Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Brain and Behavior > Exam 1 Deck 2 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Deck 2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
The Brain flashcards
1
Q

How much CSF is there?

A

120 mL

CSF is replaced 3x daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are some functions of CSF?

A

Supports and cushions hte brain

Transports nutrients, messengers and waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where does CSF come from?

A

Choroid epithelial cells in the lateral and 4th ventricles

Ependymal cells produce small amount as well

Metabolically active process, using ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a difference between CSF production and resorption?

A

Production is an active transport process - requires ATP

Resorption is a pressure-gradient-driven process

(Difference between intracranial pressure and central venous pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is used as a marker of CSF?

A

Beta-2 transferrin (or glucose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What ions are present in greater concentrations in CSF than in blood?

A

Chloride (Cl), Magnesium (Mg), and Sodium (Na)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the flow of CSF.

A

Lateral Ventricle - (where it is produced)

Through Foramen of Monro into the 3rd Ventricle

Through Cerebral Aqueduct into the 4th Ventricle

Exits via the Foramina of Luschka (laterally) or Foramen of Magendie (midline)

From here it goes into Subarachnoid space and back via the venous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where is CSF resorbed?

A

Arachnoid granulations in the subarachnoid space

Arachnoid villi function as pressure-dependent one-way valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of molecules (hydrophilic/lipophilic) more readily cross the BBB?

A

Lipophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where is the BBB not intact?

A

Hypothalamus - to allow diffusion of hypothalamic hormones

Pineal gland - to allow for pineal secreatins into the general circulation

Choroid plexus - for CSF production purposes, however, they are connected by tight junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is an ependymoma?

A

Tumor of the ependyma, the lining of the ventricles.

Constitute 5-6% of all glial cell neoplasms, most frequently seen in children younger than 5 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a hydrocephalus?

A

Condition where there is an abnormal accumulation of CSF in the ventricles

Puts pressure on the brain

  • in children may cause increased head circumference
  • in adults may cause headache, nausea, vomiting, papilledema, palsa, coma, etc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a communicating hydrocephalus?

A

The CSF can travel freely through the ventricular system and into the subarachnoid space, but the movement into the venous system (from the subarachnoid space) is partially or totally blocked.

May be caused by tumor, blood, inflammation, infection, or overproduciton of CSF, or congenital absence of arachnoid villi

A problem with CSF resorption (cannot keep up with CSF production)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In what type of hydrocephalus is the issue with resroption not keeping pace with production?

A

Communicating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the treatment for communicating hydrocephalus?

A

Shunt placement (usually ventriculo-periotneal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a non-communicating hydrocephalus?

A

Obstruction somewehre in the ventricular system or subarachnoid space, resulting in the CSF being unable to travel freely from start to finish.

Commonly seen in the interventricular foramen, cerebral aqueduct, caudal portions of 4th ventricle, or foramen of the 4th ventricle.

Can be chronic or more acute

Caused by aqueductal stenosis, tumors, cysts, infection, hemorrage or congenital malformations/conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the treatment for non-communicating hydrocephalus?

A

Usually surgical to remove the blocakge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Dandy Walker Syndrome?

A

Example of a genetic cause of non-communicating hydrocephalus

There is expansion of 4th ventricle and posterior fossa and obstruction of foramina of Luschka and Magendie.

Mostly females are affected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a colloid cyst?

A

A cyst containing gelatinous material in the brain. It is almost always found just posterior to the foramen of Monro in the anterior aspect of the third ventricle, originating from the roof of the ventricle. Because of its location, it can cause obstructive hydrocephalus and increased intracranial pressure

This can cause an abrupt loss of consciousness and death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the likely result of obstruction of the exit channels of the fourth ventricle, the foramina of Magendie and Luschka?

A

enlargement of all parts of the ventricular system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is NPH?

A

Normal Pressure Hydrocephaly

It is one of the rare preventable and/or reversible causes of dementia

Patients experience a diagnostic triad consisting of urinary problems (frequency, urgency, or incontinence), impaired gait, and rapid progressive dementia (“wet, wobbly, and wacky”)

Treatment is a shunting procedure to reduce CSF pressure and volume.

Sign is that there is normal opening pressure upon lumbar puncture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is hydrocephalus ex vacuo?

A

Not a true hydrocephalus, but an atrophy of the brain resulting in ventricles that are relatively larger than normal since there is loss of white matter.

No increase in ICP, no neurological defecits apart from those attributable to atrophy

May follow a stroke or some other cause of brain atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is pseudotumor cerebri (idiopathic intracranial hypertension)?

A

Most commonly seen in obese women of child bearing age and in people w/ chronic renal failure

Related to vitamin A toxicity, endocrinopathies, TCN

Increase in ICP with little evidence on CT or MRI

Treatment includes a program of weight loss, medication, and, if needed, shunting (lumboperitoneal) or optic nerve fenestration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the origin of anterior brain circulation?

A

Common carotid artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the origin of posterior brain circulation?

A

subclavian artery to the vertebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Identify the Posterior Cerebral Artery

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Identify the Basilar Artery

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Identify the vertebral artery

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Identify the posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Identify the Anterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery (AICA)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Identify the Superior Cerebellar Artery (SCA)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Where does the carotid artery enter the skull?

A

Cavernous sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Name the four segments of the internal carotids

A
  1. Cervical
  2. Intrapetrossal
  3. Intracavernous
  4. Cerebral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Approximately how much of the blood supply to the brain is provided by the internal carotids vs vertebral arteries respectively?

A

Internal Carotids ~75%

Vertebrals ~ 25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does the posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) supply?

A

The dorsolateral medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does the anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA) supply?

A

Lateral and dorsal pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does the superior cerebellar artery (SCA) supply?

A

Lateral and dorsal pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the blood supply to the dorsal and lateral pons?

A

anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA) and the superior cerebellar artery (SCA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What supplies blood to the midbrain?

A

basilar artery, including SCA, but also by PCA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What vessels supply anterior circulation to the brain?

A

Internal Carotid

Anterior Cerebral

Middle Cerebral

Anterior Communicating (connects)

Posterior communicating artery anastamoses with the posterior circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Describe the course of the Middle Cerebral Artery (MCA)

A

From its origin from the Internal Carotid MCA proceeds laterally to enter and course through the lateral sulcus (Sylvian fissure). MCA supplies most of the lateral surface of the cerebral cortex, including the regions with the main representations of motor, somatosensory, auditory, language and higher cognitive function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Describe the course of the Anterior Cerebral Artery (ACA)

A

It courses rostromedially, and at the midline it anastomoses with its contralateral counterpart through the anterior communicating artery (AComm). Branches of ACA supply the inferior and medial surfaces of the frontal and parietal lobes, as well as subcortical structures located anteriorly, near the midline (e.g. septum pellucidum and the septal nuclei, anterior hypothalamus, anterior corpus callosum, anterior fornix and the anterior commissure). The territory of ACA includes the margin between the medial and dorsolateral cortical surfaces. The terminal branches of ACA anastomose with branches of PCA and MCA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Describe the course of the Posterior Cerebral Artery (PCA)

A

PCA supplies the occipital lobe and the inferior and medial surfaces of the temporal lobe. As noted above, arteries at the edge of the PCA territory anastomose with the terminal arborizations of the ACA and MCA. The overlapping of these territories establishes collateral circulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the three parts of the venous system in the head?

A

Superficial Veins

Deep Veins

Venous (Dural) Sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the vein of Trolard?

A

Large vein that communicates between the superior and inferior cerebral veins, establishing an anastomotic channel between the superior sagittal sinus and the middle cerebral vein and, hence, the cavernous sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the vein of Labbe?

A

It is the largest channel that crosses the temporal lobe between the lateral (Sylvian) fissure and the transverse sinus, connecting the middle cerebral vein with the transverse sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Where is the straight sinus?

A

Tentorum Cerebelli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Where/What is the Torcula?

A

Big pool of blood that drains into the transverse sinuses to the jugulars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Where is the superior saggital sinus?

A

Top of falx cerebri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Where is the inferior saggital sinus?

A

Base of falx cerebri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What supplies blood to the spinal cord?

A

2 Posterior Spinal Arteries (PSA)

1 Anterior Spinal Artery (ASA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the Artery of Adamkiewicz?

A

A particularly large radicular artery

It usually enters on the left side between T9 and T12 and then fuses with the anterior spinal artery, thereby reinforcing the blood supply to the anterior 2/3s of the lumbar and sacral spinal cord, including the lumbo-sacral enlargement

Commonly occluded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are radicular arteries?

A

Arterires that feed blood supply to the anterior or posterior spinal arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What supplies blood to the motor neurons of the spinal cord?

A

Anterior Spinal Artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What supplies blood to sensory neurons in the spinal cord?

A

Posterior Spinal Arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does the anterior spinal artery supply blood to?

A

Motor neurons in the spinal cord (anterior) in pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What does the posterior spinal arteries supply blood to?

A

Sensory spinal cord neurons (not shaded)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the venous supply of the spinal cord?

A

Anterior and posterior spinal veins

External and internal plexi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Identify the inferior saggital sinus

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Identify the straight sinus

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Identify the Internal cerebral vein

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Identify the vein of Galen

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Identify the basal vein of Rosenthal

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Identify the thalamostriate vein

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Identify the transverse sinus

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Identify the superior saggital sinus

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is a CT?

A

Computer tomography (CT) scans use multiple Xrays to provide cross-sectional images of the brain. CT shows the brain, skull, other tissues, and abnormalities along a black-to-white scale.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the color code for CTs?

A

White - more radiodense

Black - less radiodense

Some things may be enhanced with contrast dyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are some advantages of CT scans?

A

Fast

Requires less cooperation

Sensitive to hemorrage, mass, CSF and bone abnormalities

Cost effective

Can use life support devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are some disadvantages of CT scans?

A

Use ionizing radiation (can’t be used with pregnant patients)

Contrast media can cause allergy, renal toxicity or other side effects

Lower resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is MRI?

A

MRI provides detailed, high resolution, images of the brain in axial, sagittal and coronal plains. MRI creates different images to give you better sensitivity and specificity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are some advantages of MRI?

A

Sensitive and specific - higher contrast than CT, and high resolution

Contrast settings can highlight different tissue types

Can tell how old an abnormality is

Can look at blood vessels using flow-weighted

Diffusion weighted imaging (DWI) can detect acute infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is DWI?

A

Diffusion-Weighted Imaging

MRI scan that is great for identifying acute infarcts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are some drawbacks of MRIs?

A

Slow

Need full patient cooperation

Can’t use most life-support devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How can you tell a CT scan and an MRI apart?

A

You can tell a scan is a CT scan when you see the clearly defined white bones and gray soft tissues. With MRI, the detail in the soft tissues is much greater.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the four major C-shaped structures in the cerebrum?

A

Lateral Ventricle

Caudate Nucleus

Fornix

Stria Terminalis (always found between the caudate nucleus and the thalamus)

For a structure to be C-shaped, it must have a lateral aspect to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Identify the caudate nucleus

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Where is the choroid plexus?

A

Black stuff inside the lateral ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Identify the caudate nucleus.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Identify the lateral ventricle

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Identify the splenium of the corpus callosum

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Where does the fornix originate and end?

A

Originates at the hippocampal formation (temporal lobe) and ends at the mammilary bodies (hypothalamus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Identify the fornix

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Identify the fornix

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Identify the caudate nucleus

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Identify the lateral ventricle

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Identify the lateral ventricle

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Identify the caudate nucleus

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Identify the septum pellucidum

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Identify the fornix

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Identify the splenium of the corpus callosum

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Identify the corpus callosum

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Identify the lateral ventricle

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Identify the caudate nucleus

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Identify the fornix

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Describe the course of the stria terminalis

A

always found between the caudate nucleus and the thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Identify the anterior limb of the internal capsule

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Identify the genu of the internal capsule

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Identify the posterior limb of the internal capsule

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the function of the internal capsule?

A

Carries much of the somatosensory information from the body to the cerebral cortex

Also carries the motor information from the cerebral cortex to the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What information travels through the genu of theinternal capsule?

A

Somatosensory and motor to the FACE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What information travels through the posterior limb of the internal capsule?

A

Somatosensory and motor information to the Arms, Trunk and Leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Identify the caudate nucleus

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Identify the putamen of the lenticular nucleus

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Identify the globus pallidus of the lenticular nucleus

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Identify the thalamus

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Identify the corpus callosum

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Identify the lateral ventricle

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Identify the caudate nucleus

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Identify the internal capsule

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Identify the putamen

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Identify the middle cerebral artery

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Identify the septal nuclei

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Identify the fornix

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Identify the globus pallidus

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Identify the anterior commissure

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Identify the amygdala

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Identify the third ventricle

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Identify the putamen

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Identify the foramen of Monro

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Identify the genu of the internal capsule

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Identify the third ventricle

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Identify the inferior horn of the lateral ventricle

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Identify the thalamus

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Identify the posterior limb of the internal capsule

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Identify the interpeduncular cistern

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Identify the hippocampal formation

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Identify the pontine fibers

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Identify a cerebral peduncle

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Identify the thalamus

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Identify the posterior commissure

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Identify the cerebral aqueduct

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Identify the middle cerebellar peduncle

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Identify the fornix

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Identify the lateral ventricle

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Identify the caudate nucleus

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Identify the fourth ventricle

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Identify the cerebellum

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Identify the Optic Tract

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Identify the Oculomotor Nerve

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Identify the Substantia Nigra

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Identify the cerebral peduncle

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Identify the red nucleus

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Identify the cerebral aqueduct

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Identify teh periaqueductal gray

A
146
Q

Identify the superior colliculus

A
147
Q

Identify the crossing fibers of the pons

A
148
Q

Identify the pontine nuclei

A
149
Q

Identify the descending fibers

A
150
Q

Identify the superior cerebellar peduncle

A
151
Q

Identify the 4th ventricle

A
152
Q

Identify the trochlear nerve

A
153
Q

Identify the crossing fibers of the pons

A
154
Q

Identify the pontine nuclei

A
155
Q

Identify the descending fibers

A
156
Q

Identify the middle cerebellar peduncle

A
157
Q

Identify the abducens nerve

A
158
Q

Identify the facial nerve

A
159
Q

Identify the 4th ventricle

A
160
Q

Identify the descending fibers (pyramids)

A
161
Q

Identify the inferior olivary complex

A
162
Q

Identify the Raphe nuclei

A
163
Q

Identify the 8th nerve

A
164
Q

Identify the inferior cerebellar peduncle

A
165
Q

Identify the 4th ventricle

A
166
Q

Identify the descending fibers (pyramids)

A
167
Q

Identify the hypoglossal nerve

A
168
Q

Identify the inferior olivary complex

A
169
Q

Identify CN IX-XI

A
170
Q

Identify the inferior cerebellar peduncle

A
171
Q

Identify the 4th ventricle

A
172
Q

Identify the descending fibers (pyramids)

A
173
Q

Identify the obex

A
174
Q

Identify the dorsal columns

A
175
Q

What does this image depict?

A

Pyramidal decussation

176
Q

Identify the oculomotor nerve

A
177
Q

Identify the oculomotor complex

A
178
Q

Identify the trochlear nucleus

A
179
Q

Identify the trochlear nerve

A
180
Q

Identify the abducens nerve

A
181
Q

Identify the abducens nucleus

A
182
Q

Identify the hypoglossal nerve

A
183
Q

Identify the hypoglossal nucleus

A
184
Q

Which cell columns contain GSE fibers?

A

Oculomotor (III)

Trochlear (IV)

Abducens (VI)

Hypoglossal (XII)

These are near the midline

185
Q

Identify the facial nucleus

A
186
Q

Identify the facial nerve

A
187
Q

Identify the nucleus ambiguous

A
188
Q

Identify the dorsal funiculus

A
189
Q

Identify the lateral funiculus

A
190
Q

Identify the ventral funiculus

A
191
Q

Are dorsal, lateral and ventral funiculi white or gray matter?

A

white

192
Q

Identify the dorsal horn

A
193
Q

Identify the intermediate horn

A
194
Q

Identify the ventral horn

A
195
Q

Are the dorsal, intermediate, and ventral horns white or gray matter?

A

gray

196
Q

What functions do neurons in the dorsal horn have?

A

sensory

197
Q

What functions do neurons in the intermediate horn have?

A

both sensory and motor (processing)

198
Q

What function do neurons in the ventral horn have?

A

motor

199
Q

In the spinal cord, where are there enlargements and why?

A

Cervical and lumbar enlargements for additional innervation to arms and legs (added laterally)

200
Q

Within the ventral horns, how are proximal/distal and flexor/extensor functions distributed?

A

Recall, ventral horns are motor neurons

More lateral are more distal; more medial are more proximal (trunkal)

More dorsal are flexors; more ventral are extensors

201
Q

What is Clarke’s Nucleus?

A

Only found in thoracic spinal cord; related to cerebellum

202
Q

What is the intermediolateral nucleus?

A

Nuclei that supply neurons to the sympathetic chain ganglia

203
Q

How do you test the olfactory nerve?

A

Close eyes, place an aromatic stimulus under the nostril

Be sure to avoid irritants, such as ammonia

204
Q

What is Anosmia?

A

loss of sense of smell that is often accompanied by the loss of sensation of taste

205
Q

What is parosmia?

A

a perversion of the sense of smell

206
Q

What are olfactory hallucinations?

A

hallucinations of smell that are commonly associated with temporal lobe seizures

207
Q

What can caues lesions of the olfactory nerve?

A

Receptor blockage (i.e. temporary from common cold, smoking, viral)

Primary axon damage (fractures of cribiform plate due to head trauma)

Central processes (contusion sor lacerations of bulb, meningoma, aneurysm, tumor)

208
Q

What is CSF rhinorrhea?

A

When CSF is found to be leaking through nostrils

CSF leaks through a dural tear brought about by trauma

Identified by measuring glucose or beta-2-transferrin which are markers of CSF

209
Q

Which Cranial Nerves are purely motor?

A

CN III, IV, VI, XI, and XII

210
Q

Which Cranial Nerves are purely sensory?

A

CN I, II, VIII

211
Q

Which cranial nerves have both motor and sensory functions?

A

CN V, VII, IX, X

212
Q

Generally speaking, are motor cranial nerve nuclei located more medially or laterally?

A

medially

213
Q

Generally speaking, are sensory cranial nerve nuclei located more medially or laterally?

A

Laterally

214
Q

Which cranial nerve is the only one considered to be part of the CNS?

A

CN II - Optic Nerve

215
Q

What is papilledema?

A

Swelling of the optic nerve - usually implies increased ICP (intracranial pressure)

216
Q

How can you identify optic atrophy?

A

Pale optic nerve, not very well demarcated

217
Q

What is optic neuritis?

A

Inflammatory response along optic nerve that presents with pain upon eye movement, central visual loss, decreased visual activity, altered color vision, and afferent papillary defect

218
Q

How do pituitary tumors relate to the optic nerve?

A

Can compress the optic chiasm and lead to visual problems (specific parts of visual field)

219
Q

How do you examine the functionality of the optic nerve?

A

Acuity - eye chart or equivalent

Visual fields - test them

Pupillary reflexes

Fundus examination with opthalmoscope (retina, optic disc, other structures)

220
Q

Which muscle adducts the eye?

A

Medial rectus

221
Q

Which muscle is responsible for eye depression and extorsion?

A

Inferior rectus

222
Q

Which muscle is responsible for eye elevation and intorsion?

A

superior rectus

223
Q

Which eye is responsible for eye elevation, abduction, and extorsion?

A

inferior oblique

224
Q

Which muscle is responsible for eye depression, abduction, and intorsion?

A

superior oblique (CN IV)

225
Q

Which muscle is responsible for eye abduction?

A

Lateral rectus (CN VI)

226
Q

Which nucleus is responsible for the autonomic functions of the oculomotor nerve?

A

The Edinger-Westphal nucleus

227
Q

What types of fibers are in the olfactory nerve?

A

SVA

228
Q

What types of fibers are in the optic nerve?

A

SSA

229
Q

What types of fibers are in the oculomotor nerve?

A

GSE, GVE

230
Q

What types of fibers are in the trochlear nerve?

A

GSE

231
Q

What types of fibers are in the trigeminal nerve?

A

GSA, SVE

232
Q

What types of fibers are in the abducens nerve?

A

GSE

233
Q

What types of fibers are in the facial nerve?

A

Save Gas Give Saliva

SVE, GSA, GVE, SVA

234
Q

What types of fibers are in the vestibulocochlear nerve?

A

SSA

235
Q

What types of fibers are in the glossopharyngeal nerve?

A

Save Gas Give Saliva to Godiva

SVE, GSA, GVE, SVA, GVA

236
Q

What types of fibers are in the vagus nerve?

A

Save Gas Give Saliva to Godiva

SVE, GSA, GVE, SVA, GVA

237
Q

What types of fibers are in the spinal accessory nerve?

A

SVE

238
Q

What types of fibers are in the hypoglossal nerve?

A

GSE

239
Q

What are lesions that can occur to the oculomotor nerve?

A

3rd Nerve Palsy: Wrinkled forehead, raised eyebrows, ptosis, abducted eye; can e gotten from PCOM aneurysm, pupil involved early on - dilation and light sensitivity

Diabetic 3rd Nerve Palsy: lose nerve but spares pupil/pupilloconstrictor; death from inside out (ischemic lesion)

240
Q

What is the difference between a 3rd nerve palsy and a diabetic 3rd nerve palsy?

A

In diabetic, the parasympathetics (pupillary constriction function) of the 3rd nerve are preserved as it is an ischemic event that affects the nerve from the trunk outwards

241
Q

What is the function of the trochlear nerve?

A

Innervates the superior oblique - only CN that exits from dorsal brainstem (midbrain)

only CN that is contralateral

242
Q

What is unique about the trochlear nerve?

A

Longest intracranial course

Totally contralateral origin

Only nerve to exit from the dorsal brainstem (midbrain)

243
Q

What would a lesion to the trochlear nerve look like?

A

Eye is slightly elevated and extorted.

Pt may be tilting head to the normal side so that both eyes can be at same angle to avoid double vision

244
Q

What are the three branches of the trigeminal nerve?

A

V1 - opthalmic: leaves via superior orbital fissure

V2 - maxillary: enters through foramen rotundum

V3 - mandibular: enters through foramen ovale

245
Q

What fibers are in the opthalmic nerve (V1)?

A

GSA (sensory)

246
Q

What fibers are in the maxilary nerve (V2)?

A

GSA (sensory)

247
Q

What fibers are in the mandibular nerve (V3)?

A

GSA and SVE (motor and sensory)

248
Q

What is trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Common clinical condition where there is a sensory abnormality that presents as repetitive, brief stabbing pains in the absence of numbness

Typically affects those over 40 y/o. Patients ahve trigger zones (around nares, usually)

Symptoms occur mostly during the day

Often affects V2 and V3 and is usually one side

Can be caused by vascular compression

Treatment includes antiepileptics and neurosurgery

249
Q

How do you test the trigeminal nerve?

A

Sensation in the 3 branches

Test the corneal reflex

Test mandibular motor strength (deviation to weaker side)

250
Q

What does the corneal reflex test?

A

Trigeminal nerve function

251
Q

What muscle does the abducens innervate?

A

Lateral rectus muscle

252
Q

What do lesions in the abducens nerve present as?

A

Diplopia at a distance

Can be caused by cerebello-pontine angle tumor

Can be involved with increased ICP because it has adhesions to dura

253
Q

What is an upper motor neuron?

A

A neuron that originates in the motor cortex and carries motor information down to the brainstem nuclei, where it synapses with cranial nerves, or to lower motor neurons

254
Q

What is significant about the innervation of the forehead muscles?

A

bilateral upper motor neuron innervation (facial nerve; CN VII)

Injury to one side means that the forehead is not affected

255
Q

What is significant about the motor supply of lower facial muscles?

A

Supplied by the facial nerve (CN VII), by contralateral upper motor neurons only

Therefore if there is an injury, the muscles on the contralateral side will be affected

256
Q

What do lesions in the facial nerve present as?

A

Lower motor neuron lesions (to facial nerve itself or brainstem nuclei) result in ipsilateral palsy with upper and lower parts of the face affected (e.g. Bell’s palsy, meningeal process, or a stroke involving CN VII nucleus)

Upper motor neuron lesions (to neurons traveling from motor cortex to synapse on neurons in facial motor nucleus in pons), results in paralysis of mid and lower half of face on contralateral side to the lesion. Upper face is intact (e.g. stroke)

257
Q

What is Bell’s Palsy?

A

Neurological deficit to the facial nerve at the lower motor neuron level (causes ipsilateral defects)

258
Q

What do lesions in the vestibulocochlear nerve cause?

A

Hearing loss, vertigo, loss of equilibrium, nystagmus and tinnitus

259
Q

What is nystagmus?

A

Nystagmus is a term to describe fast, uncontrollable movements of the eyes that may be: Side to side (horizontal nystagmus); Up and down (vertical nystagmus); Rotary (rotary or torsional nystagmus). Depending on the cause, these movements may be in both eyes or in just one eye.

260
Q

What is tinnitus?

A

Tinnitus is the medical term for “hearing” noises in your ears when there is no outside source of the sounds.

e.g. ringing

261
Q

What is sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Hearing loss in which the cause lies in the vestibulocochlear nerve, inner ear, or central processing centers of the brain

262
Q

What is conductive hearing loss?

A

Heraing loss in which the root cause lies in the middle ear, tympanic membrane, or external ear

263
Q

What are the two types of hearing loss?

A

Sensorineural and Conductive

264
Q

What is acoustic neuroma?

A

Slow-growing tumor that always results in loss of function of CN VIII (and sometimes VII)

265
Q

What do lesions to the glossopharyngeal nerve present as?

A

Difficulty swallowing, some taste impairment, impaired gag reflex

266
Q

How do you test for Glossopharyngeal nerve function?

A

Gag reflex for the sensory of IX and motor of X

267
Q

What is Bell’s phenomenon?

A

When you close your eyes, the eyeballs roll upwards and a bit outwards

268
Q

What do lesions in the vagus nerve present as?

A

Impaired gag reflex

Lowering of palatal arch on the side of the lesion

Deviation of uvula to side of the lesion

Hoarseness of voice (paralysis of vocal cord on laryngoscopy)

269
Q

What do lesions in the spinal accessory nerve present as?

A

Difficulties with muscles innervated (sternocleidomastoid, trapezius)

270
Q

How do you test for a spinal accessory nerve deficit?

A

Asses muscle bulk of sternocleidomastoid and asses ability of patient to tilt face up and turn in opposite direction

Ask patient to shrug shoulder (drop on weak side)

271
Q

How do you injure the spinal accessory nerve?

A

Through surgeries that can inadvertently injure the nerve

Trauma - heavy load, suicide attempts

272
Q

How do you check for hypoglossal nerve damage?

A

check for tongue protrusion in midline and push against opposite cheek

Tongue deviates to the side of weakness (tongue licks wound)

Slurred speech

273
Q

How do lesions to the hypoglossal nerve differ if they are in the upper vs lower motor neurons?

A

LMN - damage to brainstem nucleus or nerve itself from tumors, surgery, etc): tongue deviation to side of the lesion due to unopposed action of opposite muscle. Also, atrophy and fasiculations

UMN- cortical stroke or tumor: tongue deviation away from side of cortical damage and no atrophy or fasiculations

274
Q

What is pseudobulbar palsy?

A

Condition caused by bilateral damage to corticobulbar tracts

Symptoms include inability to control facial movements, impaired swallowing (dysphagia), spastic speech, and random crying and laughing

Can be treated with dextromethorphan

275
Q

What does corticobulbar mean?

A

between cortex and brainstem

276
Q

What is dysphagia?

A

impaired swallowing

277
Q

What do you see in a LMN hypoglossal nerve lesion?

A

Tongue deviation towards weak side

UMN lesion results in tongue deviation away from the side of the cortical damage.

278
Q

What do you see in a UMN hypoglossal nerve lesion?

A

Tongue deviation away from side of cortical damage

279
Q

What do you see in a LMN facial nerve lesion?

A

Issues on same side of the entire face

280
Q

What do you see in UMN facial nerve lesions?

A

Lesions affect the lower half on the opposite side

281
Q

Which neurons does Pseudobulbar palsy affect?

A

Bilateral neurons of the corticobulbar tracts

282
Q

What are the three main layers of the embryo?

A

Ectoderm

Mesoderm

Endoderm

283
Q

From which embryonic layer does the nervous system originate?

A

Ectoderm (inner surface)

Microglia and dura mater come from mesoderm

284
Q

What occurs during the embryologic stage of induction?

A

A portion of the ectodermal germ layer becomes destined to form the nervous system. Induction culminates in the formation of a thickening in a part of the dorsal ectoderm called the neural plate

285
Q

What occurs during the embryological stage of neurulation?

A

Rapid cell proliferation at the margins of the neural plate, altering its configuration so that a midline neural groove forms between neural folds.

Cells lining the groove give rise to the cells of the CNS (Slide 4). The elevated margins of the neural folds grow toward each other, and then fuse in the midline to form a neural tube, which separates from the ectoderm

286
Q

How does neural tube closure proceed?

A

Embryo is like a cannoli - closes at middle and then zips up both rostrally and caudally

287
Q

What cells give rise to the CNS?

A

Neural tube cells

288
Q

What cells give rise to the PNS?

A

Neural crest cells

289
Q

What is the origin of the ventricular system?

A

The hole in the neural tube develops into the ventricles of the CNS

290
Q

What is the timeline of neural tube closure?

A

Begins at ~22 days, ends at ~26 (anterior) - 28 (posterior) days

291
Q

What is histogenesis?

A

Formation of tissues, when cells start proliferating and migrating

Important structures:

  • Germinal zone (Proliferative zone)
  • Mantle
  • Marginal zone
292
Q

What do the germinal zone cells transition to become?

A

Some migrate out and differentiate

The rest wil become the ependymal lining and the epithelium of the tela choroidea and choroid plexus

293
Q

What do the cells in the mantle become?

A

Gray matter of the CNS

294
Q

What do cells in the marginal zone become?

A

White matter of CNS

295
Q

What is the lamina terminalis?

A

The cephalic closing of the neural tube - becomes the anterior wall of the 3rd ventricle and the support structure for crossing structures in the brain

296
Q

What are the components of the 3-vesicle stage of the nervous system?

A

Prosencephalon

Mesencephalon

Rhombencephalon

297
Q

What seperates the prosencephalon from the mesencephalon?

A

mesencephalic flexure

298
Q

What separates the mesencephalon from the rhombencephalon?

A

the cervical flexure

299
Q

What adult structure corresponds to the prosencephalon?

A

forebrain

300
Q

What adult structure corresponds to the mesencephalon?

A

midbrain

301
Q

What adult structure corresponds to the rhombencephalon?

A

hindbrain

302
Q

What occurs in the transition between the 3- and 5-vesicle stages?

A

Prosencephalon gives rise to the telencephalon (cerebral cortex) and the diencephalon

Mesencephalon remains

Rhombencephalon gives rise to the metencephalon (pons/cerebellum) and the myelencephalon (medulla)

303
Q

What 5-vesicle stage structure does the cerebral cortex develop from?

A

Telencephalon

304
Q

What 5-vesicle stage structure does the midbrain develop from?

A

Mesencephalon

305
Q

What 5-vesicle stage structure does the pons/cerebellum develop from?

A

metencephalon

306
Q

What 5-vesicle stage structure does the medulla develop from?

A

myelencephalon

307
Q

When can we begin to see the optic vesice?

A

In the 3 vesicle stage (~28 days)

Before caudal closure of nerual tube

308
Q

What sets the boundary between the metencephalon and the myelencephalon?

A

The pontine flexure, which is covered by the tela choroidea

309
Q

What is the sulcus limitans?

A

A shallow longitudinal groove that extends throughout the length of the neural tube, separating the developing mantle into dorsal and ventral halves and giving the mantle a butterfly shape

310
Q

What is the Alar plate?

A

The dorsal half of the mantle of the neural tube that gives rise to the neuronal cell bodies that form nuclei (cell groups or cell columns) that receive and relay input from sensory neurons.

311
Q

What is the basal plate?

A

The ventral half of the mantle of the neural tube. The origin of the motor neurons of the spinal cord. Axons of these basal plate derivatives form the ventral roots of the spinal nerves that innervate skeletal muscles

312
Q

What is the fate of the lumen of the neural tube?

A

Becomes the central canal in the spinal cord (much smaller)

313
Q

How does the development of the medulla and its structures unfold?

A

Yellow - Altar plate (sensory)

Red - basal plate (motor)

Tela choroidea provides roof (Green)

314
Q

How do structures in the medulla and midbrain differ from in the spinal cord?

A

(1) in the medulla and pons, the alar plate lies lateral to the basal plate, not dorsal to it
(2) there are migrations of neuroblasts of both plates from the ventricular floor to other locations
(3) “special” sensory and motor structures of the head require new/different cell groups for innervation.

Structures that are rostral to the midbrain (in the diencephalon and elencephalon), as well as the cerebellum, develop from the alar plate.

vs

315
Q

Are efferent cell columns medial or lateral to the suclus limitans in the midbrain/medulla?

A

medial (basal plate derivatives = red)

316
Q

Are afferent cell columns medial or lateral to the sulcus limitans in the medulla/midbrain?

A

lateral (yellow = derivatives of Alar plate)

317
Q

What is the Rhombic lip?

A

Embryonic structure that develops into the cerebellum

318
Q

Where does the choroid plexus originate from?

A

tela choroidea and blood vessels

319
Q

What diencephalonic structure in the adult brain corresponds to the sulcus limitans?

A

The hypothalamic sulcus

320
Q

What is the order of the growth of cerebral cortex components from the telencephalon?

A

Parietal

Frontal

Occipital

Temporal

321
Q

What proportion of all malformations affect the CNS?

A

3-Jan

322
Q

What is the most important factor in determining the pattern of a malformation?

A

Gestational age of the disruption (not necessarily the details)

323
Q

What is neurulation?

A

Neural tube formation (3-4 weeks of gestation)

324
Q

When does prosencephalic development occur?

A

5-6 weeks

325
Q

When does cortical formation occur?

A

8-24 weeks

326
Q

What are dysraphic disorders?

A

Defects in neural tube development - namely failure of fusion of the tube and its mesenchymal coverings by 28th day post conception

327
Q

What is the most common malformation of the nervous system?

A

Neural tube defects (dysraphic disorders)

Within this category, anencephaly and myelomeningocele

328
Q

What condition is caused by a failure of the fusion of the rostral neural tube?

A

anencephaly/encephalocele

329
Q

What condition is caused by a failure of the fusion of the caudal neural tube?

A

Myelomeningocele

330
Q

When does the anterior end of the nerual tube close?

A

24 days

331
Q

When does the posterior end of the neural tube close?

A

day 26

332
Q

What is encephalocele?

A

Restricted failure of the anterior neural tube to close (around day 26)

Always have meningeal +/- cortical tissue extruding through a bony defect

Usually compatible with life

333
Q

What is myelomeningocele?

A

Spina bifida aperta

Restricted failure of posterior neural tube closure

Marked by the absence of overlying skin and meninges, and a malformed spinal cord

Can produce impairment in the spinal cord and brain

334
Q

What are some risk factors for teh development of myelomeningocele?

A

In utero exposure to alcohol and some medications

Malnutrition (especially folate deficiency)

Diabetes

Obesity

335
Q

How do you diagnose myelomeningocele or anencephaly?

A

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is measured in maternal serum

If elevated, repeat and image with ultrasound

336
Q

What are some ultrasonographic signs of fetal deformities?

A
337
Q

What are some symptoms always associated with spinal cord issues of development?

A

Bowel/bladder incontinence

Sexual dysfunction

338
Q

What is chiari?

A

Downward displacement of the cerebellar tonsils

339
Q

What are the symptoms of Chiari 2 Malformation?

A

brainstem dysfunction (apnea, cyanotic spells, dysphagia, hydrocephalus)

340
Q

What is significant about hydrocephalus in the context of Chiari 2 Malformations?

A

hydrocephalus develops after birth (2-3 weeks and present by 6 weeks)

341
Q

What are some treatment options for Chiari 2 Malformations?

A

Surgery upon delivery, protection from contamination and IV antibiotics

Monitor head circumference

Close monitoring

342
Q

What is prosencephalic development?

A

The process during which the forebrain (telencephalon and diencephalon) take shape

343
Q

What structures does the diencephalon develop into?

A

thalamus

hypothalaus

subthalamic nuclei

344
Q

What structures do the telencephalon develop into?

A

cerebral hemispheres

345
Q

What is a major defect in prosencephalic development?

A

Failure of cleavage that manifests as the absence of hemispheric separation

This can cause holoprosencephaly to a varying extent.

346
Q

What type of developmental defect is agenesis of the corpus callosum?

A

Disorder of the prosencephalic development (midline development)

Can be total or partial

Usually silent (i.e. no symptoms)

347
Q

What are some issues that affect cortical development?

A

Disorders of migration

Heterotopia (gray matter in the white matter, often around ventricles): range from asymptomatic to learning disabilities and epilepsy

Lissencephaly (no migration or overmigration)

348
Q

What is lissencephaly?

A

Disorder of migration of neurons in cortical development

Type 1 : no migration (smooth brain color)

Type 2 : over migration (erratic, cobblestone brain)

349
Q

What occurs in type 1 lissencephaly?

A

No migration of neurons. Gyral simplification

epilepsy, spastic quadriperisis, developmental delays

350
Q

What occurs in type 2 lissencephaly?

A

Over-migration of neurons

Excessive number of small cortical gyri

Developmental delay, epilepsy

351
Q

What is Dandy Walker?

A

Hydrocephalus

Sporadic or due to isoretinoid use during pregnancy

Consists of:

Hypoplasia or absence of vermis (cerebellum)

Large 4th ventricle (failure of Lushka and Magendie to open)

Elevated lateral sinuses/torcula and large posterior fossa

352
Q

What is the vermis?

A

cerebellum

353
Q

What is syringomyelia (syrinx)?

A

fluid-filled gliosis (change in glia) lined cavity within the spinal cord

Typically seen with Chiari Malformation Type 1 (CM1)

loss of abdominal reflexes

scoliosis

354
Q

What is the most common craniofacial malformation identified in newborns?

A

Cleft Lip/Palate

355
Q

Which (Cleft Lip +/- Palate, or Cleft palate) is most commonly associated with a syndrome?

A

Cleft palate (1/2)

Cleft Lip +/- Palate (1/3)

356
Q

Which craniofacial malformation has ethnic and sex predispositions?

A

Cleft Lip +/- Palate

more common in asians/native americans, least in blacks

More common in males

357
Q

How does one identify cleft lip and/or palate?

A

Transabdominal ultrasound

358
Q

What is Cerebral palsy?

A

permanent, non-progressive disorder of movement and posture that causes activity limitation

1/3 are prenatal, 1/3 are perinatal, 1/3 are unknown

359
Q

What clues lead to a diagnosis of cerebral palsy?

A

History of motor delay without loss of skills (no walking by 15 months)

Early handedness

Persisting primitive reflexes

Lack of development of protective reflexes

360
Q

What is lobar holoprosencephaly?

A

distinct hemispheres with continuity only in the most frontal regions

361
Q

What is semilobar holoprosencephaly?

A

some posterior separation but mostly fused

362
Q

What is alobar holoprosencephaly?

A

complete failure of hemispheric division with one lateral ventricle

Brain and Behavior (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions