Exam 1 Content Flashcards

(326 cards)

1
Q

4 Basic Tissue Types:

A

-epithelial
-muscle
-connective
-nervous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

_ Tissue covers most internal and external surfaces of the body.

A

Epithelial Tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The epithelial tissue connects to the _ membrane AKA _ matrix

A

basement membrane, extracellular matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

4 functions of epithelial tissue:

A

-protection
-secretion
-absorption
-excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does the extracellular matrix of epithelial tissue do?

A

separates epithelial cells from connective tissue; smaller membrane surrounding many cells (opposite of connective tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Are all epithelial cells uniform?

A

no, differ by location/function
ex) some are smooth, some have villi etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the overall purpose of connective tissue

A

framework on which epithelial tissue clusters form organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

4 functions of connective tissue:

A

-binding
-support
-anchoring for organs
-storage site for excess nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is extracellular matrix of connective tissue made of?

A

ground substances and fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the properties of the extracellular matrix of connective tissues?

A

abundant matrix surrounding just a few cells, opposite of epithelial tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How connective tissue is classified:

A

consistency of ground substance and type of organization of its fibers within
-ex) loose vs dense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

5 classifications of connective tissue

A

-cartilage
-bone
-vascular connective tissue
-adipose tissue
-blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where is cartilage found, what is its purpose

A

long bone, nose, trachea, larynx etc
-flexibility and support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Purpose of bone:

A

-support
-protection
-muscle attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where is vascular connective tissue found and what is its purpose?

A

blood vessels
-transports O2, CO2, immune response and clotting factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where is adipose tissue found, what is its purpose?

A

deepest layers of skin, around heart and kidneys,
-padding of joints, paracrine hormones, support, protection, heat conservation, energy source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What kind of connective tissue is blood?

A

-liquid connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Organization of body

A

-cells
-tissue
-organs
-organ systems
-organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Tissue regulation: autocrine

A

signals itself/ regulates itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tissue Regulation: paracrine

A

targets adjacent cells
Ex) N2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Negative feedback function:

A

-promotes stability and resists/opposes change; can be increase or decrease in something to bring balance
-ex) what sweat glands do with high body temp; heart rate and BP responding to each other (baroreceptors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Feedback control: Sensor refers to:

A

regulator, input, or afferent; senses change in system
ex) nerve cells sensing something, anxiety, high glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Feedback control: Control refers to the:

A

control center, regulatory system; guides/directs the responding change
ex) CNS/ brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Feedback control: Effector refers to:

A

output, motor pathway, efferent; acts out the responding change
ex) sweat glands, kidneys, heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Feed Forward function:
tries to prevent negative feedback change, anticipatory ex) test anxiety
26
Positive Feedback function:
not as common and often temporary, promotes change in ONE direction for specific cause, causes instability ex) increasing cx until childbirth; coagulation cascade (altho the clot itself is a negative feedback to stop bleed)
27
Pathology happens when _ feedback fails.
negative
28
Muscle tissue is made of _ which are highly contractile
MYOCYTES
29
3 types of muscle tissue
-smooth -cardiac -skeletal
30
Purpose of skeletal muscle
movement
31
Purpose of cardiac muscle
contraction
32
Purpose of smooth muscle and where is it found?
propulsion of material -GI tract, uterus, bladder, vessels
33
Purpose of nervous system:
communication -delivers signals from outside brain and SC
34
Nervous system is made of:
neurons and synapses
35
Homeostasis fails because of (2 items)
-failure to compensate -failure to recognize need to compensate
36
Fluid compartments (2 type)
ECF ~33% ICF ~67%
37
ECF is made of (2 items)
-ISF(interstitial fluid) ~26% -plasma ~7%
38
Most water in body is found in:
ICF
39
When the body fluid compartment is dehydrated, water is pulled first from:
plasma (ECF)
40
What are neurons:
basic building blocks of nervous system, send and receive electric impulses across synapses
41
What are synapses:
gaps between neurons; impulses pass between neuron-neuron gaps or neuron-muscle gaps when NTs are relaeased
42
Anatomy of neuron:
-cell body -single axon (long, conduct impulse away from neuron) -one or more dendrites (long, conduct impulses to neuron)
43
Disruption of homeostasis=
disease or pathology
44
Homeostatic trade off refers to:
less crucial functions can be traded off so that vital functions can continue -ex) blood being pulled from extremities to organs when BP low, anemic, etc
45
Rough ER function:
protein synthesis (ribosomes, proteins)
46
Smooth ER function:
lipid synthesis (phospholipids, cholesterol)
47
Golgi Apparatus function:
stores ER vesicles from rough ER and processes/modifies them into substances and sorts them out (like UPS of cell)
48
Mitochondria function:
powerhouse, makes ATP
49
Nucleus function:
control center, sends messages thru cell and contains DNA
50
Lysosome function:
garbage disposal, contains digestive enzymes PATHOPHYSIOLOGY: Tay-Sach's syndrome
51
Ribosome funciton:
assembles proteins on it
52
Peroxisome function:
oxidizes substances like alcohol and hydrogen peroxide -self replicates and contains oxidase
53
Organic Molecule: carbohydrate (subunit, function)
subunit: glucose polysacch>disacch>monosacch -important in immune reaction and cell-cell attachments
54
Organic Molecule: Lipids (3 subunits)
-triglycerides -phospholipids -sterols (steroids)
55
Plasma Membrane is made of
phospholipid bilayer
56
Tail of phospholipid bilayer:
hyprophobic
57
Head of phospholipid bilayer:
hydrophillic
58
Steroids are made of:
cholesterol
59
How does cholesterol affect the cell membrane:
increases membrane flexibility and stability
60
Organic Molecules: Proteins (3 subunits)
-amino acids
61
2 types of proteins:
integral and peripheral
62
Integral protein
permanently attached to biological membrane -channels, pores, carriers, enzymes
63
Peripheral protein:
enzymes, intercellular signal mediators
64
Organic Molecule: Nucleic acid (subunit):
subunits: nucleotide -make up DNA/RNA
65
Chromatin:
less condensed DNA; proteins and histones
66
What general reaction creates energy in the cell?
ATP hydrolysis
67
Steps of ATP creation:
-CATABOLISM of carbs into glucose, protein into amino acids, and fat into fatty acids -glucose, AA, and FA are processed into Acetyl CoA -Acetyl CoA react with O2 to yeild ATP
68
What makes energy ATP or ATP hydrolysis?
-ATP hydrolysis because ATP is broken down into ADP when H2O is added
69
Are fuel metabolism reactions reversible?
most are reversible
70
Anaerobic metabolism:
glucose undergoes glycolysis to make 2 ATP without using O2
71
Where does glycolysis occur?
cytoplasm
72
Aerobic metabolism:
metabolism with respiration of O2, occurs in mitochondria and yields 38 ATP
73
Glucose is stored as _ and excess becomes _.
glycogen, fat
74
Which is used as energy source first, glycogen or fat?
glycogen
75
What happens to fat in anaerobic metabolism?
glycerol is metabolized via glycolysis to make 2 ATP
76
What happens to fat in aerobic metabolism?
FA produce 38 ATP with respiration of O2
77
How are proteins metabolized for fuel?
broken down into amino acids and are used in Kreb's cycle
78
Where does transcription happen?
inside nucleus
79
Process of DNA transcription:
-RNA polymerase binds with promoter at start of gene -ends when RNA polymerase reaches terminating sequence
80
Which enzyme is used in DNA transcription?
RNA polymerase
81
What does DNA transcription yeild?
DNA ->mRNA
82
Where in the gene are promotors located?
beginning of gene sequence
83
What is microRNA and its function
-regulates gene expression, can suppress transLATION process
84
Where does translation(protein synthesis) happen?
inside cytoplasm
85
What does transcription produce?
proteins -mRNA
86
What is the process of translation?
-mRNA in cytoplasm attaches to ribosome -ribosome bonds between AA on tRNA making protein chain -protein chain grows until ribosome reaches end point
87
Proteins are made of:
AA linked together by PEPTIDE bonds
88
Enzyme required for DNA/cell replication:
RNA polymerase
89
**(is this a typo?)Which phase is RNA polymerase used in?
Interphase - S phase
90
Uses of ATP (3 items)
-membrane transport -synthesis of chemical compounds -mechanical movement
91
Cilia
hairlike projections extending from plasma membrane used for locomotion
92
Oncogenes:
genes that are cancerous
93
Genome:
all the DNA in one cell of an organism; humans are 99% same in coding regions
94
Proteome:
full range of proteins made by the genome; -10K proteins per cell or 15% of total gene products
95
miRNA
RNA interference molecule that targets specific mRNAs
96
Causes of gene mutation:
-ionizing radiation (xray, CT scans) -chemicals -physical irritants -hereditary
97
Proto-oncogenes:
normal genes that stimulate normal cell growth/division but become cancerous after mutation
98
Anti-oncogenes
tumor suppressor genes
99
Impact of genomics/genetics on pathophysiology:
nature vs nuture; study genes to see how they influence diseases
100
How does cancer kill people?
competes with rest of body for nutrients and takes them all resulting in death, uncontrolled cell growth/division
101
What is a gene?
section of DNA that codes for a polypeptide
102
DNA replication occurs in:
the nucleus
103
What is Down's Syndrome?
Trisomy 21, autosomal aneuploidy; 3 chromosomes on 21st chromosome instead of 2 pair normally
104
Example of pathological autosomal aneuploidy?
Downs syndrome/ Trisomy 21
105
Autosome:
any chromosome that ISN'T a sex chromosome
106
Sex Chromosome:
X or Y, determines sex
107
Does X-linked Recessive inheritance affect boys or girls more?
boys; only have 1 X chromosome
108
Can a father give his son a X-linked recessive inheritance?
No, they can only give the Y chromosome
109
If a father has X-linked recessive trait will his daughter automatically receive it?
yes, there is only one (bad) X chromosome to give
110
Example of X-linked Recessive Trait?
Duchene's Muscular Dystrophy-damages muscle cells from ages 3-5yo; most common and most severe :(
111
Which genes are impaired for Type 1 DM?
insulin genes
112
Which genes are impaired for Type 2 DM?
PPAR-y and glucokinase genes
113
Which genes are impairs for breast cancer?
BRCA2 (chromosome 13) and BRCA1 (chromosome 17)
114
Is breast cancer recessive or dominant?
Autosomal DOMINANT
115
If someone has a mutated gene will it always be expressed?
No, depends on environmental factors as well
116
What is epigenetics?
the study of changes in organisms caused by modification of gene expression rather than alteration of the genetic code itself; it is reversible
117
What is DNA methylation?
addition of methyl groups (-CH3) to certain positions on the nitrogenous bases on the nucleotide; causes deacetylation and SILENCES DNA
118
What does DNA methylation do?
methyl group attaches to DNA encoding a gene -SILENCES DNA expression
119
What is acetylation of histones?
attaching acetyl group to a histone component of lysines on nucleosomes causing GREATER DNA expression (unwinds which makes it easier to express)
120
What is deacetylation of histones?
chemical alteration of a histone that results in SILENCED expression (coils which makes it harder to express)
121
How does a proto-oncogene become an oncogene?
-tumor suppressor gene is hypermethylated and deacetylation occurs - this causes oncogene to be hypomethylated and acetylation occurs
122
What is genomic imprinting?
The silencing of a gene that is 'stamped' with an imprint during gamete production
123
What can readily enter the phospholipid bilayer?
-Water (thru PORES on hydrophobic membrane) -urea -lipids and lipid-solubles -CO2 and O2 -non-polar molecules
124
What CANNOT readily enter the phospholipid bilayer?
-ions (Cl-, K+, Na+) -glucose -amino acids -large molecules -polar molecules (except water)
125
What does the ECF contain more of:
-Na+ -Ca++ -Cl- -HCO3- -glucose -PO2 (pH is HIGHER)
126
What does the ICF contain more of:
-K+ -Mg++ -Phosphates -SO4-- -AAs -Lipids -PCO2 -Proteins (pH is LOWER)
127
What is protein conformation?
Protein changes shape when binding with a messenger protein
128
Why is DNA wrapped around histones?
Negatively charged sugar-phosphate backbone wraps around positively charged histones
129
What happens when your diet is protein deficient?
Your body cannot produce proteins; it uses the amino acids from your diet
130
What is the process (general) of creating a protein (beginning from codons)?
Codon > Anti Codon > Amino Acid > Protein
131
In general, what is replication and what is transcription?
Replication - Unwinding DNA, making a duplicate cell (more DNA) Transcription - Unwinding DNA, making proteins (RNA)
132
What is the process of genes becoming proteins (starting from pre-mRNA)?
-in nucleus pre-mRNA is formed -introns are removed and extrons are expressed creating mRNA -mRNA moves to the cytoplasm where it attaches to a ribosome and tRNA begins the translation process
133
What is expressed, and what is removed in a protein?
Introns removed, extrons expressed
134
What is a karyotype?
the number and visual appearance of the chromosomes in the cell nuclei of an organism or species.
135
What is a gamete?
a mature haploid male or female germ cell that is able to unite with another of the opposite sex in sexual reproduction forming a zygote
136
What is meiosis?
cell division that makes 4 daughter cells each with half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell, producing gametes
137
What is a euploid?
'Good polidy' - i.e. the normal amount of chromosomes for a species E.g. Humans have 46
138
What is polyploidy? What is the survival rate?
condition in which an organism has extra PAIRS of chromosomes; 0%
139
What is aneuploidy? What is a common cause?
the presence of an abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell; non-disjunction
140
What is monosomy?
missing a chromosome
141
What is Turner's Syndrome?
A chromosomal disorder in which a female is born with only one X chromosome; 45 total chromosomes
142
Example of monosomy:
Turner's syndrome (only one X chromosome in females) 45 total chromosomes
143
What is Kleinfelter's?
Individuals will have at least 1Y and 2X's, but can have more than 2X's, can also have extra Y's. e.g. XXXY, XXYY
144
Example of aneuploidy?
Kleinfelter's ,Down's Syndrome
145
What are some causes of abnormal chromosome structure?
Deletion Duplication Inversion Translocation Chromosome Breakage
146
What increases risk for genetic disorders?
Family link - the closer the relative the higher the risk Also depends on the proband region of the gene
147
What is a chromatid?
one half of a duplicated chromosome
148
What is a chromosome?
A coiled up piece of DNA that has genes that code for traits.
149
What is hypermethylation in DNAs?
silences DNA!
150
What is hypomethylation in DNA?
expressed DNA
151
What is HDAC(histone deacetylase inhibitor) inhibition? What does it do?
prevents the process of deacetylation, thereby increasing acetylation which promotes expression
152
What are siRNAs and what is their function?
small double stranded pieces of RNA; block translation or degrade mRNA
153
What happens when genomic imprinting goes wrong?
Prader-Willi / Angelman Syndrome
154
What are the two transport proteins?
Channels & Carriers
155
What is the main property of carrier proteins?
Conformational (can change shape)
156
What is passive transport?
The movement of materials across the cell membrane without using cellular energy
157
What is active transport?
the movement of ions or molecules across a cell membrane into a region of higher concentration, assisted by enzymes and requiring energy
158
What is simple diffusion? What does it utilize?
when molecules spread from an area of high to an area of low concentration; uses ion channels-no ATP
159
What is facilitated diffusion?
Movement of specific molecules across cell membranes through protein channels
160
What does facilitated diffusion utilize?
protein channels via carrier proteins, no ATP use
161
What limits facilitated diffusion?
VMax, i.e. when all carrier proteins are occupied
162
What does active transport utilize:
carrier proteins assisted by enzymes and requiring ATP
163
What are the two types of active transport? How do they differ?
Primary & Secondary Primary - Uses ATP to activate carrier protein Secondary - Indirectly uses ATP e.g. glucose entering as sodium enters (sodium most leave using the K/Na+ pump which utilizes ATP)
164
What is the process of action potential?
1. Resting state of ~ -70mV 2. Threshold of activation is reached (~ -50mV) 3. Action potential occurs (sodium influx, cell becomes slightly positive due to it ~ +30mV) 4. Depolarization (Because the inside of the cell and outside of the cell are both positive, polarity is lost) 5. Repolarization (K+/Na+ pump activates to force Na+ out and and bring K+ in at a ratio of 2K to 3Na, resulting in a net negative charge within the cell)
165
What is secondary active transport?
the use of the electrochemical gradient of one molecule to move a second molecule e.g. using Na+ to move glucose
166
What is an ungated ion channel?
A channel that determines transport based on size, shape, and charge of the ion
167
What is a gated ion channel?
Gates that must reach certain voltage, or must be activated with the correct chemical before opening
168
What is saturation with regards to facilitated diffusion?
When all gates or proteins are being utilized, thus reaching maximum capacity. It limits how much can be diffused at once via facilitated diffusion.
169
What is osmosis?
diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane, from low solute to high solute
170
What must be present for osmosis to occur?
Osmotically active solutes
171
How to calculate osmolality?
Take the chemical substance, separate it by ion and multiply by # of moles. E.g. 2 moles NaCl --> Na + Cl 2 moles of Na + 2 moles of Cl = 4 osmoles
172
What is tonicity?
The # of non-permeable solute in a solution; relative concentration of electrolytes on either side of the cell membrane that are NONpermeable
173
What is hypertonic, hypotonic, isotonic?
Hypertonic --> more non-permeable solutes Hypotonic --> less non-permeable solutes Isotonic --> same #
174
What is membrane potential?
a voltage or electrical charge across the plasma membrane
175
What is a symporter?
an integral carrier protein that transports 2 positive charged molecules in the same direction
176
What is an antiporter?
an integral carrier protein that transports multiple solutes in opposite direction
177
How do cardiac glycosides/digoxin work?
Inhibit Na/K ATPase which leads to indirect inhibition of Na/Ca exchange -Na not pumped out of cell so there's not enough Na outside of the cell to be exchanged in for Ca out -MORE CA IN CELL causes increased Ca means INCREASED cardiac contractility
178
What does osmotically active mean?
It means a solute is non-permeable; if a solute is permeable osmosis would not occur
179
What is molarity?
Amount of solute in 1L solution (volume)
180
What is molality?
Amount of solute per 1 kg (weight)
181
What is osmolarity?
Amount of osmoles per 1L of solution (volume)
182
What is an osmole?
the number of particles into which a solute dissociates in solution e.g. NaCl breaks into Na+ Cl-
183
What is osmolality?
Amount of osmoles per 1 kg of solution (weight)
184
What is osmotic pressure?
The amount of pressure required to stop the osmotic flow of water
185
What is a major determinant in osmotic pressure?
The concentration (and weight) of the solutes
186
A cell in a hypertonic solution will:
shrink
187
A cell in a hypotonic solution will:
burst/swell
188
A cell in an isotonic solution will:
stay the same
189
Osmolality of plasma:
mOsm/L
190
Osmolality of a cell:
~ 275-299 mOsm/L
191
What are leak channels?
Always open! But they are not open to all ions. They are very specific per ion.
192
Why is potassium a major determinant in resting cell charge?
Leak channels allow it to pass through easily
193
Nerst Equation:
E ion= 61/Zlog ([concentration out]/ [concentration in])
194
RMP voltage:
-70mV
195
Voltage of K+ in Nerst Equation:
-94mV
196
Voltage of Na+ in Nerst Equation:
+61mV
197
What is the Goldman-Hodgkin-Katz equation?
An equation that states that the resting membrane potential is the closest to equilibrium potential of the ion that has the highest permeability
198
How does hyperkalemia affect RMP?
More K+ outside, cell becomes more negative inside (due to reduced leaking of K) --> less excitable
199
What is excitability?
how easy it is to start an action potential increases with positive charge
200
What is threshold?
the minimum voltage needed to start an action potential
201
What is depolarization?
the inside of the membrane becomes less negative (more positive) due to influx of Na+ ions into cell
202
What is repolarization?
return to resting potential; Na+ gates close and K+ gates open
203
What is hyperpolarization?
Hyperpolarization refers to a state where the potential across the membrane is more negative than the resting potential
204
What does it mean when action potential is an all or none event?
if the threshold is achieved the action potential is conducted the entire length of the neuron, if not, nothing happens
205
Why is myelin important?
-It speeds up signal conduction in the nerve fiber. -It is formed to assist in the regeneration of damaged fibers. -It insulates the nerve fiber.
206
What is an absolute refractory period?
Time from the opening of the Na+ activation gates until the closing of inactivation gates. Prevents the neuron from generating an action potential. Ensures that each action potential is separate. Enforces one way transmission of nerve impulses.
207
What is a relative refractory period?
The interval following the absolute refractory period when sodium gates are closed, potassium gates are open, repolarization is occuring. The threshold level is elevated, allowing STRONG stimuli to increase the frequency of action potential events.
208
What forms the myelin sheath?
Schwann Cells, found in PNS, not CNS
209
What is a Node of Ranvier?
nodes that interrupt the sheath every 1-3mm allowing for jumping of signals (faster signals)
210
Why can't CNS regenerate?
No Schwann Cells, no regen. only found in PNS
211
What is an excitatory synapse?
a synapse in which an action potential in a presynaptic neuron increases the probability of an action potential occurring in a postsynaptic cell Makes inside cell positive
212
What is an inhibitory synapse?
synapse at which a neurotransmitter causes the receiving cell to stop firing Makes inside cell negative
213
What is a graded potential?
Strength of stimulus determines response, greatest impact at point of stimulus, multiple potentials can build on each other for a sum effect
214
What is a subthreshold potential charge?
A graded charge that exhibits summation, but does not achieve action potential
215
What is excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)?
any voltage change TOWARDS the direction of threshold that makes a neuron more likely to fire
216
What is Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potential (IPSP)?
graded hyperpolarization of postsynaptic membrane farther from AP threshold-less likely to fire -does this by OPENING Cl- channels allowing hyperpolarization
217
What is an inhibitory ligand?
Molecules that inhibit action potential depending on which channels they open
218
What is an excitatory ligand?
molecules that increase action potential depending on which channel they open
219
How does an action potential happen?
1. Cell is resting with -70 mV RMV 2. Threshold is reached (e.g. -55 mV) 3. Sodium channels open and influx of sodium ions occur --> move towards positive charge inside the cell (Depolarization) 4. The positive charge inside the cell causes K+ gates to open, thus making the cell more negative as K+ ions leave (repolarization) 5. Hyperpolarization occurs as the channels return to their resting state (-90 mV) 6. RMV is achieved again (-70 mV)
220
What is action potential?
the change in electrical potential associated with the passage of an impulse along the membrane of a muscle cell or nerve cell.
221
What is propagation of AP?
When an action potential is passed from one portion of an excitable membrane to other directions until the entire membrane is excited
222
What is an oligodendrocyte?
a cell that has cytoplasmic extensions that can surround multiple axons compared to just one (found in CNS)
223
How does diameter affect transmission rate of an AP?
Larger diameter, faster transmission
224
How does myelination affect the current of a neuronal cell?
Contains it inside and speeds up transmission
225
What are the two types of graded action potential?
EPSP IPSP
226
How does botulin toxin affect AP?
Prevents release of ACh from presynaptic terminals
227
How do curariform drugs affect action potential?
Blocks nicotinic ACh channels by competing for receptor sites, reduces end-plate potential
228
How does nicotine mimic ACh?
Not destroyed by AChE
229
What does neostigmine do?
Prolongs the effects of ACh by inhibiting enzymes
230
Where is ACh secreted?
Motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscle
231
Where is ACh synthesized?
Presynaptic terminal, made from acetyl CoA and choline with the enzyme choline acetyltransferase
232
Neuronal action potential vs ventricular action potential
Ventricular AP is longer than neuronal Neuronal depolarization is caused by sodium channels Ventricular AP utilizes many channels (Na+, Ca++, others)
233
What are myofibrils?
bundles of thick and thin myofilaments that run the length of a fiber
234
What are thick filaments?
myosin, myosin heads
235
What are thin filaments?
actin, troponin and tropomyosin
236
Where do actin attach?
Z-discs
237
What is a sarcomere?
portion of myofibril from z-disc to z-disc
238
What is the sarcolemma?
muscle cell membrane
239
What are the bands of the sarcomere?
H band, I band, Z band, A band, M band (HIZAM)
240
A band dark or light? Does it move during contraction?
dark, no
241
I band dark or light? Does it move during contraction?
light, yes
242
What is titin?
elastic protein, keeps thick and thin filaments aligned (passive stretching/tension) to Z-disc allowing for elastic recoil of muscle fibers
243
What is an antagonist muscle?
a muscle that relaxes during joint movement
244
What is tropomyosin?
It is a long, fibrous protein that winds around the actin polymer, blocking all the myosin-binding sites.
245
What is troponin?
a regulatory protein that moves tropomyosin aside & exposes myosin binding sites when Ca+ is released during muscle contraction
246
What is F actin?
Filamentous actin, made up of two strands of G-actin (globular) monomers ADP is bound to each G-actin site
247
Titin protein provides what for skeletal muscle?
passive stretch
248
What is in the I-band?
actin filaments
249
What is in the H-zone?
myosin only
250
What is in the M line?
middle sarcomere (contains myosin)
251
What is in the A bands?
Connection of actin and myosin filaments (cross-bridge)
252
What is in the Z-disc?
It is protein (different than actin or myosin) that holds the thin filament in place
253
What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
the endoplasmic reticulum of a muscle cell Surrounds myofibrils, located in the sarcoplasm Regulates Ca++ (storage, uptake, release) Rapidly contracting muscles have extensive SRs
254
What two things need to happen in order for myosin to be ready for movement?
Ca++ to allow actin sites to be uncovered and bound to ATP to "cock" the head and prepare to be bound to a new site
255
What are the stages of the walk-along theory?
Myosin heads attach to the actin and tilt, which pulls the actin filaments. This happens repeatedly to cause muscle contraction. 1. Before contraction, ATP binds to myosin head 2. ATPase on the myosin head breaks down ATP into ADP which allows the myosin head to extend 3. Ca++ ions bind with troponin to expose actin sites 4. Myosin head binds to actin 5. Power stroke occurs as myosin tilts towards the arm of the crossbridge (contraction) 6. Tilting causes the ADP + Pi to be released, new ATP attaches to myosin allowing it to release itself from actin 7. Process starts over
256
How can we measure active tension?
Passive tension + Total tension
257
Where is optimum length of sarcomere for contraction?
2.2mm Maximum contraction is gained at that point
258
Is muscle contraction concentric?
yes
259
What isotonic contraction?
-Contraction with a change in length but no change in tension -Begins when internal tension builds builds to where it overcomes resistance -Muscle shortens, moves the load, and maintains same tension from then on
260
Can isotonic contraction become isometric?
yes
261
What is isometric contraction?
-Contraction without a change in length -Isometric contraction of antagonistic muscles at a single joint is important in maintaining joint stability at rest -Keeps body from sinking into a heap to the floor
262
How does muscle contraction occur?
Sliding filament mechanism
263
When is muscle contraction maximized?
When it is at optimum overlap of thin and thick filaments (at rest)
264
Cardiac muscle operates at lengths below optimal length? T/F
true
265
What are some attributes of Type II skeletal muscle/white muscle?
Larger Faster Glycolysis for ATP (short/quick process) Few capillaries, few myoglobin, has more glycolic enzymes for glycolysis extensive SR, innervated by larger nerve fibers
266
What are some attributes of Type I skeletal muscle/ red muscle?
smaller Shorter Oxidative phosphorylation for ATP (long process) Lots of capillaries --> lots of myoglobin Endurance but a bit slower innervated by smaller muscle fibers
267
What is a motor unit?
A motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it innervates
268
Can a motor neuron innervate more than one muscle fiber?
yes
269
Can a muscle fiber be innervated by more than one motor neuron?
no
270
What is the role of Vmax ATPase in speed of contraction?
High Vmax - Fast shortening Low Vmax - Slow shortening
271
Can one type of muscle fiber become the other type?
yes
272
What are the three phases of muscle contraction?
latent, contraction, relaxation
273
What is tetany?
Non-stop muscle contractions without rest
274
What is myoglobin?
A protein that holds a reserve supply of oxygen in muscle cells
275
What is tetanic contraction?
APs are continuisly activated to hold mucle contraction, does not happen in cardiac APs
276
What is hypertrophy of muscle?
Increase in muscle mass More actin and myosin Muscle growth from heavy training it increase diameter of muscle fibers, number of myofibrils and mitochondria and glycogen reserves physiologic - muscle growth with exercise compensatory - enlargement of remaining organ tissue once a portion has been excised pathologic - results from disease conditions and can be compensatory (e.g. heart disease)
277
What is force summation?
Increased contractility due to additive effects of a single fiber contracting
278
What is multiple fiber summation?
increasing the number of motor units contracting simultaneously, thereby increasing contractility
279
What is frequency summation?
addition of multiple simple twitches before the muscle has an opportunity to fully relax (tetany)
280
What causes tone in muscles?
Constant state of partial tension
281
What increases tone in muscles?
regular exercise!!
282
What are flaccid muscles?
Muscles without tone, caused by atrophy and destroyed nerve connections
283
What is muscle hyperplasia?
Muscle growth due to an increase in number of muscle fibers/cells NOT abnormally Compensatory - Organs regenerating Hormonal - estrogen dependent organs like the uterus and breast e.g. after pregnancy endometrium grows and thickens to prepare for reception of ovum Pathologic - Endometrial hyperplasia that results in excessive bleeding (too much growth)
284
What is atrophy of muscle?
Decrease in total muscle mass Less contractile proteins Less maximum velocity Less maximum force Loss of fibers physiologic - thymus cells shrink in early childhood pathologic - brain cells shrink with age and stress
285
How does atrophy with fiber loss occur? What happens to the lost fibers?
Happens with disuse of 1-2 years Very difficult to replace lost fibers
286
what is the process of muscle contraction?
1. AP from motor neuron to skeletal muscle releases ACh into the synapse between the motor neuron and skeletal muscle (NMJ) 2. ACh vesicle released 3. ACh binds to receptor on sarcolemma causing Na+ influx, generating an AP 4. AP travels through T-Tubules allowing Ca++ channels to open and release into the cytoplasm 5. Ca++ combines to troponin to activate the actin-myosin binding sites and crossbridges between actin and myosin 6. ATP is hydrolyzed to provide energy for myosin heads 7. Flexion brings actin closer to the middle of the sarcomere, shortening and contraction occurs 8. Another ATP is used to pump Ca++ back into the SR to start relaxation
287
Where is the NMJ?
Motor end plate
288
How do muscle hypertrophy and hyperplasia affect tension?
Increased force, no change to maximum velocity or shortening
289
What terminates the muscle contraction?
The release of acetylcholine stops and an enzyme produced at the axon terminal destroys any of the remaining acetylcholine (AChE)
290
How does Botox effect muscle contraction?
Decreases ACh release
291
How do curariform drugs affect muscle contraction?
Competitive antagonist to ACh
292
What is myasthenia gravis?
An autoimmune neuromuscular disease leading to fluctuating muscle weakness and fatigue. Neostigmine is the tx Antibodies attack nicotinic ACh receptors at post synaptic NMJ
293
What is Lambert-Eaton syndrome?
antibodies attack presynaptic voltage gated Ca++ channels at NMJ impairs release of Ach Tx Neostigmine
294
What enzyme can be found on myosin heads?
ATPase - helps break down ATP
295
What is troponin C?
binds calcium
296
What is sliding filament theory?
During contraction actin is pulled inward so that its ends overlaps myosin's ends. At the same time the actin filament pulls the Z-discs inwards causing muscle contraction. Myosin "slides" along the actin.
297
What drugs stimulate ACh?
nicotine
298
What drugs inactivate AChE?
neostigmine
299
What drugs inhibits transmission of ACh at the NMJ?
Curariform drugs
300
Why does rigor mortis occur?
* Ca++ leaks out of cell * Ca++ binds to troponin * Tropomyosin moves and myosin/actin bind * Heads get stuck @ 45 degrees b/c there's no ATP to release heads * Muscles are stuck in contraction
301
What are DHP receptors?
These are voltage-gated Ca2+ receptors in the T-tubules of skeletal muscle cells. They allow Ca2+ into the cell after being depolarized. DHP receptors link up with ryanodine receptors of the SR and induce massive releases of Ca2+ from the SR.
302
What are ryanodine receptors?
Calcium release channels that are opened under the influence of activated dihydropyridine receptors on the T tubules. leads to release of Ca2+ from the SR and induction of muscle contraction.
303
How does malignant hyperthermia occur?
-Mutation in the ryanodine receptor in skeletal muscle may result in MH susceptibility -Exposure to a triggering agent (all volatile anesthetics and succinylcholine) results in uncontrolled release of calcium
304
What is the pathway of cardiac muscle contraction?
1. AP by the pacemaker cells in SA/AV nodes conducted to cardiomyocytes 2. Calcium channels activated by AP --> influx of Ca++ causing a plateau of depolarization 3. Ca++ binds to troponin which moves troponin away from actin binding sites 4. Myosin binds to actin and pulls it towards the center of the sarcomere (contraction) 5. Ca++ removed by SR and relaxation begins
305
Smooth muscle characteristics
Mononucleate (no striations) "Latch state" allows it to contract for days Can be myogenic (spontaneously activated)
306
What are the two smooth muscle groups?
Multi-unit Single-unit (unitary)
307
What are the characteristics of a multi-unit muscle group?
Each fiber can contract independently from the others, control exerted by nerve signals E.g. Eye muscles
308
What are the characteristics of a unitary smooth muscle group?
Mass of hundred-thousand muscle fibers that connect together as one unit E.g. Viscera, syncytial
309
Smooth muscle contraction process
instead of troponin, smooth muscle uses calmodulin 1. Ca++ inside the cell increases due to calcium channels opening and SR releasing Ca++ 2. Ca++ binds to calmodulin 3. Ca++-Calmodulin complex joins and activates myosin light chain kinase (MLCK), a phosphorylating enzyme 4. The Ca-Calodulin-MLCK complex phosphorylates the myosin light chain (MLC) 5. The MLC (part of the myosin head) is energized and the head binds to actin and power strokes 6. Another ATP comes and releases the myosin for relaxation
310
Skeletal muscle vs other muscles, what's unique?
Ca++ binds to troponin which results in a conformational change of tropomysoin, allowing for binding of actin sites by myosin --> contraction Calcium from SR only, Na++ comes from ECF
311
Cardiac muscle vs other muscles, what's unique?
Ca++ binds to troponin-C, which results in troponin-C moving away from the actin, allowing for binding of actin sites by myosin --> contraction Calcium from SR and ECF
312
Smooth muscle vs other muscles, what's unique?
Ca++ binds to calmodulin which joins and activates MLCK. Ca++Calmodulin-MLCK phosphorylates myosin light chain (MLC), myosin attaches to actin and contracts Calcium comes from SR and ECF
313
What is necrosis?
sum of cellular changes after local cell death and the process of cellular autodigestion, inflammatory changes
314
What is apoptosis?
Active process of cellular self-destruction called programmed cell death in both normal and pathologic tissue changes
315
Does apoptosis involve inflammation?
no
316
What is apoptosis type 1?
Cell death (caspases)
317
What is apoptosis type II?
mitochondria dependent apoptosis
318
Cell injury due to hypoxia
Lack of sufficient oxygen; commonly caused by ischemia, anoxia, results in decreased mitochondria phosphorylation --> lack of ATP --> Na+/K+ pump stops, build up of ions, cell swells and bursts
319
What happens when the cell membrane is damaged?
Ca++ influx, swells (is reversible by O2 at this stage) --> continued influx results in activation of enzyme systems --> further damages the membranes
320
What is reperfusion injury?
tissue damage caused when blood supply returns to the tissue after a period of ischemia or lack of oxygen, damaged via the creation of free radicals
321
Is reperfusion injury reversible?
no
322
How does alcohol injure cells?
Creates folate deficiency, gastritis, FAS, alcohol induced disease (fatty liver, cirrhosis, hepatitis)
323
What are the two signals associated with hypertrophy?
Stretch and trophic (growth)
324
What is metaplasia?
The reversible replacement of one mature cell by another type of mature cell. Example: changes in the cells of the lungs of people who smoke
325
What is dysplasia?
Disordered cellular growth Proliferation of precancerous cells Often arises from longstanding pathologic hyperplasia or metaplasia DYSPLASIA IS REVERSIBLE (with alleviation of inciting stress) If stress persists --> dysplasia progresses to carcinoma (IRREVERSIIBLE)
326
What is a cell more permeable to K+ or Na+?
K+ due to leakage channels