maneuver while maintaining SMR and insert an airway adjunct
If the patient remains apneic or without adequate ventilation, assist ventilations with a bag-mask device.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What assessments should be performed to assess CIRCULATION?

A

Inspect and palpate
Color
Temperature
Moisture
Palpate a pulse
Control of hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What interventions should be anticipated for hypovolemic shock due to hemorrhage?

A

control of hemorrhage with direct pressure, application of a tourniquet, balanced resuscitation, damage control resuscitation, FAST exam, and pelvic binder.

19
Q

What assessment is part of DISABILITY?

A

Glasgow Coma Scale
Best eye opening
Best verbal response
Best motor response
Pupils
Glucose if indicated

20
Q

What assessments and interventions should be performed during EXPOSURE and ENVIRONMENTAL control?

A

Remove all clothing
Inspect for injuries
Warming measures
Blankets
Increase room temperature
Warmed IV fluids
Warming lights

21
Q

What does the “F” stand for?

A

Full Set of Vital Signs and Family Presence
Obtain a full set of vital signs
Facilitate family presence

22
Q

What does G stand for?

A

Get adjuncts and give comfort leading to

L: Laboratory analysis
M: Cardiac monitor; consider 12-lead ECG
N: Consider naso- or orogastric tube
O: Oxygenation and capnography; consider weaning oxygen
*P: Assess pain using appropriate scale
Consider analgesia
Nonpharmacologic comfort

23
Q

What does I stand for?

A

Inspect posterior
Unless contraindicated by known or suspected spine or pelvic injury
Turn, inspect and palpate
Remove backboard

24
Q

When might it be unsafe to turn the patient?

A

If the patient has signs or symptoms suggestive of a spine or pelvic injury, logrolling can cause more trauma or worsen bleeding from pelvic fractures.

25
What are signs of peritoneal irritation?
abdominal distention involuntary guarding rebound tenderness abdominal pain with or without tenderness muscular rigidity changes in bowel sounds
26
the nurse suspects hemoperitoneum and splenic injuries if patient complains of what pain?
Left shoulder pain
27
What is the Kehr sign?
Referred left shoulder pain due to diaphragmatic irritation from splenic injury
28
Why is referred pain a significant finding?
it suggests intraperitoneal injury
29
What is referred right shoulder pain due to
liver injury
30
What are s/s of intra-abdominal injuries?
Look for obvious signs of injury Dependent on damaged organs Abd distention, guarding, tenderness, pain, muscular rigidity, rebound tenderness = peritoneal irritation Loss of bowel sounds S/s of shock Ecchymosis around umbilicus (Cullen’s sign) Ecchymosis in flank (Grey-Turner’ sign) Referred left shoulder pain due to diaphragmatic irritation from splenic injury (Kehr sign) Referred right shoulder pain due to liver injury
31
What diagnostic is useful in assessing hollow organ injury or when CT cannot be performed?
peritoneal lavage
32
What indicates a positive peritoneal lavage finding?
RBC > 100,000 WBC > 500 presence of bile, feces, food
33
What is medical and nursing management for intra-abdominal injuries?
IVF or blood Monitor VS, 02, U/O, and LOC Assess for entry and exit wounds for penetrating trauma 02 Establish patent airway Apply direct pressure to wounds NGT for decompression and to avoid risk of aspiration Establish IV access Tetanus and IV ABX for prophylaxis Exploratory lap DO NOT REMOVE AN IMPALED OBJECT!!!!
34
What is care of the client with evisceration?
Stay calm and stay with the client Call for help (RRT) Immediately cover the area with sterile, moist saline dressings DO NOT ATTEMPT TO REINSERT THE ORGANS Place the client in a low-Fowler’s position with hips and knees bent Prepare the client for surgery Document
35
What can you see with a pelvic fracture?
Palpable motion, pain, or bony crepitus on palpation of the pelvis Hypovolemic shock (may or may not be present) Shortening or abnormal rotation of the leg on the affected side Perineal edema and ecchymosis Blood at the urinary meatus, hematuria, or intraabdominal injury Rectal bleeding
36
When is resuscitative thoracotomy necessary?
when a patient with penetrating chest trauma arrives with unstable vital signs, impending arrest, or sudden loss of vital signs.
37
What are indications for performing resuscitative thoracotomy?
Relief of cardiac tamponade Support cardiac output with internal massage Cross clamp the descending aorta to preserve thoracic and cerebral blood flow Defibrillate the heart internally (more effective than external defibrillation) Control massive air embolism Limit hemorrhage from the heart or great vessels
38
What is medical and nursing management for poisoning?
ABC support Continuous assessment Placement of indwelling catheter to monitor kidney function Determine type of poison, time of ingestion, the amount, s/s, pertinent history Consult with Poison Control Center Evaluate mental health/psychosocial status Monitor for complications
39
What is medical and nursing management to correct poisoning in patients
If ingestion of corrosive agent, milk or water is used to dilute (Not given for airway issue or evidence of GI burn or perforation) (Syrup of ipecac But not for corrosive! Increases risk of vomiting  aspiration) Gastric lavage Activated charcoal If it is absorbed by charcoal Cathartic Administration of antidote early as possible Dialysis Diuresis Hemoperfusion
40
What is part of human made disaster chemical agents
rapid onset lethal in small doses nerve agent produces symptoms such as salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, gi upset, emesis
41
What is part of human made disaster biological agents?
Bio agents can spread via person to person by contact, inhalation, and ingestion, thus making the spread a public health emergency
42
What is part of radiological/nuclear?
Radiological dispersal device (dirty bomb) or nuclear irradiation (bomb or reactor leak) Exposure: the body surface is introduced to the contaminant (radiograph or CT emits radiation, person is exposed only). Contamination: the contaminant comes in contact with the skin, body, or hair and has the capability to penetrate into the body. Time, distance, shielding
43
What are the five levels of explosives?
Primary blast injury: direct blast pressurization Secondary blast injury: projectiles propelled by explosion Tertiary blast injury: victim thrown by blast wind Quaternary blast injury: explosion related such as from heat or fumes Quinary blast injury: associated with CBRN (example, dirty bomb)