Exam 1 Ch:17,18,19,20,21,22 Flashcards
Endocrine glands
are ductless glands.
are the organs of the endocrine system.
secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream.
help maintain homeostasis.
All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
Which is not characteristic of the endocrine system?
Effects: causes metabolic activity changes in target cells
Response time: slow reaction time = seconds to hours
Duration of response: long-lasting = minutes to weeks
Recovery time: rapid, immediate return to prestimulation level
Communication method: hormones in the bloodstream
Recovery time: rapid, immediate return to prestimulation level
Aldosterone release can be triggered by the presence of the blood-borne messenger angiotensin II or by low levels of sodium, and so its secretion regulation is said to be
purely neural.
both hormonal and humoral.
both antagonistic and synergistic.
both neural and synergistic.
purely hormonal.
both hormonal and humoral.
Follicle-stimulating hormone is a
glycoprotein.
steroid.
monoamine.
oligopeptide.
glycoprotein
Protein hormones are
lipid-soluble.
water-soluble.
soluble in both water and lipids.
soluble in neither water nor lipids.
water-soluble.
When a chemical messenger helps initiate an inflammatory response by causing cellular changes in neighboring cells, it is demonstrating ___________ signaling.
autocrine
paracrine
allomone
pheromone
paracrine
Most hormones are made of chains of amino acids and are therefore
steroids.
biogenic amines.
proteins.
catecholamines.
proteins
Which type of hormone requires a carrier protein in the blood?
Autocrine hormone
Water-soluble hormone
Oligopeptide
Lipid-soluble hormone
Lipid-soluble hormone
The binding of a hormone and a carrier protein is _______; a very ______ fraction of such a hormone in the blood is bound to a carrier at any one point in time.
temporary; large
temporary; small
permanent; large
permanent; small
temporary; large
Generally, the shorter the half-life of a hormone
the more frequently it must be replaced.
the less frequently it must be replaced.
the more frequently it must be replaced.
The half-life of a hormone is
one-half of the time it takes to synthesize the chemical messenger molecule.
the time necessary to reduce the hormone concentration in the blood to half of what had been secreted.
half the time until the hormone molecule dissolves.
half of the duration of the hormone’s effects on its target cells throughout the body.
the time necessary to reduce the hormone concentration in the blood to half of what had been secreted.
When the effects of water-soluble hormones on their target cells are considered, the hormone itself is
the G protein.
the second messenger.
the first messenger.
the hormone-response element.
the phospholipase.
the first messenger.
Within the adenylate cyclase signal transduction pathways of target cells, cAMP activates
the G protein.
adenylate cyclase.
protein kinase.
the receptor.
transcription of a mRNA.
protein kinase.
In the signal transduction pathway that results in the formation of inositol triphosphate, the G protein directly activates
phospholipase C.
protein kinase A.
calmodulin.
adenylate cyclase.
phospholipase C.
Intracellular signaling pathways within target cells are organized such that
each step allows for amplification of the signal where one molecule can activate many.
each step involves one molecule activating or synthesizing exactly one other molecule for precise control.
enzymes are used up and degraded after each individual reaction they catalyze.
each step allows for amplification of the signal where one molecule can activate many.
Reduced hormone concentration in the blood often causes target cells to
up-regulate receptors in order to increase cell sensitivity.
up-regulate receptors in order to decrease cell sensitivity.
down-regulate receptors in order to increase cell sensitivity.
down-regulate receptors in order to decrease cell sensitivity.
up-regulate receptors in order to increase cell sensitivity.
As someone starts to develop in puberty, most cells in their reproductive organs are probably starting to express
more receptors for sex hormones.
fewer receptors for sex hormones.
more receptors for sex hormones.
Once a structure is fully grown and mature, it will probably
up-regulate its receptors for growth hormone, as it no longer receives as much of the ligand.
up-regulate its receptors for growth hormone, as it no longer needs to continue to grow at a fast rate.
down-regulate its receptors for growth hormone, as it no longer receives as much of the ligand.
down-regulate its receptors for growth hormone, as it no longer needs to continue to grow at a fast rate.
down-regulate its receptors for growth hormone, as it no longer needs to continue to grow at a fast rate.
The part of the brain that functions as a “master control center” of the endocrine system is the
pineal gland.
cerebral cortex.
spinal cord.
hypothalamus.
adrenal cortex.
hypothalamus.
The pituitary gland is located _________ to the hypothalamus and is connected by the ________.
superior, thalamus
inferior, infundibulum
inferior, epithalamus
posterior, infundibulum
inferior, infundibulum
Which lobe of the pituitary is larger and secretes more hormones?
Anterior pituitary
Posterior pituitary
Anterior pituitary
The hormones that come from the posterior pituitary
are synthesized there and are released upon signals from the anterior pituitary.
are synthesized in the hypothalamus and are released from the posterior pituitary when nerve signals arrive.
are synthesized in the anterior pituitary and are transported to and from the posterior pituitary by the primary and secondary plexus.
are synthesized in the posterior pituitary and released by the anterior pituitary by way of the hypophyseal portal system.
are synthesized in the hypothalamus and are released from the posterior pituitary when nerve signals arrive.
The two hormones released from the posterior pituitary are
oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone.
thyrotropin-releasing hormone and corticotropin-releasing hormone.
prolactin and growth hormone.
prolactin and vasopressin.
follicle-stimulating hormone and leutenizing hormone.
oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone.
In which order would blood flow through these structures as it travels from the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland?
a: Primary plexus
b: Secondary plexus
c: Hypophyseal portal veins
a - b - c
a - c - b
c - a - b
b - a - c
c - b - a
a - c - b
The hypothalamic hormone that triggers the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is
cortisol.
corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH).
vasopressin.
adrenal follicle-stimulating hormone.
cortical stimulating factor (CSF).
corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH).
Where are the target cells for follicle-stimulating hormone?
Thyroid follicles
Ovaries and testes
Mammary glands
Uterus
Hair follicles
Ovaries and testes
The primary function of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is to
regulate salt and water balance by acting on the renal system.
stimulate glucocorticoid release from the adrenal glands.
stimulate adrenaline release from the adrenal medulla.
stimulate cell growth and cell division in muscle and bone.
stimulate the development of the folds on the surface of the brain.
stimulate glucocorticoid release from the adrenal glands.
Growth hormone is secreted by __________ cells in the anterior pituitary.
somatotropic
gonadotropic
thyrotropic
mammotropic
corticotropic
somatotropic
Which is not correct regarding growth hormone (GH)?
GH affects most body cells.
GH stimulates cell growth and mitosis.
GH is also known as somatotropin.
GH stimulates the kidney to secrete somatomedin.
GH is a tropic hormone.
GH stimulates the kidney to secrete somatomedin.
Excessive secretion of growth hormone in adults can cause
Graves disease.
acromegaly.
pituitary gigantism.
pituitary dwarfism.
Cushing syndrome.
acromegaly.
The thyroid gland is located
anterior to the atria of the heart.
immediately anterior to the trachea.
immediately superior to the larynx.
immediately posterior to the cricoid cartilage.
immediately anterior to the trachea.
Thyroid hormone synthesis involves secretion of a glycoprotein called ___________ by the follicular cells.
colloid
thyroxine
triiodothyronine
thyroglobulin
tetraiodothyronine
thyroglobulin
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is secreted by the
hypothalamus, and it targets cells of the posterior pituitary gland
hypothalamus, and it targets cells of the anterior pituitary gland.
anterior pituitary, and it targets follicular cells of the thyroid gland.
posterior pituitary, and it targets parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland.
thyroid gland, and it targets cells of the parathyroid gland.
anterior pituitary, and it targets follicular cells of the thyroid gland.
You are “shadowing” an endocrinologist who is examining a patient complaining of weakness, weight loss, and heat intolerance. The doctor points out the patient’s obvious exophthalmos and asks for your diagnosis. What would you speculate is the patient’s problem?
Hyposecretion of parathyroid hormone
Hypersecretion of parathyroid hormone
Hyposecretion of thyroid hormone
Hypersecretion of thyroid hormone
Hyposecretion of calcitonin
Hypersecretion of thyroid hormone
Which region of the adrenal cortex synthesizes glucocorticoids?
Zona reticularis
Zona glucosa
Zona papillarosa
Zona fasciculata
Zona glomerulosa
Zona fasciculata
The release of hormones from the adrenal medulla is stimulated by
adrenocorticotropic hormone.
the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.
follicle-stimulating hormone.
growth hormone.
thyrotropic hormone.
the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.
The adrenal glands are located ________ to the parietal peritoneum and each has a cortex of a ________ color.
anterior, brown
anterior, yellow
posterior, brown
posterior, yellow
posterior, yellow
Which hormone induces its target cells to take up glucose, thereby lowering blood glucose levels?
Pancreatic polypeptide
Somatostatin
Glucagon
Insulin
Somatotropin
Insulin
Which is not correct regarding the pancreas?
It is located posterior to the stomach, between the small intestine and the spleen.
It is a heterocrine, or mixed, gland.
It is elongated in shape, spongy, and nodular.
The majority of cells in the pancreas are pancreatic acini.
It does not begin to secrete its hormones until puberty.
It does not begin to secrete its hormones until puberty.
In addition to secreting hormones, the pancreas also produces
white blood cells.
sodium chloride.
pancreatic juice.
endorphins.
prostaglandins.
pancreatic juice.
The hormone that increases the rate of glycogen breakdown and glucose release by the liver is
insulin.
glucagon.
glucocorticoid.
somatostatin.
epinephrine.
glucagon
Which hormone is secreted by the beta cells of the pancreas?
Insulin
Glucagon
Somatostatin
Pancreatic polypeptide
Pancreatic lipase
Insulin
The pancreas is located ________ to the stomach, and it lies between the duodenum and the ________.
anterior, liver
anterior, spleen
posterior, liver
posterior, spleen
posterior, spleen
Insulin causes a(n) _______ in glycogenesis in the liver and a(n) _______ in lipogenesis in adipose.
increase, increase
increase, decrease
decrease, decrease
decrease, increase
increase, increase
Which hormone is secreted by the pineal gland?
Melatonin
Insulin
Melanin
Cortisol
Oxytocin
Melatonin
How does aging affect the endocrine system?
Secretory activity of endocrine glands decreases.
Normal levels of hormones, particularly growth hormone and sex hormones, often decrease.
Aging reduces the efficiency of endocrine system functions.
Endocrine system imbalances can lead to weight gain or muscle loss.
All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following is false?
The pineal gland forms part of the epithalamus.
The pineal gland is found within the diencephalon of the brain.
The pineal gland secretes melatonin in a cyclical fashion.
Melatonin makes us feel alert and awake.
Melatonin makes us feel alert and awake.
During thyroid surgery, a surgeon mistakenly removes the parathyroid glands from his patient. Which of the following is a likely outcome in the patient?
Blood calcium levels will drop.
His kidneys will decrease the loss of calcium in the urine.
He will lose bone mass due to excessive bone erosion.
His blood sugar will increase.
Blood calcium levels will drop.
In response to excessive amounts of hormone, a target cell may reduce its number of receptors for that hormone. This is an example of
down-regulation.
up-regulation.
increasing sensitivity to a hormone.
increasing specificity to a hormone.
down-regulation.
Growth hormone
stimulates gluconeogenesis.
decreases blood glucose.
increases lipogenesis.
has few target cells in the body.
stimulates gluconeogenesis.
Which term best describes the function of blood when considering the presence of carbon dioxide and endocrine hormones?
Regulation
Protection
Prevention
Transportation
Transportation
Oxygen-poor blood is _________ in color.
bright red
dark red
light blue
dark blue
dark red
Blood plasma is slightly _______; if pH drifts out of the normal range, dire consequences can result from alterations in the structure of _______ .
acidic, glucose
acidic, proteins
acidic, glycogen
basic, glucose
basic, proteins
basic, proteins
Typically, an adult’s body contains _______ of blood.
1 liter
5 liters
10 liters
15 liters
5 liters
When blood is centrifuged and its components separate, the bottom of the tube holds the
electrolytes and waste products.
buffy coat.
monocytes.
erythrocytes.
platelets.
plasma.
erythrocytes.
The clinical definition of the hematocrit refers to the percentage of
erythrocytes in the blood.
leukocytes in the blood.
platelets in the blood.
plasma in the blood.
all formed elements in the blood.
erythrocytes in the blood.
The most numerous of the formed elements are the
neutrophils.
platelets.
erythrocytes.
basophils.
albumins.
erythrocytes.
One of the functions of blood is to regulate fluid levels in the body. If too much fluid escapes from the bloodstream and enters the tissues, blood pressure will
increase.
decrease.
decrease.
Glucose is a
polar molecule, and therefore it dissolves readily in plasma.
polar molecule, and therefore it requires a transporter in the blood.
nonpolar molecule, and therefore it dissolves readily in plasma.
nonpolar molecule, and therefore it requires a transporter in the blood.
polar molecule, and therefore it dissolves readily in plasma.
The reason it is more appropriate to call an erythrocyte a “formed element” rather than a “cell” is that erythrocytes
are actually dead.
lack a nucleus and organelles.
have lots of inclusion molecules.
are not red.
can form a rouleau when moving through a capillary.
lack a nucleus and organelles.
Which depicts the order of cell formation in erythropoiesis?
a: Proerythroblast
b: Normoblast
c: Myeloid stem cell
d: Reticulocyte
e: Erythroblast
f: Mature erythrocyte
c, a, e, b, d, f
a, b, c, e, d, f
a, c, d, b, e, f
c, b, a, d, e, f
c, a, b, e, d, f
c, a, e, b, d, f
How many oxygen molecules may bind to a single molecule of hemoglobin?
2
4
6
8
16
4
Which events occur during the recycling of aged or damaged erythrocytes? (Order is not important.)
a: The heme group is converted into biliverdin.
b: Bilirubin is placed in long-term storage in the liver.
c: The iron ions in hemoglobin are removed.
d: The iron ions are stored in the liver.
e: The iron ions are stored in the red bone marrow.
f: Membrane proteins and globin proteins are broken down and reused.
g: The erythrocyte contents, excluding the globins, are excreted unchanged via the digestive tract.
a, b, c, e, f
Correct Answer
a, c, d, f
Incorrect Response
a, b, c, g
c, d, g
c, e, g
a, c, d, f
Which are characteristics of type O blood?
a: Has anti-A antibodies
b: Has anti-B antibodies
c: Has surface antigen O on its erythrocytes
d: Has surface antigen A on its erythrocytes
e: Has neither surface antigen A nor B on its erythrocytes
a, b, c
a, b, e
b, c, e
b, c, d
c
a, b, e
If agglutination occurs after a blood transfusion, it may indicate
the wrong blood type was used.
the recipient had type AB blood.
there were no agglutinins (antibodies) in the recipient blood.
the donor had type O blood.
the wrong blood type was used.
The agglutinogens (or antigens) that determine the ABO and Rh blood types are
found on the surface of erythrocytes.
found in the cytosol of the erythrocytes.
located on the surface of the leukocytes.
located in the cytosol of the leukocytes.
part of the reticular connective tissue of the spleen.
found on the surface of erythrocytes.
Which are characteristic of leukocytes?
a: Smaller than erythrocytes
b: Have a nucleus
c: Have no hemoglobin
d: More numerous than erythrocytes
e: Depending on type, may or may not contain granules
a, b, c, d
b, c, e
b, c, d, e
a, b, c, d, e
a, b, e
b, c, e
Which type of leukocyte releases histamine?
Eosinophil
Basophil
Lymphocyte
Neutrophil
Monocyte
Basophil
The type of leukocyte that will migrate in the blood and take up residence in the tissues as a macrophage is a(n)
eosinophil.
basophil.
monocyte.
lymphocyte.
neutrophil.
monocyte.
Which are the most numerous of the leukocytes?
Eosinophils
Basophils
Lymphocytes
Neutrophils
Monocytes
Neutrophils
The growth factor that increases the formation of erythrocytes, all classes of granulocytes, monocytes, and platelets from myeloid stem cells is
EPO.
M-CSF.
G-CSF.
Multi-CSF.
GM-CSF.
Multi-CSF.
Platelets play a key role in _________, but if they are not used they are broken down after about ________ days.
hemostasis, 120
hemostasis, 9
hematopoiesis, 120
hematopoiesis, 9
hemostasis, 9
Vascular spasms last
a few milliseconds when tissue damage is moderate.
almost a full minute when tissue damage is extensive.
several minutes when tissue damage is extensive.
several hours when tissue damage is moderate.
several minutes when tissue damage is extensive.
Prostacyclin is an eicosanoid that acts as a
platelet attractant.
platelet repellant.
platelet repellant.
Which clotting pathway involves more steps and takes more time (approximately 5 minutes)?
The intrinsic pathway
The extrinsic pathway
The intrinsic pathway
Which of the following is a step within the common pathway of blood clotting?
Factor III combines with factor VII.
Factor XII converts inactive factor XI to active factor XI.
Prothrombin is activated to thrombin.
Calcium combines with factor IX.
Prothrombin is activated to thrombin.
To compensate for significant blood loss, the autonomic nervous system triggers
vasoconstriction and an increase in heart rate.
vasoconstriction and a decrease in heart rate.
vasodilation and an increase in heart rate.
vasodilation and a decrease in heart rate.
vasoconstriction and an increase in heart rate.
Fibrinolysis involves ________ of the fibrin framework, and it involves the protein _______.
construction, thrombokinase
construction, plasmin
construction, actinomyosin
destruction, plasmin
destruction, thrombokinase
destruction, plasmin
In many of the elderly, leukocytes appear to be
decreased in number and less efficient.
decreased in number but more efficient.
increased in number but more efficient.
increased in number and more efficient.
decreased in number and less efficient.
In the centrifuged sample of blood illustrated, which number indicates the layer containing water, plasma proteins, nutrients, and waste products?
Correct Answer
1
2
Incorrect Response
3
None of the numbers indicate that component of blood.
1
Lymphatic capillaries originate in the
peripheral nervous system ganglia.
red bone marrow.
yellow bone marrow.
tissue spaces between cells.
cisterna chyli.
tissue spaces between cells.
A lymphatic capillary that picks up dietary lipids in the small intestine is called a(n)
cisterna chyli.
lacteal.
afferent lymphatic vessel.
trabeculum.
efferent lymphatic vessel.
lacteal.
Lymph is transported through a network of increasingly larger lymphatic passageways. What is the correct order of these, from smallest diameter to largest diameter?
Capillaries - ducts - trunks - vessels
Ducts - capillaries - vessels - trunks
Vessels - capillaries - trunks - ducts
Ducts - vessels - capillaries - trunks
Capillaries - vessels - trunks - ducts
Capillaries - vessels - trunks - ducts
Lymphatic capillaries
are open at both ends.
are smaller in diameter than blood capillaries.
are like continuous capillaries in that they have many tight junctions.
lack a basement membrane.
are abundant in epithelial tissues.
lack a basement membrane.
Subclavian trunks drain lymph from the
deep thoracic structures.
head and neck.
upper limbs, breasts, and superficial thorax.
abdominopelvic wall.
upper limbs, breasts, and superficial thorax.
Which of the lymphatic trunks drain into the cisterna chyli?
Intestinal trunks
Lumbar trunks
Intestinal trunks and lumbar trunks
Subclavian trunks and jugular trunks
Bronchomediastinal trunks and intestinal trunks
Intestinal trunks and lumbar trunks
Which would be the route taken by lymph traveling from lymphatic vessels in the right leg to the bloodstream?
Right lumbar trunk - cisterna chyli - thoracic duct - right subclavian vein
Right lumbar trunk - cisterna chyli - thoracic duct - left subclavian vein
Right lumbar trunk - right intestinal trunk - right lymphatic duct - right subclavian vein
Right femoral trunk - right lumbar trunk - right lymphatic duct - superior vena cava
Right femoral trunk - cisterna chyli - thoracic duct - left subclavian vein
Right lumbar trunk - cisterna chyli - thoracic duct - left subclavian vein
Although they are not a site of lymphocyte formation, _________ lymphatic structures provide sites where immune responses are initiated.
2-21-2013
hemopoietic
primary
red marrow
secondary
secondary
Where do T-lymphocytes mature?
Spleen
White bone marrow
Tonsils
Thymus gland
Thyroid gland
Thymus gland
B-lymphocytes are
antibody-producing red blood cells.
platelets that are generated in the thymus.
white blood cells that are generated in red bone marrow.
immune system cells that are generated in the tonsils.
blood cells found only in people with type B blood.
white blood cells that are generated in red bone marrow.
The thymus contains lymphatic cells as well as secretory _________ tissue.
muscle
neural
epithelial
osseous
areolar
epithelial
Lymphatic organs
contain a complete capsule of dense irregular connective tissue.
contain an incomplete capsule of dense irregular connective tissue.
lack a connective tissue capsule.
contain a complete capsule of dense irregular connective tissue.
Regions of MALT called Peyer patches are found in the
urinary bladder.
stomach.
vagina.
small intestine.
trachea.
small intestine.
Another name for a lymphatic follicle is a
lymphatic nodule.
white pulp.
lymph node medulla.
thymic lobule.
lymphatic nodule.
The main function of tonsils is to detect and protect against infections agents that are
in the blood.
in the lymph.
ingested or inhaled.
secreted by salivary glands.
ingested or inhaled.
Lymph nodes may be found individually, or clustered in specific regions of the body. Which cluster of lymph nodes receives lymph from the head and neck?
Inguinal lymph nodes
Cervical lymph nodes
Thoracic lymph nodes
Axillary lymph nodes
Abdominal lymph nodes
Cervical lymph nodes
When women with breast cancer undergo surgery to remove the tumor or the entire breast, the axillary lymph nodes are often removed as well. Why?
In removing the breast, the blood supply to the nodes is removed and they will inevitably cease to function.
The axillary lymph nodes receive lymph from the breast and may contain cancer cells.
The nerves that supply the axillary lymph nodes are often cut during the breast surgery.
It is impossible to remove the breast without physically damaging the lymph nodes.
With the removal of the breast, there is no further need for lymph drainage and filtering in that part of the body.
The axillary lymph nodes receive lymph from the breast and may contain cancer cells.
Typically, a hilum of a lymph node contains
one afferent lymphatic vessel.
one efferent lymphatic vessel.
numerous afferent vessels.
numerous efferent vessels.
one efferent lymphatic vessel.
In which abdominal quadrant is the spleen located?
Left upper quadrant
Right upper quadrant
Left lower quadrant
Right lower quadrant
Left upper quadrant
Malaria is a disease caused by a
multicellular parasite.
protozoan.
fungus.
virus.
bacterium.
protozoan
Fungi are
eukaryotic cells with a cell wall.
prokaryotic cells.
multicellular parasites that reside within a host.
protozoans lacking a cell wall.
viruses that are fragments of infectious proteins.
eukaryotic cells with a cell wall.
“Mad cow disease” (variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease) is caused by a
fungus.
protozoan.
prion.
virus.
bacterium.
prion
Dendritic cells of the skin are derived from
macrophages.
B-lymphocytes.
T-lymphocytes.
monocytes.
neutrophils.
monocytes.
In terms of their chemical structure, cytokines are _______; their function is to serve as _________.
proteins; chemical messengers
proteins; receptors
steroids; chemical messengers.
steroids; receptors.
proteins; chemical messengers
When a chemical messenger has a short half-life, it means that
it will not have an extremely prolonged effect on target cells.
it will not be eliminated quickly from the blood.
it will not have an extremely prolonged effect on target cells.
Interferons are one of the classes of
interleukins.
cytokines.
colony-stimulating factors.
tumor necrosis factors.
cytokines.
Which class of chemical messenger facilitates white blood cell formation in bone marrow?
Interleukins
Colony-stimulating factors
Tumor necrosis factors
Interferons
Colony-stimulating factors
Defensins and lysosomes are both part of ________ immunity and function as ___________.
adaptive; physical barriers to pathogen entry
adaptive; attackers of pathogenic cells
innate; physical barriers to pathogen entry
innate; attackers of pathogenic cells
innate; attackers of pathogenic cells
Which of the following lists the body’s first, second, and third lines of defense in order?
Adaptive immunity, external innate immunity, internal immunity
External innate immunity, internal innate immunity, adaptive immunity
External innate immunity, adaptive immunity, internal innate immunity
External adaptive immunity, internal adaptive immunity, innate immunity
Innate immunity, internal adaptive immunity, internal innate immunity
External innate immunity, internal innate immunity, adaptive immunity
Which type of cell attacks a variety of unwanted cells and causes those cells to undergo apoptosis?
Natural killer cells
Basophils
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Macrophages
Natural killer cells
Often a virus-infected cell will release _________ to prevent spread of the infection.
histamine
complement
interferon
perforin
serotonin
Often a virus-infected cell will release _________ to prevent spread of the infection.
histamine
complement
interferon
perforin
serotonin
“Complement” refers to a group of
white blood cells.
antibodies.
plasma proteins.
molecules on the surface of pathogenic microbes.
plasma proteins.
In the classical pathway of complement activation,
complement is activated within liver cells and released into the blood.
complement binds to an antibody that is bound to a foreign substance.
complement binds with polysaccharides on a microbial cell wall.
complement inhibits inflammation and binds to opsonins.
complement binds to an antibody that is bound to a foreign substance.
A membrane attack complex is a protein grouping that
triggers phagocytosis of a target cell by a nearby macrophage or neutrophil.
forms a channel in the target cell membrane that causes cytolysis.
links a pathogen to a red blood cell so that it is carried to the liver or spleen.
stimulates basophils to attack a multicellular parasite in the body.
forms a channel in the target cell membrane that causes cytolysis.
Chemotaxis is the process by which
CAMs on leukocytes adhere to CAMs on endothelial cells of capillaries within injured tissues.
cells migrate along chemical gradients.
cells exit the blood by squeezing out between cells in the blood vessel wall.
chemical messengers are secreted that stimulate the sensation of pain that accompanies inflammation.
cells migrate along chemical gradients.
Exudate is
blood that escapes capillaries, passes beyond the skin and leaves the body.
increased perfusion of capillary beds within the region of an injury.
lymph that flows away from the heart and toward the site of an injury.
fluid that leaves capillaries to “wash” the interstitial space of an injured tissue.
clotting proteins that wall off microbes and prevent them from spreading through the bloodstream.
fluid that leaves capillaries to “wash” the interstitial space of an injured tissue.
Which is not one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?
Heat
Redness
Loss of function
Numbness
Swelling
Numbness
Interleukin 1 and interferons act as
defervescents and trigger an elevation of body temperature.
defervescents and trigger a decrease of body temperature.
pyrogens and trigger an elevation of body temperature.
pyrogens and trigger a decrease of body temperature.
pyrogens and trigger an elevation of body temperature.
Pyrogens act on the __________ of the brain where they cause release of ________.
hippocampus; PGE2
hippocampus; exudate
hypothalamus; PGE2
hypothalamus; exudate
hypothalamus; PGE2
A fever __________ reproduction of bacteria and ___________ CAMs on the endothelium of capillaries of lymph nodes.
stimulates; increases
stimulates; decreases
inhibits; increases
inhibits; decreases
inhibits; increases
Which type of antigen would have the greatest immunogenicity?
One that is small, simple, familiar, and abundant
One that is small but complex and rare
One that is large, complex, foreign, and abundant
One that is large but simple and familiar
One that is large, complex, foreign, and abundant
Helper T-lymphocytes are also known as
cytotoxic T-lymphocytes.
CD8+ cells.
CD4+ cells.
T8 cells.
memory T-lymphocytes.
CD4+ cells.
Antigen presentation involves the display of an antigen
inside the cytoplasm of a B-lymphocyte.
on the surface of a cell so that a B-lymphocyte can be exposed to it.
inside the cytoplasm of a T-lymphocyte.
on the surface of a cell so that a T-lymphocyte can be exposed to it.
on the surface of a cell so that a T-lymphocyte can be exposed to it.
Antigen-presenting cells are ________________, and they display antigens to both ________________ and ______________.
immune cells; B-lymphocytes; T-lymphocytes
immune cells; helper T-lymphocytes; cytotoxic T-lymphocytes
any nucleated cell; B-lymphocytes; T-lymphocytes
any anucleate cell; helper T-lymphocytes; cytotoxic T-lymphocytes
any blood cell; helper B-lymphocytes; cytotoxic B-lymphocytes
immune cells; helper T-lymphocytes; cytotoxic T-lymphocytes
MHC class I molecules present peptide fragments that are either “self” or “nonself”; in either case, the fragment becomes bound to the molecule while
in the Golgi apparatus.
in the cytosol.
in a secretory vesicle.
in the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
in the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
MHC class I molecules on a cell allow it to interact with
natural killer cells.
cytotoxic T-lymphocytes.
helper T-lymphocytes.
CD8+ B-lymphocytes.
cytotoxic T-lymphocytes.
Activation of lymphocytes occurs in
primary lymphatic structures.
secondary lymphatic structures.
tertiary lymphatic structures.
effectors such as muscles and glands.
secondary lymphatic structures.
In positive selection of T-lymphocytes, those cells that
bind self antigens are eliminated.
can bind MHC survive.
bind to self antigens survive.
bind to MHC class II are eliminated.
can bind MHC survive.
If T-lymphocytes that failed the negative selection test were not destroyed, the immune system would likely
cause autoimmune disorders.
exhibit very delayed activity.
be unable to recognize a particular class of pathogen.
exhibit more negative membrane potentials.
cause autoimmune disorders.
The first signal during helper T-lymphocyte activation involves
BCR of the helper T-cell binding with free antigen and engulfing it.
CD8 of the helper T-cell binding with MHC class III of the antigen-presenting cell.
CD4 of the helper T-cell binding with MHC class I part of the antigen fragment.
CD4 of the helper T-cell binding with MHC class II of the antigen-presenting cell.
CD4 of the helper T-cell binding with MHC class II of the antigen-presenting cell.
The second signal during B-lymphocyte activation involves stimulation from
IL-2 released by cytotoxic T-lymphocytes.
IL-4 released by helper T-lymphocytes.
bradykinin released by antigen-presenting cells.
antibodies released by antigens.
IL-4 released by helper T-lymphocytes.
Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes destroy infected cells by releasing
antibodies.
bradykinin and histamine.
perforin and granzymes.
CD4+.
perforin and granzymes.
Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes destroy infected cells by
increasing the permeability of infected cells and inducing apoptosis.
increasing the permeability of infected cells and preventing apoptosis.
decreasing the permeability of infected cells and inducing apoptosis.
decreasing the permeability of infected cells and preventing apoptosis.
increasing the permeability of infected cells and inducing apoptosis.
Plasma cells have a life span of about _________, which is mainly spent in the _________.
5 days; blood
5 days; lymph nodes
130 days; blood
130 days; lymph nodes
5 days; lymph nodes
An immunoglobulin is a(n)
antibody, which is a white blood cell.
antibody, which is a protein molecule.
lymphocyte, which is a white blood cell.
lymphocyte, which is a protein molecule.
antigen, which is a cell receptor.
antibody, which is a protein molecule.
Which part of an antibody attaches to an antigen?
The hinge region
The constant region
The heavy chain
The variable region
The variable region
Opsonization involves
cross-linking several antigens together so that they are no longer soluble, and it is facilitated by the Fc region of the antibody.
marking a target for phagocytosis, and it is facilitated by interaction of the Fc region of the antibody with a phagocyte.
activation of NK cells, and it is a function of the antigen-binding site of the antibody.
fixation of antibodies in the IgG and IgM classes, and it involves the antigen-binding site of the antibody.
marking a target for phagocytosis, and it is facilitated by interaction of the Fc region of the antibody with a phagocyte.
What are the five main classes of immunoglobulins found in humans?
IgA, IgC, IgE, IgG, IgI
IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM, IgS
IgB, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM
IgA, IgB, IgC, IgD, IgE
IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM
IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM
IgA is primarily found
in blood.
in external secretions such as tears, saliva, and mucus.
in lymph.
on the surface of B-lymphocytes.
in the thymus, spleen, and lymph nodes.
in external secretions such as tears, saliva, and mucus.
Agglutination of mismatched blood is a function of
IgD, which is a dimer.
IgD, which is a pentamer.
IgM, which is a dimer.
IgM, which is a pentamer.
IgM, which is a pentamer.
The secondary response of the immune system to an infectious agent involves
fewer cells than the antigen challenge, as the response has become more specific.
more cells than the antigen challenge, due to the proliferation of memory cells.
amnesia of past exposures, so that a perfectly adapted response can be generated to the new pathogen.
more cells than the antigen challenge, due to the proliferation of memory cells.
A secondary response to an infectious agent has a _______ latent phase than a primary response has.
longer
shorter
shorter
The immunity that occurs as a result of a vaccination is _________ immunity.
active
passive
active
Active immunity requires
the transfer of antibodies from another individual.
direct encounter with the antigen.
that an active virus be used in a vaccine.
that all immune responses to the pathogen result in symptoms of illness.
direct encounter with the antigen.
Passive immunity lasts
from days to weeks, and involves development of memory cells.
from days to weeks, and does not involve development of memory cells.
from years to a lifetime, and involves the development of memory cells.
from years to a lifetime, and does not involve development of memory cells.
from days to weeks, and does not involve development of memory cells.
A variety of lymphatic cells are involved in the immune response. Which is not part of the process?
Production of antibodies
Direct attack and destruction of foreign or abnormal agents
Replication of antigens
Formation of memory cells
Replication of antigens
Which type of cell responds to multiple antigens?
Memory B-lymphocyte
Memory T-lymphocyte
Natural killer cell
Plasma cell
Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte
Natural killer cell
Which cell type is targeted by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte
Memory B-lymphocyte
Helper T-lymphocyte
Natural killer cell
Plasma cell
Helper T-lymphocyte
The primary goal of the immune response is
destruction or inactivation of pathogens and foreign material.
maintenance of the proper ionic balance between lymph and blood.
stimulation of mitotic activity in order to replace cells damaged by infection.
reduction of the number of circulating memory lymphocytes.
removal of antibodies from lymph and lymphatic organs.
destruction or inactivation of pathogens and foreign material.
Occlusion of blood vessels tends to lead to
increases in perfusion.
increases in capillary exchange.
inadequate blood supply and damage to body tissues.
defibrillation of cardic muscle cell contraction.
inadequate blood supply and damage to body tissues.
Which can be used to characterize blood flow in the human body?
a: There is a unidirectional blood flow.
b: Arteries always carry oxygenated blood.
c: Veins always carry deoxygenated blood.
d: Arteries carry blood away from the heart.
e: Veins carry blood toward the heart.
a, c, d, e
a, b, c, d, e
a, d, e
b, c, d, e
d, e
a, d, e
The pulmonary trunk receives blood from the right ventricle and conducts it toward the lung. The pulmonary trunk is a(n)
artery.
capillary.
vein.
artery
Which carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?
Pulmonary arteries
Pulmonary veins
Pulmonary trunk
Inferior vena cava
Superior vena cava
Pulmonary veins
Which circuit of the cardiovascular system is responsible for sending blood to the kidneys, stomach, and pelvic regions?
Pulmonary circuit
Visceral circuit
Coronary circuit
Systemic circuit
Systemic circuit
Which circuit of the cardiovascular system includes the left ventricle and aorta?
Pulmonary circuit
Cardio circuit
Coronary circuit
Systemic circuit
Systemic circuit
The term “epicardium” is another name for the
visceral layer of the serosal pericardium.
parietal layer of the serosal pericardium.
external layer of the fibrous pericardium.
myocardium.
mediastinum.
visceral layer of the serosal pericardium.
The posterior interventricular sulcus
is another name for the coronary sulcus.
contains the great cardiac vein and coronary sinus.
is a groove between the ventricles on the back of the heart.
is a valve in the interventricular septum that closes at birth.
is a groove between the ventricles on the back of the heart.
Each of the receiving chambers of the heart has a wrinkled flaplike extension; the one that is more visible from an anterior view is the
interatrial septum.
interventricular septum.
left auricle.
right auricle.
right auricle.
From which view is the connection between the pulmonary veins and the heart most visible?
Anterior view
Posterior view
Posterior view
The layer of the heart wall composed of cardiac muscle tissue is the
pericardium.
myocardium.
endocardium.
pericardial cavity.
pectinate muscle.
myocardium.
The papillary muscles attach to the cusps of the atrioventricular valves by means of the
pectinate muscles.
trabeculae carneae.
conus arteriosus.
tendinous cords.
tricuspid valve.
tendinous cords.
Pectinate muscles are found on the
posterior wall of the right ventricle.
anterior wall of the right ventricle.
internal walls of the right and left atria.
posterior walls of the right and left ventricles.
external wall of the right atrium.
internal walls of the right and left atria.
Which are functions performed by the fibrous skeleton of the heart?
a: Separates the atria and ventricles
b: Anchors the heart valves
c: Provides electrical insulation between the atria and ventricles
d: Provides the framework for the attachment of the myocardium
e: None of these are true functions of the fibrous skeleton of the heart
a, d
b, d
a, c, d
a, b, c, d
e
a, b, c, d
Which are differences between cardiac muscle tissue and skeletal muscle tissue?
a: The sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac muscle is less extensive.
b: The sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac muscle is more organized.
c: Cardiac muscle has intercalated discs; skeletal muscle does not.
d: Cardiac muscle has 1 or 2 nuclei per cell; skeletal muscle has multiple nuclei per cell.
e: Cardiac muscle has more well-defined terminal cisternae.
a, c, d
a, c, e
b, c, e
a, b, e
b, d, e
a, c, d
The metabolic pathways of cardiac muscle make it
somewhat susceptible to heart attack, because it relies so exclusively on aerobic metabolism.
extremely susceptible to heart attack, because it uses such a variety of fuel sources.
somewhat susceptible to heart attack, because it has so few mitochondria.
relatively resistant to heart attack, because it uses exclusively anaerobic metabolism.
relatively resistant to heart attack, because it has a great capacity to accrue oxygen debt.
somewhat susceptible to heart attack, because it relies so exclusively on aerobic metabolism.
The heart valves
stabilize and hold the arteries leaving the heart.
permit the passage of blood in one direction.
separate the right and left sides of the heart.
are only used in the fetal heart.
direct the conduction impulse through the heart muscle.
permit the passage of blood in one direction.
How many half-moon shaped, pocketlike cusps are found in each semilunar valve?
1
2
3
4
6
3
Which valve prevents the backflow of blood into the left ventricle when the ventricles relax?
Left atrioventricular valve
Aortic semilunar valve
Right atrioventricular valve
Pulmonary semilunar valve
None of the choices is correct.
Aortic semilunar valve
As blood is pumped out of the heart and into the major arteries leaving the heart, it
pushes against the semilunar valves and opens them.
pushes against the semilunar valves and closes them.
fills the cusps of the semilunar valves, causing them to expand and block the backflow of blood
pushes against the atrioventricular valves and opens them.
fills the cusps of the atrioventricular valve causing opening of the bicuspid and closure of the tricuspid.
pushes against the semilunar valves and opens them.
An autorhythmic heart cell is one in which
action potentials fire spontaneoulsy.
action potentials are stimulated by internal stores of acetylcholine.
action potentials always occur at exactly the same frequency.
all filaments contract and relax with a high degree of synchrony.
action potentials are initiated by the autonomic nervous system.
action potentials fire spontaneoulsy.
For the repolarization phase of an SA nodal cell action potential,
sodium and potassium channels open.
calcium channels open and sodium channels close.
calcium and potassium channels close.
calcium channels close and potassium channels open.
sodium and chloride channels open.
calcium channels close and potassium channels open.
What is the sequence of events in the transmission of an impulse through the heart muscle?
a: AV node
b: AV bundle
c: SA node
d: Through the atria
e: Through the ventricles
f: Bundle branches
g: Purkinje fibers
c, d, a, b, f, g, e
d, b, a, c, f, g, e
b, a, d, c, f, g, e
f, g, d, c, b, a, e
c, d, a, f, b, g, e
c, d, a, b, f, g, e
The membrane of a contractile cardiac muscle cell contains
fast voltage-gated sodium channels and fast voltage-gated calcium channels.
fast voltage-gated sodium channels and slow voltage-gated calcium channels.
slow voltage-gated sodium channels and slow voltage-gated calcium channels.
slow voltage-gated sodium channels and fast voltage-gated calcium channels.
fast voltage-gated sodium channels and slow voltage-gated calcium channels.
The membrane of a contractile cardiac muscle cell contains
no calcium pumps.
calcium pumps that move calcium out of the cell.
calcium pumps that move calcium into the cell.
calcium pumps that open and allow calcium to diffuse down its concentration gradient to reach equilibrium.
calcium pumps that move calcium out of the cell.
During the plateau phase of a cardiac muscle cell’s action potential, the membrane stays
depolarized as potassium exits and calcium enters.
depolarized as potassium enters and calcium exits.
repolarized as sodium enters and calcium exits.
hyperpolarized as sodium and calcium exit.
hyperpolarized as potassium enters and calcium exits.
depolarized as potassium exits and calcium enters.
Most of the calcium that triggers contraction of cardiac muscle comes
into the cell through leakage channels in the sarcolemma.
into the cell through voltage-gated channels in the sarcolemma.
from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the cell.
from the Golgi apparatus of the cell.
from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the cell.
Which type of muscle cell exhibits a longer refractory period?
Cardiac muscle cell
Skeletal muscle cell
Cardiac muscle cell
What part of the cardiac conduction system is located in the posterior wall of the right atrium, adjacent to the entrance of the superior vena cava?
AV bundle
Bundle branches
Purkinje fibers
AV node
SA node
SA node
The atrioventricular (AV) node is located in the
floor of the left atrium.
floor of the right atrium.
roof of the left ventricle.
back wall of the right ventricle.
back wall of the left ventricle.
floor of the right atrium.
Which segment of the ECG reflects the plateau phase of ventricular muscle cells’ action potentials?
P-T segment
S-T segment
Q-R segment
P-R interval
T-P interval
S-T segment
Someone with tachyarrhythmia would be expected to show an abnormally
small Q-T interval.
large P-R interval.
large R-R interval.
high amplitude P wave.
small Q-T interval.
During the S-T segment, what is occurring within cardiac muscle cells?
Sodium is rapidly diffusing out of atrial muscle cells.
Sodium channels are beginning to open in ventricular cells and calcium is entering through slow channels in atrial cells.
Calcium is entering and potassium is leaving ventricular cells.
Potassium is entering atrial cells and sodium is leaving ventricular cells.
Calcium is entering and potassium is leaving ventricular cells.
During a cardiac cycle, how many of the four chambers contract at any one time?
1
2
4
Highly variable, depending on the heart beat rate
None of the choices is correct.
2
The opening and closing of the heart valves is caused by
contraction and relaxation of papillary muscles that pull on heart strings.
pressure changes of alternating contraction and relaxation during the cardiac cycle.
contraction of the smooth muscle in the walls of the great vessels leaving the heart.
action potentials within the cusps of the valves.
pressure changes of alternating contraction and relaxation during the cardiac cycle.
Just prior to atrial contraction,
all four chambers are at rest and AV valves are open.
all four chambers are at rest and AV valves are closed.
all four chambers are contracting and all valves are open.
both ventricles are contracting and blood is being ejected into the major arteries.
both atria are contracting and blood is being ejected into the major arteries.
all four chambers are at rest and AV valves are open.
The shutting of the semilunar valves occurs during which phase?
Isovolumetric contraction
Ventricular ejection
Isovolumetric relaxation
Atrial contraction and ventricular filling
Late ventricular diastole
Isovolumetric relaxation
Cardiac output equals the
end diastolic volume minus end systolic volume.
blood pressure multiplied by heart rate.
heart rate multiplied by stroke volume.
stroke volume divided by heart rate.
cardiac reserve minus the stroke volume.
heart rate multiplied by stroke volume.
Cardiac reserve is
the potential increase in stroke volume someone would show if they engaged in athletic training.
the increase in cardiac output an individual is capable of demonstrating during vigorous exercise.
the amount of blood left in the heart after the ventricle has contracted during cardiac cycles at rest.
the blood that the heart uses to nourish its cardiac muscle and does not put into general circulation.
the increase in cardiac output an individual is capable of demonstrating during vigorous exercise.
Large doses of certain stimulants can lead to dangerous increases in heart rates. Such a stimulant is a
positive chronotropic agent.
negative chronotropic agent.
positive inotropic agent.
negative inotropic agent.
positive chronotropic agent.
Norepinephrine is considered a positive chronotropic agent because it causes
less calcium to enter heart cells, which leads to lower risk of heart attack.
more forceful contractions during each heart rate.
an increase in the firing rate of SA node cells.
thyroid hormone to have a steadying effect on heart activity.
heart cell membrane potentials to become more positive during action potentials.
an increase in the firing rate of SA node cells.
According to the Frank-Starling law
the more calcium available to the heart cell, the more forcefully it will contract.
as the volume of blood entering the heart increases, ventricular contractions become more forceful.
the faster the heart rate, the larger the stroke volume.
the greater the resistance from the arteries, the higher the blood pressure.
as the volume of blood entering the heart increases, ventricular contractions become more forceful.
A drug that decreased calcium levels in a muscle cell and thereby lowered the number of crossbridges formed during the heart’s contractions would be a
positive chronotropic agent.
negative chronotropic agent.
positive inotropic agent.
negative inotropic agent.
negative inotropic agent.
Which of the following would cause a decrease in cardiac output?
An increase in venous return
An increase in afterload
Addition of positive inotropic agents
An increase in heart rate
An increase in afterload
Sympathetic innervation of the heart arises from the ________ segments of the spinal cord.
T1–T5
T3–T8
T5–T10
T6–T11
T11–L2
T1–T5
The left and right coronary arteries
are interconnected with several high-volume anastomoses allowing for well perfused alternate blood paths.
are functional end arteries because the blockage of one of them leads to tissue death in the area it supplies.
are functional end arteries because the blockage of one of them leads to tissue death in the area it supplies.
What would you expect a cardiologist to recommend if there was substantial occlusion to a patient’s left coronary artery but not the right coronary artery?
Because there are multiple alternate paths for blood delivery, the cardiologist would not intervene.
Because this is a relatively small, unimportant artery, the cardiologist would not intervene.
Because this is an important artery, and alternate vascular paths are inadequate, the cardiologist would treat the condition.
Because occlusions require blood to be moved under greater pressure, the cardiologist would prescribe drugs to raise blood pressure.
Because this is an important artery, and alternate vascular paths are inadequate, the cardiologist would treat the condition.
The function of the coronary sinus is to
connect the top and bottom halves of the heart.
guide the aorta out of the heart.
guide the inferior vena cava into the right atrium.
take blood from the coronary circulation to the right atrium.
shunt blood from the right atrium to the left atrium.
take blood from the coronary circulation to the right atrium.
Which prenatal structure forms the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk?
Truncus arteriosus
Sinus venosus
Primitive atrium
Primitive ventricle
Conus cordis
Truncus arteriosus
The tetralogy of Fallot is
a condition in which the left and right sides of the heart are completely reversed.
a developmental disorder that is a cardiac septal defect.
an exceptionally fast heart rate.
an inadequate cardiac output due to poorly contracting heart chambers.
occlusion of the left coronary artery.
a developmental disorder that is a cardiac septal defect.
A network of small arteries called the ___________ provides a blood supply to the tunica externa of very large vessels.
vasa vasorum
companion vessels
distributing arteries
fenestrated arteries
thoroughfare channels
vasa vasorum
The ________ is composed of an endothelium and a subendothelial layer made up of a thin layer of areolar connective tissue.
tunica media
tunica externa
tunica intima
tunica adventitia
None of the answers is correct.
tunica intima
As an arterial pathway moves farther from the heart, the arteries
get smaller.
get larger.
show no change in their lumen size.
get smaller.
Which are found in the capillary wall?
a: Endothelium
b: Subendothelial layer
c: Internal elastic lamina
d: Intercellular clefts
e: External elastic lamina
f: Basement membrane
a, d, f
a, b, d, f
a, b, d, e, f
a, c, d, e, f
b, d, e, f
a, d, f
The largest arteries of the body are classified as
muscular arteries.
arterioles.
elastic arteries.
muscular and elastic because they have the same dimensions.
None of the answers is correct.
elastic arteries.
Which of the artery types contain the internal and external elastic laminae?
Elastic arteries
Arterioles
Muscular arteries
Elastic and muscular arteries
Elastic arteries and arterioles
Muscular arteries
Precapillary sphincters will
control blood flow into the true capillaries.
cause blood to flow directly from the metarteriole into the postcapillary venule.
open when the tissue needs nutrients.
close when the tissue’s needs have been met.
All of the answers are correct.
All of the answers are correct.
Sinusoids are found in
a: bone marrow
b: spleen
c: small intestine
d: kidney
e: liver
f: muscle
g: skin
a, b, e
b, c, e, f
c, d
f, g
b, c, d, g
a, b, e
A venule becomes a vein when its diameter is greater than ____ micrometers.
1
10
100
1000
100
Valves in veins
make the use of a skeletal muscle pump unnecessary for venous blood flow.
are the leading cause of high blood pressure.
are found only in the largest veins.
cause venous blood flow to go in only one direction.
are formed of the tunica media.
cause venous blood flow to go in only one direction.
Which part of the circulatory system holds the largest amount of blood?
Pulmonary arteries
Pulmonary veins
Systemic arteries
Systemic veins
Systemic veins
Circulation to the spleen demonstrates a(n)
Correct Answer
simple pathway, as one artery delivers blood and one vein drains the organ.
Incorrect Response
simple pathway, as its two capillary beds are separated by a portal vein.
anastomosis, as one artery delivers blood and one vein drains the organ.
anastomosis, as its two capillary beds are separated by a portal vein.
simple pathway, as one artery delivers blood and one vein drains the organ.
A portal system
includes a functional end artery that makes an arterial anastomosis.
is a simple circulatory system with an areriovenous anastomosis.
is one in which blood flows through two capillary beds before being sent back to the heart.
is one in which circulation to a large organ involves only one artery and one main (portal) vein.
is one in which multiple arteries converge on one organ or body region.
is one in which blood flows through two capillary beds before being sent back to the heart.
Oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported between the blood and interstitial fluid by way of
exocytosis and endocytosis by endothelial cells.
pinocytosis using fluid-filled vesicles.
diffusion from areas of higher concentration to lower concentration.
active transport (using ATP) by protein carriers of endothelial cells.
diffusion from areas of higher concentration to lower concentration.
Blood colloid osmotic pressure is largely due to
the proteins in the blood, and it promotes reabsorption.
the high amount of water in the blood, and it promotes diffusion out of the capillaries.
the proteins in the blood, and it promotes filtration.
the pressure generated by the heart, and it favors osmosis into the arteriole end of the capillary bed.
the high amount of water in the blood, and it promotes filtration from arterioles.
the proteins in the blood, and it promotes reabsorption.
Which statement is accurate?
Filtration dominates at the arterial end of a capillary bed, and is driven by osmotic pressure.
Filtration dominates at the arterial end of a capillary bed, and is driven by hydrostatic pressure.
Filtration dominates at the venous end of a capillary bed, and is driven by osmotic pressure.
Filtration dominates at the venous end of a capillary bed, and is driven by hydrostatic pressure.
Filtration dominates at the arterial end of a capillary bed, and is driven by hydrostatic pressure.
Net filtration pressure (NFP) is equal to the
blood hydrostatic pressure minus the tissue hydrostatic pressure.
colloid osmotic pressure in the blood divided by resistance in the tissue.
blood pressure times the total peripheral resistance.
net hydrostatic pressure minus the net colloid osmotic pressure.
osmotic pressure in the tissue minus the hydrostatic pressure in the blood.
net hydrostatic pressure minus the net colloid osmotic pressure.
If someone were to have abnormally low levels of protein in their blood, then net filtration pressure would
be higher than normal.
be lower than normal.
be higher than normal.
If someone were to decrease their food intake and increase aerobic exercise, they might lose adipose tissue and condition their muscles. These changes would also influence their blood vessels, as there would be
regression of blood vessels in adipose tissue and angiogenesis in skeletal muscle.
angiogenesis in both adipose tissue and skeletal muscle.
regression of blood vessels in both adipose tissue and skeletal muscle.
angiogenesis in adipose tissue and regression of blood vessels in skeletal muscle.
changes in the diameter of blood vessels, but no angiogenesis nor regression.
regression of blood vessels in adipose tissue and angiogenesis in skeletal muscle.
At a capillary bed, a vasoconstrictor
constricts local arterioles, thereby increasing pressure and increasing local blood flow.
stimulates precapillary sphincters and decreases local blood flow.
dilates local arterioles, thereby increasing pressure and increasing local blood flow.
inhibits precapillary sphincters to relax and decreases local blood flow.
constricts precapillary sphincters and thereby increases local blood flow.
stimulates precapillary sphincters and decreases local blood flow.
Tissue damage can trigger local release of histamine, which can
stimulate release of nitric oxide, a vasodilator.
stimulate release of nitric oxide, a vasoconstrictor.
inhibit release of nitric oxide, a vasodilator.
inhibit release of nitric oxide, a vasoconstrictor.
stimulate release of nitric oxide, a vasodilator.
Which statement accurately describes total blood flow?
Total blood flow equals cardiac output and is a fixed number given that there is a finite amount of blood in the body.
Total blood flow equals cardiac output and can vary significantly over time with activity levels.
Total blood flow is measured as the sum of blood flow to upper and lower extremities and is measured in liters.
Total blood flow is measured as the sum of blood flow to upper and lower extremities and is measured in beats per minute.
Changes in total blood flow are accompanied by equivalent changes in local blood flow in all areas of the body.
Total blood flow equals cardiac output and can vary significantly over time with activity levels.
Systolic blood pressure is recorded
in arteries and is the minimum pressure that is recorded during ventricular relaxation.
in arteries and is the maximal pressure that is recorded during ventricular contraction.
in veins and is the maximal pressure recorded during atrial contraction.
in veins and is the minimum pressure recorded during atrial relaxation.
in both arteries and veins and is the maximum pressure recorded during diastole of the heart.
in arteries and is the maximal pressure that is recorded during ventricular contraction.
The respiratory pump assists blood movement within the veins of the trunk, because as a person inspires,
intra-abdominal and intrathoracic pressure both increase.
intra-abdominal and intrathoracic pressure both decrease.
intra-abdominal pressure increases and intrathoracic pressure decreases.
intra-abdominal pressure decreases and intrathoracic pressure increases.
intra-abdominal pressure increases and intrathoracic pressure decreases.
Imagine someone who drank too much water before running a race. Their very watery blood would have
high viscosity and therefore have high resistance.
high viscosity and therefore have low resistance.
low viscosity and therefore have high resistance.
low viscosity and therefore have low resistance.
low viscosity and therefore have low resistance.
The cardiac center of the brainstem includes the
cardioacceleratory center, from which parasympathetic pathways extend.
cardioacceleratory center, from which sympathetic pathways extend.
vasomotor center, from which parasympathetic pathways extend.
cardioinhibitory center, from which sympathetic pathways extend.
All of the choices are correct.
cardioacceleratory center, from which sympathetic pathways extend.
Imagine a patient who loses lots of blood and therefore has less stretch of their aorta with each heartbeat. What reflex will result?
Baroreceptors increase firing, the vasomotor center increases firing, and skin blood vessels will dilate to cause a compensatory increase in flow.
Baroreceptors decrease firing, the cardioacceleratory center increases firing, and cardiac output will exhibit a compensatory increase.
Baroreceptors increase firing, the cardioinhibitory center increases firing, and the heart slows significantly to prevent further bleeding.
Baroreceptors decrease firing, the cardioinhibitory center and vasomotor centers increase firing, the heart slows, and blood is redirected.
Baroreceptors decrease firing, the cardioacceleratory center increases firing, and cardiac output will exhibit a compensatory increase.
Renin converts
antiotensin I to antiotensin II.
angiotensin II to angiotensin I.
angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
antidiuretic hormone to angiotensin.
antidiuretic hormone to angiotensinogen.
angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
Atrial natriuretic peptide stimulates
vasoconstriction, increased urine output, and therefore increased blood pressure.
vasodilation, increased urine output, and therefore decreased blood pressure.
vasoconstriction, decreased urine output, and therefore decreased blood pressure.
vasodilation, decreased urine output, and therefore increased blood pressure.
vasoconstriction, sodium retention, and therefore increased blood pressure.
vasodilation, increased urine output, and therefore decreased blood pressure.
Blood velocity is measured in _________ and is generally _________ related to total cross-sectional area of blood vessels.
cm/second; directly
cm/second; inversely
liter/min; directly
liter/min; inversely
cm/second; inversely
During exercise, blood flow to skeletal muscles increases. What other blood flow changes occur?
Blood flow to coronary vessels increases, and flow to abdominal organs decreases.
Blood flow to skin decreases, and flow to the kidneys increases.
Blood flow to coronary vessels increases, and flow to skin and brain decreases.
Blood flow to skin, heart, and kidneys decreases.
Blood flow to coronary vessels increases, and flow to abdominal organs decreases.
Pulmonary arteries are wider than systemic arteries. Therefore, pulmonary circuit blood pressure is
high and blood flows very rapidly through pulmonary capillaries, maximizing gas exchange.
high and blood flows very slowly through pulmonary capillaries, maximizing gas exchange.
low and blood flows very rapidly through pulmonary capillaries, maximizing gas exchange.
low and blood flows very slowly through pulmonary capillaries, maximizing gas exchange.
low and blood flows very slowly through pulmonary capillaries, maximizing gas exchange.
The end of the aorta occurs when the vessel bifurcates into the
brachiocephalic artery.
subclavian arteries.
common iliac arteries.
common carotid arteries.
None of these answers is correct.
common iliac arteries.
The branch of the external carotid that is responsible for supplying the teeth, gums, nasal cavity, and meninges is the _____ artery.
jugular
maxillary
lingual
occipital
internal carotid
maxillary
The anterior communicating artery of the cerebral arterial circle connects the
posterior cerebral arteries.
anterior cerebral arteries.
vertebral arteries.
basilar artery and the internal carotid artery.
posterior communicating artery and the middle cerebral artery.
anterior cerebral arteries.
The internal thoracic artery will become the _________, which carries blood to the superior abdominal wall.
superior epigastric artery
inferior epigastric artery
anterior intercostal arteries
musculophrenic artery
None of the answers is correct.
superior epigastric artery
The superior vena cava is formed by the merging of the _______ veins.
internal thoracic
inferior epigastric
lumbar
brachiocephalic
internal jugular
brachiocephalic
Superior phrenic arteries supply the ______ and emerge from the _____.
diaphragm; descending abdominal aorta
diaphragm; descending thoracic aorta
stomach; descending abdominal aorta
pancreas; descending abdominal aorta
esophagus; descending thoracic aorta
diaphragm; descending thoracic aorta
The artery that arises from the descending aorta and is immediately inferior to the celiac trunk is the _____ artery.
inferior mesenteric
right gastric
common hepatic
superior mesenteric
splenic
superior mesenteric
Which carries blood from the liver to the inferior vena cava?
Hepatic portal vein
Splenic vein
Inferior mesenteric vein
Superior mesenteric vein
Hepatic veins
Hepatic veins
The left renal vein, right renal vein, right suprarenal vein, and right gonadal vein merge directly into the
superior vena cava.
great saphenous vein.
inferior vena cava.
common iliac vein.
obturator vein.
inferior vena cava.
The arteries that anastomose and form the two arterial arches in the palm are the _____ and _____ arteries.
axillary; subclavian
radial; ulnar
radial; brachial
ulnar; brachial
axillary; brachial
radial; ulnar
The radial and ulnar veins fuse to form ________ veins; all of these veins are _______ veins.
brachial, deep
brachial, superficial
cephalic, deep
cephalic, superficial
brachial, deep
Which path of arteries would a blood cell follow on its way from the thigh to the foot?
Deep femoral a., medial planar a., posterior tibial a., plantar arterial arch
Femoral a., popliteal a., anterior tibial a., dorsalis pedis a.
Internal iliac a., deep femoral a., poplitial a., posterior fibular a.
Lateral sacral a., femoral a., hamstring a., tibial a., dorsalis pedis a.
Femoral a., saphenous a., azygous a., anterior tibial a.
Femoral a., popliteal a., anterior tibial a., dorsalis pedis a.
The umbilical cord contains _____ umbilical vein(s) and _____ umbilical artery(ies).
one; one
two; two
one; two
two; one
two; three
one; two
What causes much of the blood in the fetal right atrium to be shunted to the left atrium through the foramen ovale?
The blood pressure in the right atrium is greater than in the left atrium.
There is a valve that directs the blood that way.
The fetus is in an antigravity situation provided by the amnionic fluid.
The blood pressure in the left atrium is greater than in the right atrium.
The umbilical arteries have valves.
The blood pressure in the right atrium is greater than in the left atrium.
Umbilical arteries carry _______ blood.
deoxygenated
oxygenated
lymph but not
deoxygenated
Low blood pressure may cause the net hydrostatic pressure of a capillary to be less than normal. This will result in a(n) ______ net filtration pressure.
decreased
increased
unchanged
decreased
Which of the following supplies blood to the abdominal wall?
Lumbar arteries
Posterior intercostal arteries
Subclavian arteries
Median sacral artery
Lumbar arteries
Which of the following supplies blood to the urinary bladder?
Superior vesical artery
Superior gluteal artery
Middle rectal artery
Obturator artery
Superior vesical artery
