Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Peds II > Exam 1 CV > Flashcards

Exam 1 CV Flashcards

1
Q

what tissue type is the heart mostly derived from

A

mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

when does heart development start

A

end of 3rd week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

when does the fetal heart start beating

A

during 4th week (22 days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

when does fetal blood start circulating

A

during 3rd week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

when is the “critical period of development” for fetus

A

days 20-50 after fertilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

where does heart tube development begin

A

clusters of angiogenic cells in the cardiogenic plate that coalesce to form R and L endocardial tubes..these tubes then fuse together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

when do the R and L endocardial tubes fuse

A

21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are primitive partitions of chambers (and valves) called

A

endocardial cushions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

name sections of primitive heart (before looping) from inferior to superior

A

sinus venosus, primitive atrium, primitive ventricle (inlet), bulbus cordis (outlet), truncus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

in which direction does looping proceed

A

to the right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is abnormal looping associated with

A

isomeric cardiac lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

when is the cardiac loop complete

A

by day 28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is dextrocardia the result of

A

looping goes left instead of right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is dextrocardia sometimes associated with

A

situs inversus (all organs are on opposite side)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

when does septation occur

A

during second month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the role of the septum primum

A

reduces bloodflow from right atrium to left atrium by closing the foramen primum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what happens when foramen primum is closed

A

apoptosis occurs in the septum primum and the foramen secundum is formed so that oxygenated blood can be delivered to left atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the purpose of the septum secundum

A

it overlaps the foramen secundum in order to provide a one-way valve from right atrium to left atrium so that blood only flows in that direction (foramen ovale)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

where does oxygenated blood travel from placenta

A

across foramen ovale to left atrium and out aorta; and to pulmonary vasculature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the endocardial cushion defects

A

ASD, VSD, tetralogy of fallot, transposition of great vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

when does ventricular septation begin

A

42 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how are AV valves formed

A

endocardial cushions get resorbed and invagination and dehiscence of myocardium form valves and tensor apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how are semilunar valves formed

A

ingrowth from truncal wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the “2 big issues” of the developing fetal vascular system

A

developing lungs must be bypassed, and proliferating tissue has increased oxygen demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how does oxygenated blood enter fetal circulation

A

umbilical vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the main collecting chamber for blood in fetal heart

A

sinus venosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how does blood exit fetal heart

A

pumped through aortic arches before passing through paired dorsal aortae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how are fetal tissues supplied with blood

A

efferent segmental arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how is mixed blood returned to placenta for oxygenation

A

via umbilical arteries (endpoint of dorsal aortae)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how is blood drained from developing tissues

A

via cardinal veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

where is deoxygenated blood mixed and returned to circulation

A

sinus venosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what supplies blood to yolk sac

A

vitelline arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what do vitelline arteries become

A

mesenteric arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what supplies foregut derivatives

A

celiac artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what supplies midgut derivatives

A

SMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what supplies hindgut derivatives

A

IMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what do the vitelline veins become

A

IVC, superior mesenteric vein, hepatic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

when is umbilical cord formed

A

week 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what vessels does the umbilical cord contain

A

2 arteries and 1 vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is Wharton’s jelly

A

loose, proteoglycan-rich matrix that embeds the umbilical vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what are the arterial system defects

A

PDA, coarctation, double aortic arch, vascular rings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are the venous system defects

A

double IVC or SVC, absence of IVC or SVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

when is the heart and circulatory system fully functional

A

16 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

3 major features of fetal circulation

A

maternal circulation operates via placenta and provides bloodflow to fetus
foramen ovale allows blood to shunt from right atrium to left atrium
ductus arteriosus allows deoxygenated blood to flow from pulmonary artery to aorta and to body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the purpose of the ductus arteriosus

A

to prevent circulatory overload in lungs and to allow the RV to strengthen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is the ductus venosus

A

fetal blood vessel that connects umbilical vein to IVC that carries mostly oxygenated blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

oxygen saturation of placental blood

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what happens where the ductus venosus meets the IVC

A

oxygenated blood from the ductus venosus mixes with deoxygenated blood from the body and the mixture travels through the IVC to the right atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

course of the umbilical vein

A

travels along anterior abdominal wall to liver (50% of blood enters liver, 50% bypasses liver via ductus venosus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

course of blood through fetal heart

A

most blood entering the right atrium gets shunted to left atrium via foramen ovale but a small portion enters pulmonary circulation (limited by high resistance in pulm. circulation) in order to perfuse lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

places in fetal circulation where oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix

A

liver, IVC, RA, LA, entrance of ductus arteriosus into descending aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

circulatory changes at birth

A

initial inflation of lungs reduces resistance of pulmonary bloodflow, which increases pulmonary bloodflow and therefore bloodflow into RA/RV. There is also decreased bloodflow across foramen ovale as well as increased LA pressure and decreased RA pressure, causing foramen ovale to close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is the most common malignancy of childhood

A

ALL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is the most common lab finding in ALL

A

neutropenia with decreases in at least 2 cell lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is the most common presentation of beta thalassemia major

A

normal at birth with symptoms presenting during the first year: anemia, poor growth, skeletal changes, hepatosplenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what anemias present in a newborn

A

hemolytic, maternal factors, prematurity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what anemias present in an infant/toddler

A

IDA, nutritional, blood loss, leukemia, hemolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what anemias present in a child

A

IDA, nutritional, blood loss, leukemia, malabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what anemias present in a teenager

A

blood loss, malabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

when does HSP present

A

age 2-7 (boys)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

when does vWB present

A

early childhood

62
Q

when does ALL present

A

age 2-10

63
Q

what is beta thalassemia

A

point mutation in chromosome 11 causes deficiency of beta hemoglobin chains

64
Q

inheritance of beta thalassemia

A

autosomal recessive (heterozygous = minor/asymptomatic, homozygous = intermedia or major)

65
Q

consequences of beta thalassemia

A

hemolytic anemia (pallor, fatigue, SOB), jaundice, secondary hemochromatosis (arrhythmias, pericarditis, DM, hypothyroid), chipmunk facies, crew-cut appearance on x-ray hepatosplenomegaly,

66
Q

why is presentation of beta thalassemia not until 3-6 months

A

fetal hemoglobin is still produced

67
Q

beta-thalassemia blood smear

A

microcytic hypochromic anemia with target cells

68
Q

beta thalassemia CBC/iron

A

anemia with high serum iron, ferritin, transferrin

69
Q

beta thalassemia confirmatory testing

A

hemoglobin electrophoresis (Low HbA, increased HbF/HbA2)

70
Q

beta thalassemia treatment

A

blood transfusions with iron chelation, splenectomy

71
Q

sickle cell inheritance

A

autosomal recessive

72
Q

what causes sickle cell crisis

A

acidosis, hypoxia, dehydration

73
Q

consequences of sickle cell crisis

A

vaso-occlusion, hemolysis (intravascular and extravascular)

74
Q

left-to-right shunt conditions are ___

A

acyanotic

75
Q

left-to-right shunt conditions

A

ASD, VSD, PDA

76
Q

right-to-left shunt conditions are ___

A

cyanotic

77
Q

right-to-left shunt conditions

A

tetralogy of fallot, transposition of great arteries

78
Q

obstructive stenotic lesion

A

coarctation of aorta

79
Q

the most important clinical feature of left-to-right shut conditions is

A

respiratory distress

80
Q

murmur of ASD

A

systolic at L upper sternal border, mid-diastolic at left lower sternal border

81
Q

S1/S2 of ASD

A

wide split S2, fixed

82
Q

physical finding of ASD

A

RV heave

83
Q

ASD symptoms

A

usually asymptomatic

84
Q

chest XR ASD

A

cardiomegaly, enlarged RA/pulmonary arteries, increased vascular markings

85
Q

EKG ASD

A

RVH, right axis deviation

86
Q

ASD treatment

A

potentially catheterization repair after 3 y/o

87
Q

small VSD

A

asymptomatic with loud murmur

88
Q

VSD symptoms

A

poor growth, poor exercise tolerance, pulmonary infections

89
Q

VSD murmur

A

pansystolic, harsh at lower left sternal border with possible thrill

90
Q

large VSD murmur

A

diastolic at apex

91
Q

chest XR VSD

A

can be normal, or: LVH, RVH, LAH, pulm arteries enlarged, increased vascular markings

92
Q

EKG VSD

A

normal or LVH/LAH

93
Q

VSD treatment

A

ACE inhibitors, diuretics, nutrition until catheterization repair at < 1 y/o

94
Q

PDA small defect

A

asymptomatic

95
Q

PDA ssx

A

poor growth, decreased exercise tolerance, pulmonary infections

96
Q

PDA murmur

A

continuous, machine-like LUSB

97
Q

PDA pulses

A

bounding

98
Q

PDA CXR

A

normal, or full pulm arteries silhouette with increased vascular markings

99
Q

PDA EKG

A

normal or LVH, and poss. RVH

100
Q

treatment for PDA in premature infants

A

IV indomethacin and diuretics

101
Q

surgical correction for PDA age

A

symptomatic < 6 months, asymptomatic 6-12 months

102
Q

most important feature of right-left shunt is

A

cyanosis

103
Q

elements of tetralogy of fallot

A

RV outlet obstruction (pulmonary stenosis), overriding aorta, large VSD, RV hypertrophy

104
Q

symptoms of tetralogy of fallot are determined by:

A

degree of pulmonary stenosis

105
Q

symptoms of tetralogy of fallot with mild PS

A

mild SOB on exertion, mild fatigue, minimal cyanosis

106
Q

ssx of tetralogy with severe PS

A

deeply cyanotic (w/o SOB), tet spells

107
Q

onset of tet spells

A

resltess/agitated/crying

108
Q

progression of tet spells

A

squatting, hyperpnea, increasing cyanosis, loss of murmur

109
Q

severe tet spells

A

LOC, seizures, death, hemiparesis

110
Q

tetralogy heart sounds

A

pulmonary stenosis murmur, single S2, RV impulse left sternal border

111
Q

CXR tetralogy

A

boot-shaped heart, enlarged heart with upturned apex from RVH, absent main pulm. artery silhouette

112
Q

EKG tetralogy

A

right axis deviation, RVH

113
Q

treatment of tetralogy

A

surgical repair

114
Q

sequelae post-treatment of tetralogy

A

after many years, symptoms may return. Exercise restrictions, endocarditis prophylaxis, antiarrhythmics, further surgeries, pacemaker

115
Q

treatment of tet spell

A
  1. increase venous return (knee-chest), 2. increase systemic vascular tone (phenylephrine), 3. increased fluid volume (IV) 4. decrease pulm vascular tone and increase venous return to RA (oxygen, morphine, correct acidosis)
116
Q

newborn treatment of tetralogy

A

PGE1 to maintain patency of PDA

117
Q

ssx of coarctation

A

upper extremity BP>lower extremity BP, CHF symptoms, systolic murmur, cyanosis in infant, absent or diminished LE pulses

118
Q

CXR coarctation

A

rib notching and figure 3 sign

119
Q

murmur of coarctation

A

blowing systolic that radiates to back, scapula or axilla

120
Q

coarctation treatment

A

PGE1 and surgical correction

121
Q

2nd most common form of congenital cyanotic heart disease

A

Transposition

122
Q

transposition characteristics

A

tachypnea develops over time, no improvement in cyanosis with O2, cyanosis without SOB, single S2, loud systolic murmur

123
Q

CXR transposition

A

narrow superior mediastinum, increased pulm vascularity, “egg on a spoon”

124
Q

EKG transposition

A

RVH, right axis deviation

125
Q

transposition treatment

A

PGE1 and repair within 2 weeks

126
Q

innocent pediatrics murmurs

A

stills murmur, cervical venous hum, innocent pulmonary flow murmur

127
Q

characteristics of still’s murmur

A

systolic, LLSB, “musical” “vibratory,” school-aged child, diminishes with sitting, standing, inspiration

128
Q

most common innocent murmur

A

still’s murmur

129
Q

pulmonary flow murmur cause

A

normal bloodflow across pulmonary valve

130
Q

pulmonary flow murmur characteristics

A

systolic, LUSB, low-pitched, older children, diminishes with sitting, standing, inspiration

131
Q

venous hum murmur characteristics

A

only heart in sitting position. Continuous, right infraclavicular, low-pitched, machinery-like, any age, disappears when supine or pressure on JV

132
Q

characteristics of suspicious murmurs

A

diastolic, holosystolic, loud (3 or higher), harsh, wide/fixed S2 split, clicks, snaps, rubs, remains when supine or pressure on JV

133
Q

murmur of ASD characteristics

A

systolic, LUSB or LLSB, grade 1-3, RV heave with fixed split S2

134
Q

murmur of VSD characteristics

A

middiastolic, pansystolic, LLSB or apex, can be loud with poss. thrill

135
Q

murmur of PDA characteristics

A

continuous, machine like, persists when supine

136
Q

tetralogy murmur characteristics

A

pansystolic, LUSB or mid LSB, harsh, loud, crescendo-decrescendo, single S2, right heave, thrill, possible click

137
Q

what is the most common pediatric cardiomyopathy

A

dilated

138
Q

dilated cardiomyopathy ekg

A

ST-depression and inverted T-waves

139
Q

dilated cardiomyopathy treatment

A

reduce afterload, diuretics, thrombolytics, antiarrhythmics, treat underlying causes, transplat

140
Q

most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

141
Q

treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

decrease LV outflow obstruction, decrease O2 demand, decrease heart rate, exercise restriction, surgery

142
Q

etiology of long QT syndrome

A

usually congenital

143
Q

consequences of long QT syndrome

A

palpitations, bradycardia, syncope, seizures, SIDS, sudden death

144
Q

diagnosis of long QT syndrome

A

ECG/holter monitor

145
Q

treatment of long QT syndrome

A

beta blockers (propranolol/nadolol), exercise restriction, correct underlying causes

146
Q

most important part of cardiac physical exam

A

observation

147
Q

what to use to feel pulsations

A

fingertips

148
Q

what to use to feel thrills

A

base of fingers

149
Q

what to use to feel heaves

A

base of hand

150
Q

hepatomegaly in neonate size

A

at or over 3.5 cm

151
Q

hepatomegaly in child size

A

at or over 2 cm

152
Q

splenomegaly size

A

over 2 cm

Peds II (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions