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Intro to Disease > Exam 1: Ch. 1-6, 9-10, 24 > Flashcards

Exam 1: Ch. 1-6, 9-10, 24 Flashcards

1
Q

lesion

A

any structural abnormality or pathologic change

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2
Q

organic disease

A

disease associated with structural changes in affected tissue or organ

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3
Q

gross examination

A

examining tissue with naked eye

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4
Q

histologic examination

A

examining tissue with a microscope

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5
Q

functional disease

A

disease not associated with any recognizable structural changes in the body

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6
Q

pathology

A

study of structural and functional changes in the body caused by disease

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7
Q

etiology

A

cause of a disease

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8
Q

pathogenesis

A

manner in which a disease develops

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9
Q

morphologic abnormality

A

structural abnormality

morphe-structure or shape

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10
Q

pathologist

A

physician who specializes in diagnosing and classifying diseases primarily by examining morphology of cells and tissue

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11
Q

symptoms

A

way a disease manifests itself in a patient subjectively

e.g. weakness, pain, fatigue

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12
Q

signs

A

objective manifestations of a disease detectable by a clinician
e.g. discoloration, vomiting, etc

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13
Q

asymptomatic disease

A

one that causes no discomfort or disability in patients

-disease is often asymptomatic in early stages and can progress to symptomatic if not caught

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14
Q

etiologic agent

A

agent responsible for causing a disease

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15
Q

5 groups of diseases

A 
congenital/hereditary
inflammatory
degenerative
metabolic
neoplastic
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16
Q

congenital/hereditary disease

A
  • result of developmental disturbances
    ex) hemophilia-hereditary disease in which blood does not clot properly
    ex) congenital heart disease
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17
Q

inflammatory disease

A
  • body reacts to injurious agent by means of inflammation
  • many characterized by inflammation (sore throat, pneumonia) are caused by bacteria or other microbiologic agents
  • others are manifestation of allergic reaction or hypersensitivity (sinus allergies)
  • autoimmune disease
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18
Q

degenerative diseases

A
  • primary abnormality is degeneration of various parts of body
    ex) certain types of arthritis and arteriosclerosis (artery hardening)
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19
Q

metabolic diseases

A
  • chief abnormality is disturbance in important metabolic process in the body
    ex) diabetes, disturbances of endocrine glands, disturbances of fluid and electrolyte balance
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20
Q

neoplastic diseases

A

abnormal cell growth that leads to formation of various types of benign and malignant tumors

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21
Q

health is more than an absence of disease, it is..?

A

condition in which body and mind function efficiently and harmoniously as integrated unit

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22
Q

diagnosis

A

determination of nature and cause of a patient’s illness

based on practitioner’s evaluation of subjective symptoms, physical findings, and results of lab tests

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23
Q

prognosis

A

probable outcome of a disease or disorder; outlook for recovery

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24
Q

clinical history consists of 5 parts:

A
  1. history of current illness
  2. past medical history
  3. family history
  4. social history
  5. review of systems
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25
Q

two types of treatment

A

specific treatment and symptomatic treatment

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26
Q

specific treatment

A

exerts highly specific and favorable effect on basic cause of disease

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27
Q

symptomatic treatment

A

makes patient more comfortable by alleviating symptoms but does not influence course of disease
ex)treating fever, pain, and cough

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28
Q

groups suitable for screening

A

high frequency of disease and tests should target the age group

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29
Q

two classifications of diagnostic tests

A

invasive and noninvasive

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30
Q

clinical laboratory tests

A

determine concentration of various constituents in blood and urine, and concentrations of enzymes in blood

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31
Q

disease

A

any disturbance of the structure or function of the body

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32
Q

microbiologic tests

A

detect presence of disease producing organisms in urine, blood, and feces

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33
Q

electrocardiogram

A

ECG
measures changes in electrical activity of heart during various phases of cardiac cycle
identified abnormal conduction of impulses through the heart

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34
Q

electroencephalogram

A

EEG

measures electrical activity of the brain

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35
Q

electromyogram

A

EMG

measures electrical activity of skeletal muscle during contraction and at rest

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36
Q

radioisotope (radionuclide) studies

A

radioisotope is administered and radiation detectors measure the uptake and excretion of the substance

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37
Q

endoscopy

A

examination of interior of the body by means of various types of rigid or flexible tubular instruments

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38
Q

esophagoscope

A

examines interior of esophagus

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39
Q

cystoscope

A

examines interior of bladder

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40
Q

sigmoidoscope

A

examines rectum and sigmoid colon

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41
Q

laparoscope

A

visualizes abdominal and pelvic organs and performs various surgical procedures (cholecystectomy, appendectomy)

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42
Q

ultrasound

A

maps echoes produced by high frequency sound waves transmitted into the body

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43
Q

echocardiogram

A

examination of heart by means of ultrasound procedure

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44
Q

roentgenogram

A

photograph taken with x-rays

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45
Q

how do xrays work?

A

tissues of low density transmit most of the rays and appears black, and tissues of high density absorb rays and appear white

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46
Q

contrast medium

A

dense radiopaque substance that adheres to linings of internal organs making them easier to see on an xray

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47
Q

arteriogram/angiogram

A

xray technique for studying caliber of blood vessels by injection of radiopaque material into the vessel

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48
Q

cardiac catheterization

A

technique to determine blood flow through chambers of the heart and to detect abnormal communications between cardiac chambers

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49
Q

computed tomographic scan

A

CT scan
xray with highly sophisticated xray machine that produces images of the body in cross section by rotating the xray tube around the patient at various levels

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50
Q

magnetic resonance imaging

A

MRI

produces computer constructed imagines of various organs and tissues like CT scans based on movement of hydrogen atoms

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51
Q

advantages of MRI

A
  • detects abnormalities in tissue surrounded by bone

- sharp contrast between gray and white matter in brain and spine

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52
Q

positron emission tomography scans

A

PET scan
injects biochemical compound labeled with positron-emitting isotope, and assess distribution and metabolism of compound by measuring radiation output of the compound
-major application: detect and measure changes in brain functions associated with disease such as stroke, tumors, Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s

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53
Q

disadvantages of PET scans

A
  • very expensive

- not widely available

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54
Q

tissue

A

group of similar cells joined to perform a specific function

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55
Q

organs

A

group of different tissues organized to perform a specific function

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56
Q

organ systems

A

group of organs that function together as a unit, such as various organs of GI tract

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57
Q

organelle

A

small structure in cytoplasm of a cell

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58
Q

DNA

A

nucleic acid present in chromosomes of the nuclei of cells that carries genetic info

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59
Q

RNA

A

nucleic acid in nucleoli of cells. component of messenger, transfer, and ribosomal RNA

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60
Q

mitochondria

A

rod shaped structures capable of converting food into energy to power cell
POWERHOUSE OF THE CELL

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61
Q

adenosine triphosphate ATP

A

high energy phosphate compound that liberates energy to power numerous cellular metabolic processes

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62
Q

endoplasmic reticulum

A

mass of hollow tubular channels within cytoplasm of cell, frequently bordered by ribosomes

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63
Q

ribosome

A

small cytoplasmic organelle that synthesizes proteins. usually attached to endoplasmic reticulum but may be free in cytoplasm

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64
Q

golgi apparatus

A

group of membrane lined sacs found in cytoplasm near nucleus

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65
Q

lysosome

A

small cytoplasmic vacuole containing digestive enzymes

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66
Q

phagocytosis

A

ingestion of particulate of foreign material by cells

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67
Q

peroxisome

A

cytoplasmic organelle containing various enzymes, including those that decompose toxic hydrogen peroxide

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68
Q

centrioles

A

short cylindrical structures located adjacent to the nucleus that participate in the formation of spindle fibers during cell division

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69
Q

cytoskeleton

A

protein tubules and filaments that form structural framework of cells

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70
Q

parenchymal cell

A

functional cell of organ or tissue

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71
Q

parenchyma

A

functional cells of an organ as contrasted with connective and supporting tissue that forms its framework

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72
Q

endothelium

A

internal lining of blood vessels and interior of the heart

-simple squamous epithelium

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73
Q

mesothelium

A

layer of flat squamous epithelial cells that covers surfaces of the pleural, pericardial, and peritoneal cavities

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74
Q

mesoderm

A

middle germ layer of embryo

-supporting tissues, muscle, circulatory system, urogenital

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75
Q

keratin

A

insoluble sulfur-containing protein that is the principal constituent of hair and nails

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76
Q

exocrine glands

A

discharges secretions through a duct onto a surface

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77
Q

endocrine glands

A

discharges secretions directly into the bloodstream

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78
Q

matrix

A

material in which connective tissue cells are embedded

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79
Q

neuron

A

nerve cell, including the cell body and its processes

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80
Q

neuroglia

A

supporting cells of tissue of the nervous system

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81
Q

astrocyte

A

large stellate cell having highly branched processes. forms structural framework of nervous system. one of the neuroglial cells

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82
Q

oligodendroglia

A

one type of neuroglia that surrounds nerve fibers within the central nervous system

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83
Q

microglia

A

phagocytic cells of the nervous system comparable to macrophages in other tissues

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84
Q

stroma

A

tissue that forms the framework of an organ

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85
Q

trophoblast

A

cell derived from fertilized ovum that gives rise to fetal membranes and contributes to placenta formation

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86
Q

inner cell mass

A

group of cells that are derived from fertilized ovum and destined to form embryo

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87
Q

germ layers

A

three layers of cells derived from inner cell mass, each destined to form specific organs and tissues in embryo

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88
Q

ectoderm

A

outer germ layer in embryo

-external covering of body, various organs that are in contact with external environment (eyes, nervous system, ears)

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89
Q

entoderm

A

inner germ layer of embryo

-internal lining–epithelium of pharynx, respiratory tract, GI tract + organs

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90
Q

genetic code

A

information carried by codons of DNA molecules in chromosomes

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91
Q

base

A

solution containing excess of hydroxyl ions and a pH>7

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92
Q

microRNA

A

small RNA molecules that regulate activity of individual genes

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93
Q

osmolarity

A

measure of osmotic pressure exerted by a solution

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94
Q

isotonic solution

A

solution with same osmolarity as body fluids; cells neither shrink nor swell

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95
Q

hypertonic solution

A

solution with greater osmolarity than body fluids; cells shrink b/c water moves out of cells

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96
Q

hypotonic solution

A

solution with lower osmolarity than body fluids; cells swell b/c water moves into them

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97
Q

pinocytosis

A

liquid absorption by cells in which a segment of cell membrane forms small pockets and engulfs the liquid

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98
Q

hypertrophy

A

enlargement or overgrowth of organ caused by increase in size of its constituent cells

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99
Q

hyperplasia

A

increase in number of cells

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100
Q

metaplasia

A

change from one type of cell to a more resistant type

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101
Q

dysplasia

A

abnormal maturation of cells

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102
Q

neoplasia

A

pathologic process that results in formation and growth of a tumor

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103
Q

necrosis

A

structural changes associated with cell death

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104
Q

apoptosis

A

programmed cell death that occurs after a cell has lived normal life span

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105
Q

rough ER

A

contains ribosomes, synthesizes protein for cells

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106
Q

smooth ER

A

contains enzymes that synthesize lipids and some other compounds

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107
Q

4 groups of tissues

A

epithelium, connective/supporting, muscle, and nerve

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108
Q

epithelium

A
  • exterior of the body, line interior body surfaces that communicate with outside (GI tract, urinary tract, vagina, etc)
  • forms glands
  • makes up functional cells of organs with excretory or secretory functions
  • squamous, cuboidal, or columnar
  • simple or stratified
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109
Q

basement membrane

A

base layer of epithelial tissues that holds the cells together

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110
Q

simple epithelium

A
  • single layer
  • lines pulmonary air sacs, vascular system, body cavities
  • simple columnar lines GI tract
  • pseudostratified lines respiratory tract
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111
Q

stratified epithelium

A

-squamous lines external covering of body, oral cavity, esophagus, vagina

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112
Q

keratinization

A

top layers of squamous cells accumulate keratin that forms a layer that protects the underlying cells

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113
Q

transitional epithelium

A

layer of large superficial cells covering a deeper cuboidal layer
-characteristic of bladder and other parts of urinary tract (allows bladder to stretch

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114
Q

functions of Epithelium

A

protective, absorb, secrete, form glands

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115
Q

connective tissue

A

various types of loose and dense fibrous, elastic, reticular, adipose, and cartilage tissues
-originate from mesoderm

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116
Q

3 types of fibers in connective tissue

A

collagen fibers-long and flexible, don’t stretch
elastic fibers-made of elastin, not as strong and stretch readily
reticular fibers-similar to collagen but thin and delicate

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117
Q

fibrous tissue

A

loose fibrous-most widely distributed, forms subcutaneous tissue and fill around organs
dense fibrous-forms ligaments and tendons

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118
Q

elastic tissue

A

forms membranes around blood vessel walls

walls of trachea and bronchi

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119
Q

reticular tissue

A

fine meshwork of reticulin fibers, form supporting framework of various organs

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120
Q

adipose tissue

A

variety of loose fibrous tissue with large numbers of fat cells

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121
Q

cartilage

A

type of supporting tissue in which cells are dispersed in dense matrix, 3 types of cartilage

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122
Q

3 types of cartilage

A

hyaline-blue and translucent, only a few fine collagen fibers in matrix, ends of bones where they form movable joints, connects ribs to sternum
elastic-yellow elastic fibers in matrix and found in cartilaginous portion of ears
fibrocartilage-many dense collagen bundles in matrix, found where cartilage subjected to weight bearing stress (vertebral discs, some knee cartilages)

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123
Q

bone

A

rigid supporting tissue in which matrix containing the bone forming cells is impregnated with calcium salts

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124
Q

muscle tissue

A

filaments of specialized proteins-actin and myosin

3 types of muscle fibers

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125
Q

3 types of muscle fibers

A

smooth muscle-walls of hollow organs and blood vessels, functions automatically
striated muscle-moves skeleton, voluntary control
cardiac muscle-resembles striated, only found in heart

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126
Q

nerve tissue

A

composed of neurons that transmit impulses, and supporting cells called neuroglia
3 types of neuroglial cells

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127
Q

3 types of neuroglial cells

A

astrocytes, oligodendroglia, microglia

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128
Q

nucleotide

A

basic structure of DNA, single phosphate group linked to 5 carbon sugar, deoxyribose, and a base

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129
Q

duplication

A

DNA separates, and each strand is a model for synthesizing a new chain
-forms two double strands

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130
Q

mRNA does?

A

carries the DNA message to ribosomes in cytoplasm, to “tell the cell what to do”

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131
Q

tRNA does?

A

transfers the amino acids to the ribosomes to be assembled in order as specified by mRNA

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132
Q

diffusion

A

movement of dissolved particles (solute) from a more concentrated solution to a more dilute solution
-passive process

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133
Q

osmosis

A

movement of water molecules from dilute solution to concentrated solution
-passive process

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134
Q

osmotic pressure/activity

A

“water attracting” property of a solution, related to concentration of dissolved particles in solution
-higher concentration=higher osmotic pressure

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135
Q

active transport

A

transfer of a substance across cell membrane from low concentration to high concentration
-requires energy, moves against concentration gradien

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136
Q

atrophy

A

reduction in size of cells responding to diminished function, inadequate hormonal stimulation, or reduced blood supply

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137
Q

two most common changes with cell injury

A

cell swelling and fatty change

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138
Q

cell swelling

A

cell cannot transport potassium into the cell and move sodium out, so sodium builds up and causes cell to swell

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139
Q

fatty change

A

cell can’t metabolize fat, leading to accumulation of fat in cytoplasm
-common in liver cells

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140
Q

homologous chromosomes

A

matched pair of chromosomes, one derived from each parent

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141
Q

autosome

A

chromosome other than a sex chromosome

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142
Q

sex chromosomes

A

X and Y chromosomes that determine genetic sex

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143
Q

genome

A

total of all the genes contained in a cell’s chromosomes

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144
Q

gene product

A

protein or enzyme specified by a gene

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145
Q

exon

A

the part of a chromosomal DNA chain that codes for a specific protein or enzyme

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146
Q

intron

A

noncoding part of a chromosomal DNA chain

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147
Q

Human Genome Project

A

international collaboration of scientists who mapped nucleotide sequence of the entire human genome

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148
Q

Barr body

A

inactivated X chromosome applied to the nuclear membrane in the female
-sex chromatin body

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149
Q

mitosis

A

cell division of most cells in which chromosomes are duplicated in the daughter cells and are identical with those in the parent cell

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150
Q

meiosis

A

special type of cell division in gametes in which the number of chromosomes is reduced by 1/2 in ovum and sperm

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151
Q

gametogenesis

A

development of mature eggs and sperm from precursor cells

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152
Q

daughter cell

A

cell resulting from division of a single (parent) cell

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153
Q

growth factor

A

soluble growth promoting substance that attaches to receptors on the cell membrane of other cells, which activates the receptors and initiates events leading to growth or division of target cells

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154
Q

chromatid

A

one of two newly formed chromosomes held together by centromere

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155
Q

centromere

A

structure that joins each pair of chromatids formed by chromosome duplication

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156
Q

synapse

A

pairing of homologous chromosomes in meiosis

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157
Q

crossover

A

interchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes during synapse and meiosis

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158
Q

gonad

A

general term referring to either ovary or testis

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159
Q

gametes

A

reproductive cells, eggs, and sperm, each with 23 chromosomes that unite during fertilization to form a zygote with 46 chromosomes

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160
Q

spermatids

A

germ cells in a late stage of development just before complete maturation into sperm

161
Q

granulosa cells

A

cells lining ovarian follicles

162
Q

polar body

A

structure extruded during meiosis of oocyte that contains discarded chromosomes and a small amount of cytoplasm

163
Q

karyotype

A

arrangement of chromosomes from a single cell arrangement in pairs in descending order according to size of chromosome and position of centromere

164
Q

locus

A

position of gene on a chromosome, different forms of same gene are always found at the same locus on a chromosome

165
Q

allele

A

one of several related genes that may occupy the same locus on a homologous chromosome

166
Q

heterozygous

A

having two different alleles at given gene loci on homologous pair of chromosomes

167
Q

recessive gene

A

gene that expresses itself only in homozygous state

168
Q

dominant gene

A

gene that expresses itself in heterozygous state

169
Q

sex linked gene

A

gene present on X chromosome

170
Q

hemizygous

A

term applied to genes on X chromosome in the male

171
Q

major histocompatibility complex

A

group of genes on chromosome 6 that determine antigens on surface of cells
MHC

172
Q

human leukocyte

A

unique histocompatibility antigens (self antigens) on the surface of cells. also MHC antigens

173
Q

HLA system

A

genes of histocompatibility complex and antigens that they determine on the surface of cells

174
Q

haplotype

A

set of HLA genes on one chromosome that is transmitted as a set

175
Q

rheumatoid arthritis

A

systemic disease primarily affecting the synovial cavities with major manifestations in small joints

176
Q

autoimmune disease

A

associated with formation of cell mediated or humoral immunity against subject’s own cells or tissue components

177
Q

recombinant DNA technology

A

methods for combining a gene from one organism such as a gene specifying insulin synthesis, with genes from another organism, such as a bacterium

178
Q

genetic engineering

A

aka recombinant DNA technology

179
Q

gene splicing

A

aka recombinant DNA technology

180
Q

plasmid

A

small, circular DNA molecule separate from the main bacterial chromosome

181
Q

what does miRNA (micro RNA) usually do?

A

blocks action of mRNA, preventing synthesis of protein (gene product) directed by mRNA which blocks gene function

182
Q

single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)

A

minor variations in many nucleotides in genes; affects how gene functions such as why people respond differently to foods and drugs

183
Q

gene profile

A

analyzing multiple genes in people within specific groups having risk factors for a disease or condition to identify a profile that predicts a favorable response or susceptibility to a condition

184
Q

Lyon hypothesis

A

female is composed of mixture of two types of cells with respect to the active X chromosome (one of two X chromosomes is inactivated randomly)

185
Q

4 stages of mitosis

A
  1. prophase: chromosomes shorten, centrioles form mitotic spindle and membrane breaks down
  2. metaphase: chromosomes center inside cell, mitotic spindles attach to centromeres
  3. anaphase: chromatids separate and are pulled to opposite sides of the cell
  4. telophase: nuclear membranes of two daughter cells reform, cytoplasm divides
186
Q

first meiotic division

A

prophase: chromosomes lie side by side (synapse) and exchange genetic material (crossover)
metaphase: chromosomes arranged in plane within middle of cell
anaphase: chromosomes separate and move to opposite sides of cell
telophase: two daughter cells form, each with one chromosome that is not an exact copy of parent cell

187
Q

second meiotic division

A

two chromatids composing each chromosome separate and two new daughter cells formed from each cell, each with half normal number of chromosomes (total of 4 daughter cells with one chromatid each)

188
Q

germ cells

A

precursor cells in the testes and ovaries that are capable of developing into mature sperm or ova

189
Q

spermatogenesis

A

spermatogonia (precursor cells) have 46 chromosomes, divide by mitosis to form primary spermatocytes, that divide by meiosis to form two secondary spermatocytes each with 23 chromosomes. secondary spermatocytes divide again by meiosis to form two spermatids with 23 chromosomes that mature into sperm
—-takes two months

190
Q

oogenesis

A

oogonia (precursor cells) contain 46 chromosomes, and divide repeatedly before birth forming primary oocytes with 46 chromosomes. granulosa cells surround oocytes forming primary follicles, primary oocytes begin prophase of meiosis but many don’t complete. ones that do stay inactive until puberty, and ovulation begins with PGH, FSH, and LH, one oocyte discharged, completing first meiotic division forming two unequal daughter cells, the smaller one is discarded, (secondary-half chromosomes and most of cytoplasm, and polar body-half chromosomes and almost no cytoplasm). secondary oocyte begins second meiotic division, forming mature ovum and second polar body

191
Q

two major differences between spermatogenesis and oogenesis

A
  1. 4 spermatozoa produced from precursor cell, but only one ovum
  2. spermatogenesis occurs continuously and takes two months, but all oocytes were formed before birth and stayed in prolonged prophase of 1st meiotic division until ovulation
192
Q

codominant

A

both alleles of a pair are expressed

193
Q

gene imprinting

A

though the mother and father contribute identical genes, the genes may have different effects because they have been modified in the parents during spermatogenesis or oogenesis

194
Q

where else contains genes besides chromosomes?

A

mitochondria, they have small amounts of DNA that have some of the genes required for synthesis of energy generating proteins

195
Q

major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins are important because…

A

they are a group of genes on chromosome 6 that determine antigens on cells, and these are required to match between organ donor and recipient, and they also take part in generating immune response to foreign antigens

196
Q

recombinant DNA technology/genetic engineering/gene splicing

A

insertion of a gene that encodes a desired product (such as insulin) into a bacterium (gene inserted into plasmid) or yeast

197
Q

gene therapy

A

normal gene is inserted into a defective cell lacking an enzyme or structural protein the cell needs to function effectively, and the inserted gene compensates for the missing or dysfunctional gene

198
Q

4 goals for successful application of gene therapy

A
  1. identify and select correct gene
  2. choose proper cell to receive gene
  3. select efficient means of getting gene into cell
  4. ensure new gene can function effectively w/o disrupting other functions
199
Q

exudate

A

fluid, leukocytes, and debris that accumulate as a result of inflammation

200
Q

adhesions

A

bands of fibrous tissue that form subsequent to an inflammation and bind adjacent tissues together

201
Q

resolution

A

regression of an inflammatory process without significant tissue destruction and with return of tissues to normal

202
Q

mast cell

A

specialized connective tissue cell containing granules filled with histamine and other chemical mediators

203
Q

vasodilator

A

substance that dilates blood vessels

204
Q

serotonin

A

vasoconstrictor mediator of inflammation released from platelets

205
Q

prostaglandin

A

complex derivative of a fatty acid that has widespread physiologic effects

206
Q

leukotriene

A

prostaglandin-like mediator of inflammation

207
Q

bradykinin

A

chemical mediator of inflammation derived from components in blood plasma

208
Q

infection

A

inflammation caused by a disease-producing organism

209
Q

cellulitis

A

acute spreading inflammation affecting the skin or deeper tissues

210
Q

abscess

A

localized accumulation of pus in tissues

211
Q

lymphangitis

A

inflammation of lymph vessels draining a site of infection

212
Q

lymphadenitis

A

inflammation of lymph nodes draining a site of infection

213
Q

septicemia

A

infection in which large numbers of pathogenic bacteria are present in the bloodstream

214
Q

virulence

A

ability of an organism to cause disease

215
Q

inflammatory reaction

A

nonspecific response to any agent causing cell injury

-agent can be physical (heat or cold), chemical (acid), or microbiologic (bacterium and virus)

216
Q

local effects of inflammation

A
  • capillary dilation (increase blood flow, warmth, and redness)
  • increase capillary permeability (more fluid absorbed into tissues, more swelling)
  • leukocytes go to injury site and attach to endothelium of vessels
217
Q

systemic effects of inflammation

A

elevated fever and leukocytosis (increase WBC in blood)

218
Q

characteristic signs of inflammation

A
  • heat and redness (from dilated vessels)
  • swelling (accumulated fluid)
  • tenderness and pain (irritated nerve endings)
219
Q

serous exudate

A

fluid mixture with mostly fluid and little protein

220
Q

purulent exudate

A

fluid mixture that is largely inflammatory cells (pus)

221
Q

fibrinous exudate

A

fluid mixture rich in fibrinogen that coagulates and forms fibrin, which forms a sticky film on the surface of inflamed tissue

222
Q

acute inflammatory process

A

polymorphonuclear leukocyte cell is important, mostly phagocytic
-mononuclear cells clear tissue debris (monocyte, macrophage)

223
Q

severe inflammatory process

A
  • systemic effects evident (fever, feeling ill)
  • bone marrow increase production of leukocytes, more in bloodstream
  • liver produces acute phase proteins such as C-reactive protein
  • usually results in tissue damage and scarring
224
Q

mild inflammatory process

A

self-limiting, subsides with tissue resolution (regression and returning to normal)

225
Q

outcomes of inflammation

A

depending on amt. of tissue damage:

  1. resolution
  2. repair
  3. areas of destruction replaced with scarring
  4. mediators intensify inflammatory process
  5. mediators generate more mediators
226
Q

chemical mediators of inflammation

A

chemical agents that intensify inflammatory process

227
Q

cell-derived mediators

A

mast cells, histamine, serotonin, prostaglandins, leukotrienes

228
Q

mediators from blood plasma

A

bradykinin, complement

229
Q

complement

A

group of blood proteins that act in a regular sequence activated by antigen-antibody reaction

230
Q

lysosomal emzymes

A

digest protein material and cause most tissue damage when released from leukocytes, from cytoplasm of phagocytic neutrophils and monocytes

231
Q

antigen-antibody reaction

A

antigen (toxic substance) interacts with antibody (defense) and activate complement, which generates mediators that induce inflammatory reaction. leukocytes are attracted to the site and release lysosomal enzymes

232
Q

harmful effects of inflammation

A
  • tissue injury due to injurious agent and inflammatory reaction itself
  • some are persistent, use adrenal corticosteroid hormones to recude tissue damage
233
Q

factors that influence infection outcome

A
  1. virulence of organisms
  2. # of invading organisms
  3. host resistance
    ex) large # of organisms + high virulence + low resistance=easy development
234
Q

chronic infection

A

state in which pathogenic organism and host are evenly matched

  • quiet, smoldering inflammation, and repeated attempts at healing
  • lymphocytes, plasma cells, monocytes
235
Q

two defense mechanisms that protect us from disease

A

inflammatory reaction

acquired immunity-develops after contact with pathogenic microorganism

236
Q

two types of acquired immunity

A

humoral immunity and cell mediated immunity

237
Q

humoral immunity

A

associated w/ production of antibodies

-main defense against bacteria and bacterial toxins

238
Q

cell-mediated immunity

A
  • formation of population of lymphocytes that attack and destroy foreign material
  • main defense against virus, fungi, parasite, and some bacteria
  • how the body rejects organ transplants
  • eliminates abnormal cells that arise spontaneously during cell division
239
Q

hypersensitivity

A

increased response, altered reactivity to bacterial products or foreign material, leading to intense inflammatory reaction
-usually has some degree of immunity

240
Q

autoantibodies

A

antibodies against his/her own cells

  • formed during autoimmune disease
  • injure or destroy patient’s cells/tissue components
241
Q

for immune response to be set in motion, …..

A

antigen must be displayed on cell membrane

  • lymphocytes interact with specific antigen
  • B lymphocytes divide and mature into antibody forming plasma cells
  • T lymphocytes form diverse population of cells that regulate immune response and generate cell mediated immune reaction to eliminate antigen
  • lag phase of about a week before immune response
242
Q

what is lymphocytes’ role in immunity?

A

they respond to the foreign antigen and attack it

243
Q

cytokines

A

general term for chemical messengers that take part in any function of the immune system
-secreted by lymphocytes, macrophages, and other cells

244
Q

lymphokines

A

soluble protein chemical messenger secreted by lymphocytes that exert effects on and communicate with other cells

245
Q

monokines

A

soluble messenger proteins secreted by monocytes

246
Q

interferon

A

interferes with multiplication of viruses within the cell

247
Q

interleukin

A

sends regulatory signals between cells of the immune system

248
Q

tumor necrosis factor

A

destroys foreign or abnormal cells and tumor cells

249
Q

precursor cells for lymphatic system develop into two groups:

A
  1. T-lymphocyte (thymus dependent): precursor cells migrated from marrow to thymus
  2. B-lymphocyte (bone marrow): precursor cells stayed in bone marrow
250
Q

natural killer cells

A

lymphocytes that can destroy target cells without prior antigenic contact

251
Q

T-lymphocytes are what percent of circulating lymphocytes?

A

2/3

252
Q

B-lymphocytes are what percent of circulating lymphocytes?

A

1/3

253
Q

natural killer cells are what percent of circulating cells?

A

10-15% and have neither T or B receptors

254
Q

3 phases of interaction between antigen and antigen-processing cells (lymphocytes)

A
  1. recognition of foreign antigen
  2. proliferation of lymphocytes programmed to respond to antigen, forming large group of cells
  3. destruction of foreign antigen by lymphocytes programmed to
255
Q

how do major histocompatibility proteins (MHC) play a role in immune response?

A
  • they present the antigen to the responding cells to generate a response
  • MHC class 1 are present on nucleated cells
  • MHC class 2 are present on B lymphocytes, macrophages, some activated T lymphocytes
256
Q

T lymphocytes response to antigens

A

can’t respond until a macrophage takes the antigen in (phagocytosis), digests it and displays the antigen on its cell membrane combined with its MHC class 2 proteins

257
Q

B lymphocytes response to antigens

A

immunoglobulin molecules function as receptors that bind antigens, it takes in the antigen and processes it into fragments, and displays fragments on cell membrane with its MHC class 2 proteins

258
Q

regulator T cells

A

helper T cells that regulate immune system by establishing balance b/w promoting and inhibiting immune response

259
Q

effector T cells

A

cytotoxic and delayed hypersensitivity T cells that protect the body by attacking and destroying body cells infected

260
Q

what cells are destroyed in AIDS?

A

T lymphocytes

261
Q

cytotoxic T cells

A

respond only to antigens complexed with MHC class 1 proteins displayed on host cells

262
Q

delayed hypersensitivity cells

A

respond only to processed antigens displayed on macrophages or related cells with MHC class 2 proteins

263
Q

immune response genes

A
  • closely associated with HLA complex on chromosome 6
  • control immune response by regulating T and B cell proliferation
  • influence resistance to infection and tumors
  • influence likelihood of autoimmune disease
264
Q

role of complement components in immune response

A
  • functions with immune system to destroy or inactivate all types of foreign antigens (classical-antigen/antibody interactions—or alternative pathway-bacterial cell wall material generated during inflammatory reaction)
  • complement components accomplish several functions (mediate inflammation, coat surface of bacteria, and generate an attack complex)
265
Q

immunoglobulins

A

antibodies (globulins) produced by plasma cells, called this to emphasize role in immunity

  • 5 classes (M, G, A, D, and E)
  • can only react w/ antigen that induced formation
266
Q

Immunoglobulin G (IgG)

A

smaller, principal antibody in response to most infectious agents

267
Q

Immunoglobulin M (IgM)

A

large (macroglobulin), very efficient combining with fungi

268
Q

Immunoglobulin E (IgE)

A

found in minute quantities in blood; concentration increases in allergic individuals

269
Q

Immunoglobulin A (IgA)

A

produced by antibody-forming cells in respiratory and GI mucosa
-combines with harmful antigens, forming antigen/antibody complexes that cannot be absorbed, preventing antigens from inducing sensitization

270
Q

Immunoglobulin D (IgD)

A

found on cell membrane of B lymphocytes, present in minute quantities in blood

271
Q

4 hypersensitivity reactions

A
  1. anaphylactic (immediate)
  2. cytotoxic
  3. immune complex
  4. delayed/cell mediated hypersensitivity
272
Q

anaphylactic (immediate) hypersensitivity

A
  • IgE fix to mast cells and basophils. contact with sensitizing antigen triggers mediator release, and inflammation
  • can be life threatening, immediate treatment needed (epipen, etc)
  • localized response: hay fever, food allergy, etc
  • systemic response: bee sting, penicillin allergy, etc
273
Q

cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction

A
  • antibody binds to cell/tissue antigen, activating complement, damages cell and causes inflammation
  • ex) blood transfusion reaction, autoimmune hemolytic anemia
274
Q

immune complex disease

A

circulating antigen/antibody complexes form, activate complement, and cause inflammatory reaction
ex) lupus, rheumatoid arthritis

275
Q

delayed (cell mediated) hypersensitivity

A

sensitized T cells release lymphokines that attract macrophages and other inflammatory cells
ex) TB, fungus and parasitic infections, contact dermatitis

276
Q

atopic

A

having genetic predisposition to certain allergic conditions

277
Q

allergen

A

substance capable of inducing allergic reaction in predisposed individual

278
Q

desensitization

A

method of inducing diminished response to allergens by inducing formation of specific IgG and IgA antibodies

279
Q

anaphylaxis

A

severe IgE mediated hypersensitivity reaction that can be life threatening

  • from initial exposure to allergen that induces sensitization (penicillin, bee sting, peanuts, latex
  • later exposure triggers widespread mediator release from IgE coated mast cells (blood pressure fall, respiratory distress)
280
Q

anaphylactoid reaction

A

resembles anaphylactic reaction but not caused by IgE and occurs after first contact with a foreign substance, possibly by stimulating mast cells directly or activating complement (aspirin, NSAIDS, some antibiotics)

281
Q

reasons for immune response suppression

A
  • prevent undesirable effects
  • may be directed against own cells or tissues
  • responsible for rejection of transplanted organs
  • may lead to Rh hemolytic disease in newborn infants
282
Q

4 main immunosuppressive agents

A
  1. radiation
  2. immunosuppressive drugs that impede cell division & function
  3. adrenal corticosteroid hormones-suppress inflammatory reaction
  4. immunoglobulin preparations-potent antibodies that prevent body from responding to corresponding antigen
283
Q

pathogenesis

A
  • alteration of own antigens (self antigens) causing them to become antigenic, provoking immune reaction
  • formation of cross reacting antibodies against foreign antigens that attack self antigens
  • defective regulation of immune response
  • -Treatment: corticosteroids, cytotoxic drugs
284
Q

acquired immunity

A

develops after contact with a pathogenic microorganism

285
Q

systemic lupus erythematosus

A

systemic manifestations in various organs, autoimmune disease that causes widespread injury to tissues and organs

286
Q

rheumatic fever

A

inflammation in heart and joints

-autoimmune disease that has anti-streptococcal antibodies react with antigens

287
Q

glomerulonephritis

A

autoimmune disease that causes inflammation of renal glomeruli
-antibodies formed against glomerular basement membranes; others caused by antigen/antibody complexes trapped in glomeruli

288
Q

6 types of pathogenic microorganisms

A
  1. bacteria
  2. viruses
  3. chlamydiae
  4. rickettsiae & ehrlichiae
  5. mycoplasmas
  6. fungi
289
Q

4 ways bacteria are classified

A
  1. shape: spherical (coccus), rod shaped (bacillus), spiral/corkscrew
  2. gram-stain reaction: gram positive (purple), gram negative (red)
  3. biochemical and cultural characteristics: aerobic and anaerobic, spore formation, flagella, biochemical profile
  4. antigenic structure: antigens in cell body, capsule of bacterium, and flagella
290
Q

coccus (spherical)

A

clusters: staphylococci
chains: streptococci
pairs: diplococci
kidney bean shape, pairs: Neisseriae

291
Q

bacillus (rod shaped)

A 
square ends: bacillus anthracis 
round ends: myobacterium tuberculosis
club shaped: corynebacteria
fusiform: fusobacteria
comma shaped: vibrio
292
Q

spiral organisms

A

tightly coiled: treponema pallidum

relaxed coil: borrelia

293
Q

fastidious organisms

A

can be grown only on enriched media under carefully controlled conditions of temp. and acidity (pH)

294
Q

hardy organisms

A

can grow on relatively simple culture media under wide variety of conditions

295
Q

aerobic organisms

A

bacteria that grow best in presence of oxygen

296
Q

anaerobic organisms

A

bacteria that only grow in the absence of oxygen or under extremely low oxygen tension

297
Q

flagella

A

hairlike processes covering the surface of some bacteria; responsible for organism’s motility

298
Q

spores

A

dormant, extremely resistant bacterial modification formed under adverse conditions
-can germinate and give rise to actively growing bacteria under favorable conditions

299
Q

staphylococci

A
  • gram positive, arranged in grapelike clusters
  • normal inhabitants of skin and nasal cavity
  • normally not pathogenic
  • cause disease by producing inflammation and toxins (hemolysis, vomiting and diarrhea)
300
Q

staphylococci infections

A

skin infections
endocarditis (infection of heart and valve linings)
osteomyelitis and arthritis
MRSA is very resistant to antibiotics

301
Q

streptococci classification

A

-based on type of hemolysis and differences in carbohydrate antigens in cell walls (Groups A, B, and D are most important)

302
Q

beta hemolysis (streptococci classification)

A

complete lysis of RBC
Group A-pyogenes-pharyngitis
Group B-agalactiae-genital tract of women, neonatal meningitis
Group D-enterococcus faecalis, strep. bovis-urinary, biliary, CV infections

303
Q

non beta hemolysis (streptococcus classification)

A

alpha hemolysis-incomplete lysis of RBC (streptococcus pneumoniae)
gamma hemolysis-non hemolytic, no lysis

304
Q

streptococci

A
  • gram positive cocci arranged in chains or pairs

- normal inhabitants of skin, mouth, pharynx, gut, female genital tract

305
Q

streptococci diseases

A

pyogenic: pharyngitis, cellulitis, endocarditis
toxigenic: scarlet fever, toxic shock syndrome
immunologic: rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis

306
Q

pneumococci

A

gram positive cocci, common cause of bacterial pneumonia

307
Q

gram negative cocci

A
  • nonpathogenic members of genus Neisseria
  • meningococcus-causes meningitis
  • gonococcus-causes gonorrhea
308
Q

gram positive bacilli

A

corynebacteria(non spore forming), lysteria(non spore forming), bacilli(spore forming, aerobic), clostridia(spore forming, anaerobic)

309
Q

anaerobic spore forming gram positive organisms

A

clostridia-normal inhabitants of intestinal tracts–produce potent toxins and cause several diseases

  • gas gangrene
  • tetanus (lockjaw)
  • botulism
  • intestinal infection
310
Q

spiral organisms

A

treponema pallidum-causes syphilis

borrelia burgdorferi-causes lyme disease

311
Q

acid-fast bacteria

A 
tubercle bacillus (mycobacterium tuberculosis)-causes TB
mycobacterium leprae-causes leprosy
312
Q

reasons for antibiotic resistance

A
  • over prescribing
  • inappropriate prescribing
  • overuse as feed supplement to livestock
  • spread of resistant strains
313
Q

antibiotics: mechanisms of action

A
  1. inhibits synthesis of bacterial cell wall and membrane (penicillin and cephalosporin)
  2. inhibits synthesis of microbial proteins
  3. inhibits bacterial metabolic functions (folic acid synthesis)
  4. inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis
  5. competitive inhibition
314
Q

tube dilution test

A

measures the highest dilution inhibiting growth in a test tube

315
Q

disk method test

A

inhibition of growth around disk indicated sensitivity to antibiotic

316
Q

adverse effects of antibiotics

A
  1. toxicity
  2. hypersensitivity (to drug itself)
  3. alteration of bacterial flora (cause overgrowth of resistant bacteria)
  4. development of resistant strains (spontaneous mutations, plasmid acquired resistance)
317
Q

chlamydiae

A
  • small, gram negative, nonmotile bacteria
  • form inclusion bodies in infected cells (spherical structures in nucleus or cytoplasm)
  • growth inhibited by antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis (tetracycline and erythromycin)
318
Q

most common chlamydiae disease

A

chlamydia

  • male: nongonococcal urethritis (inflammation of urethra)
  • female: inflammation of uterine cervix, may spread to fallopian tubes
  • –can get into infant’s eyes-inclusion conjunctivitis
319
Q

more chlamydiae diseases

A

psitticosis-disease in birds, transmissible to humans by inhalation of dried bird feces (manifests as type of pneumonia)
trachoma-chronic conjunctivitis, blindness
lymphogranuloma venereum-enlargement and inflammation of lymph nodes in groin and rectum (STD)

320
Q

Rickettsiae and Ehrlichiae diseases

A
  • damage to small blood vessels of skin, leakage of blood into tissues
  • Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (ticks)
    - East Coast, spring and early summer, flu-like
  • Rickettsialpox (mites)
  • Typhus: flulike, rash
321
Q

Rickettsiae and Ehrlichiae

A
  • parasite of insects transmitted to humans
  • transmitted via bite of arthropod vector (ticks, mites, lice) except Q Fever (aerosol)
  • respond to some antibiotics
  • most are animal born (zoonoses)
322
Q

mycoplasma

A
  • smallest, wall-less, free living bacteria
  • cell membrane, no cell wall
  • reproduce outside living cells and grow on artificial media
  • Primary Atypical Pneumonia: most common in winter
    • cough, sore throat, fever, headache
    • responds to antibiotics
323
Q

classification of viruses

A
  1. nucleic acid structure: DNA or RNA, outer envelope of lipoprotein
  2. size and complexity of genome
  3. smaller than cells (20-300 nm)
  4. can’t be seen under light microscope
324
Q

capsid

A

protective protein membrane surrounding genetic material

325
Q

nucleoid

A

genetic material, DNA and RNA, not both

326
Q

characteristics of viruses

A
  • must reproduce or replicate within cells
  • lack metabolic enzymes: rely on host metabolic process for survival
  • no nucleus, ribosomes, mitochondria, and lysosomes: can’t synthesize proteins or generate energy
  • don’t multiply by binary fission or mitosis
327
Q

latent viral infection

A

virus infects a cell without any evidence of cell injury

-can become activated and cause disease (e.g. herpes zoster)

328
Q

cytopathogenic effect

A

virus regularly produces cell injury, manifested by necrosis and degeneration of infected cell

329
Q

bodily defenses against viral infections

A
  • formation of interferon: “broad spectrum” antiviral agent
  • cell mediated immunity
  • humoral defenses
330
Q

treatment of viruses with antiviral agents

A
  • block viral multiplication
  • prevent virus from invading cell
  • application is limited: toxicity and limited effectiveness
331
Q

fungi

A
  • plantlike organisms without chlorophyll
  • two types: yeast and mold
  • most are obligate aerobes
  • natural habitat–environment (not Candida)
332
Q

growth factors of fungi

A

high humidity, heat, dark areas with oxygen supply

333
Q

treatment of fungi

A

antifungal drugs

334
Q

other fungi

A

bread, cheese, wine, beer production

-mold: spoilage of foods

335
Q

fungi infections

A
  • superficial fungal infections
  • mucous membranes (Candida)
  • histoplasmosis
  • blastomycosis
336
Q

congenital

A

present at birth, but can be detected after birth

337
Q

trisomy

A

presence of extra chromosome in a cell; having 3 of a given chromosome instead of a pair

338
Q

monosomy

A

one chromosome of a homologous pair is missing in a cell

339
Q

translocation

A

transfer of a piece of one chromosome to a nonhomologous chromosome

340
Q

Turner syndrome

A

congenital syndrome usually caused by absence of one X chromosome in the female

341
Q

Klinefelter syndrome

A

congenital syndrome caused by an extra X chromosome in the male. Characterized by testicular atrophy, sterility, feminine body configuration, and subnormal intelligence

342
Q

Down syndrome

A

congenital syndrome caused by an extra chromosome 21

343
Q

gene mutation

A

change in structure of a gene, which may alter its functions

344
Q

Sickle hemoglobin

A

abnormal hemoglobin that crystallizes under reduced oxygen tension

345
Q

multifactorial inheritance

A

inheritance of a trait or condition related to the combined effect of multiple genes rather than a single gene

346
Q

anencephaly

A

congenital malformation; absence of brain, cranial vault, and scalp as a result of defective closure of the neural tube

347
Q

spina bifida

A

incomplete closure of vertebral arches over spinal cord, sometimes associated with protrusion of meninges and neural tissue through the defect (cystic spina bifida)

348
Q

alpha fetoprotein

A

protein produced by fetal liver early in gestation. sometimes produced by tumor cells. level elevated in amnionic fluid when fetus has neural tube defect

349
Q

tumor

A

benign or malignant overgrowth of tissues that serves no normal function

350
Q

metastasis

A

spread of cancer cells from the primary site of origin to a distant site within the body

351
Q

polyp

A

descriptive term for a benign tumor projecting from an epithelial surface

352
Q

papilloma

A

descriptive term for a benign tumor projecting from an epithelial surfact

353
Q

carcinoma

A

malignant tumor derived from epithelial cells

354
Q

sarcoma

A

malignant tumor arising from connective and supporting tissues

355
Q

lymphoma

A

neoplasm of lymphoid cells

356
Q

leukemia

A

neoplastic proliferation of leukocytes

357
Q

Hodgkin’s disease

A

one type of lymphoma

358
Q

Reed-Sternberg cell

A

characteristic cell of Hodgkin’s disease, containing two “mirror image” nuclei with prominent nucleoli

359
Q

keratinocyte

A

keratin-forming cell in epidermis

360
Q

melanocyte

A

melanin producing cell in the epidermis

361
Q

melanin

A

dark pigment found in the skin, in the middle coat of the eye, and in some other regions

362
Q

nevus

A

benign tumor of pigment producing cells

363
Q

melanoma

A

malignant tumor of pigment producing cells

364
Q

teratoma

A

tumor of mixed cell components

365
Q

dermoid cyst

A

common type of benign cystic teratoma that commonly arises in the ovary

366
Q

Wilms tumor

A

malignant renal tumor of infants and children

367
Q

actinic keratosis

A

precancerous warty proliferation of squamous epithelial cells in sun damaged skin of older persons

368
Q

lentigo maligna

A

precancerous, pigmented skin lesion arising from proliferation of atypical melanin producing epithelial cells (melanocytes)

369
Q

leukoplakia

A

white patch of hyperplastic and usually atypical squamous epithelium on oral mucosa or genital tract mucosa

370
Q

mutation

A

alteration in a base sequence in DNA; may alter cell function. transmitted from parents to offspring only if mutation is in gametes

371
Q

proto-oncogene

A

normal gene that regulates some aspect of cell growth, maturation, or division

372
Q

tumor suppressor gene

A

gene that suppresses cell proliferation

373
Q

DNA repair genes

A

genes that monitor and correct errors in DNA replication during cell division

374
Q

oncogene

A

abnormally functioning gene that causes unrestrained cell growth leading to formation of a tumor. results from mutation or translocation of a proto-oncogene

375
Q

apoptosis

A

programmed cell death that occurs after a cell has lived its normal life span

376
Q

tyrosine kinase

A

enzyme that produces multiple effects concerned with cell growth and cell division

377
Q

pap smear

A

study of cells from various sources, commonly used as a screening test for cancer

378
Q

frozen section

A

method of rapid diagnosis of tumors used by the pathologist; tissue is frozen solid, cut into thin sections, stained, and examined microscopically

379
Q

tumor-associated antigen

A

antigen associated with growing tumor cells, which serves as an indicator of tumor growth in the body

380
Q

carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

A

tumor associated antigen that resembles the antigen secreted by the cells of the fetal gastrointestinal tract

381
Q

alpha fetoprotein

A

protein produced by fetal liver early in gestation. sometimes produced by tumor cells. level is elevated in amnionic fluid when fetus has neural tube defect

382
Q

human chorionic gonadotropin (HGC)

A

hormone made by placenta in pregnancy having actions similar to pituitary gonadotropins. same hormone is made by neoplastic cells in some types of malignant testicular tumors

383
Q

alkylating agent

A

anticancer drug that disrupts cell function by binding DNA chains together so that they cannot separate

384
Q

antimetabolite

A

substance that competes with or replaces another substance (metabolite) required for cell growth or multiplication

385
Q

adjuvant chemotherapy

A

anticancer chemotherapy administered after surgical resection of a tumor in an attempt to destroy any small undetected foci of metastatic tumor before they become clinically detectable

386
Q

immunotherapy

A

treatment given to retard growth of a disseminated malignant tumor by stimulating to body’s own immune defenses

387
Q

interleukin-2

A

lymphokine that stimulates growth of lymphocytes

388
Q

Myelodysplastic syndrome

A

disturbance of bone marrow function that is characterized by anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia and that may be a precursor to leukemia in some patients

389
Q

multiple myeloma

A

malignant neoplasm of plasma cells

390
Q

immunoglobulin

A

an antibody protein

391
Q

premyeloma

A

early stage of multiple myeloma in which plasma cell proliferation in the bone marrow is only slightly increased and only minor blood protein abnormalities are present

392
Q

electrolyte

A

compound that in solution dissociates into positive and negative ions

393
Q

cation

A

an ion that carries a positive charge

394
Q

anion

A

an ion carrying a negative charge

395
Q

acidosis

A

disturbance in the acid-base balance of the body in which body fluids have a lower pH than normal

396
Q

alkalosis

A

disturbance in acid-base balance in which pH of extracellular fluids is shifted toward the alkaline side of normal

397
Q

uremia

A

excess of urea and other waste products in the blood, resulting from renal failure

398
Q

ketosis

A

excess of ketone bodies in the blood resulting from utilization of fat as the primary source of energy

Intro to Disease (4 decks)

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