Exam 1: A&P, hemodynamics, fluids, anesthesia agents Flashcards

1
Q

what part of the neuron contains the nucleus

A

cell body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what part of the neuron receives signals

A

dendrites located on cell body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what part of the neuron carries the action potential from the cell body to the axon terminals

A

axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what part of the neuron transmits signals to other cells

A

axon terminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what part of the neuron covers the axon and speed transmission

A

myelin sheath (made of fat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what part of the neuron makes the myelin

A

schwann cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the space between schwann cells where electrical messages jump

A

Nodes of Ranvier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

nueron cell body in the CNS is made of _________ matter

A

grey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

myelinated axons are ________ matter

A

white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the types of neuronal cells

A

motor, sensory, interneurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

motor nerves are _________polar

A

multi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

sensory nerves are _______________polar

A

pseudomonipolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

internuerons are ___________polar

A

pseudomonipolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the 4 types of neuroglial cells

A

astrocytes
oligodendrocytes
microglial
ependymal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what do neuroglial cells lack

A

dendrites, axonal processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what neuro cell is essential for BBB, structural support, injury repair, are what most neoplasma aris from, have pair neurons and nerve terminals

A

atrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what neuro cell forms myelin sheath of axon in brain (regeneration)

A

oligodendrocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what neuro cell is th smallest cell, acts like a macrophage for debris, and is transported to sites of neuro injury

A

microglial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what parts of brain lack a BBB

A

postrema
pituitary gland
pineal gland
choroid plexus
portions of hypothalmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what neuro cell lines the roof of the 3rd and 4th ventricles and central spinial canal, they form the choroid plexus

A

ependymal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the thickest and most outer layer of the spinal cord

A

dura mater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what seperates the cerebral hemispheres

A

falx cerebri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what seperates the occipital and cerebellum

A

tentorium cerebelli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what layer of the spinal cord is avascular and is joined to the dura mater

A

arachnoid mater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what layer of the spinal cord is adhered to the brain and spinal cord

A

pia mater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the space between pia and arachnoid mater filled with CSF

A

subarachnoid space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how far down does the subarachnoid space extend to

A

s2-s3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what space surrounds the dura in spinal canal, contains venous plexus

A

epidural space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are some safety mechanisms in the brain

A

BBB
CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is function of BBB

A

isolates brain to maintain homeostasis, tight barrier for water soluble molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the volume of CSF

A

150 ccs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is function of CSF

A

cushions the brain provides an extracellular milieu for neurons and glial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what lobe of brain is for judgement, foresight, voluntary movement and smell

A

frontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what lobe of brain is for intellect, emotion, and hearing

A

temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what area of the temporal lobe controls speech

A

Brocas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what area of temporal lobe conrols speech comprehension

A

Wernickes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what lobe of the brain controls visual stimuli

A

occipital lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what part of the brain controls swallowing, breathing, and heartbeat

A

brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what part of the brain controls movement

A

the motor cortex of the frontal lobe, forward of the central sulcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what part of the brain controls pain sensation

A

sensory cortex, posterior of central sulcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what part of the brain controls coordination

A

cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what lobe of the brain controls comprehension of language

A

parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what part of brain is the master neurohumerol organ and regulates body function

A

hypothalmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what part of brain regulates emotion/pain response, appetite and stress response

A

amygdala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what part of brain does movement and reward

A

basal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what part of brain is the sensory gateway

A

thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what part of brain regulates memmory

A

hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

list spinal/epidural layers

A

Skin,
sub q tissue,
supraspinous ligament,
interspinous ligament,
ligamentum flavum,
epidural space,
dura mater,
arachnoid mater,
sub arachnoid space,
pia mater,
spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

where is CSF made

A

choroid plexus of lateral third and fourth ventricles in subarachnoid space
in ependymal cells lining the ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is total volume of CSF

A

150 mls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is rate of CSF production

A

30ccs/hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is pressure of CSF

A

5-15 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

where is CSF absorbed

A

arachnoid villi into the venous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is Specific Gravity of CSF

A

1.002-1.009

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is the pH of CSF

A

7.32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what are the components of CSF

A

K, Ca, HCO3, Glucose (<plasma)
Na, Cl, Mg (>plasma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is the flow of CSF

A

Lateral ventricles -
interventricular foramen (foramen of Monro)
third ventricle
cerebral aqueduct
fourth ventricle
lateral apertures and median aperture
subarachnoid space-
arachnoid villi
superior sagittal sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

how often is CSF volume replaced

A

every 3-4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what kind of nerves originate on the dorsal spinal cord

A

sensory/afferent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what kind of nerves originate on the ventral spinal cord

A

motor/efferent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

describe pathway of stimulus to response

A

peripheral receptor receives stimuli
sensory neruon (afferent) carries mease to CNS
interneuron
motor neuron (efferent) message from CNS to body
effector- muscle or gland carries out response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what arteries feed the circle of willis

A

internal carotid (anterior)
vertebral arteris (posterior)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what arteries branch off of the circle of willis

A

anterior, middle, and posterior arteris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is cranial nerve 1

A

olfactory (smell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is cranial nerve 2

A

Optic - vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is cranial nerve 3

A

Oculomotor.

Functions in raising the eyelid, directing the eyeball, constricting the iris, and controlling lens shape.
adduction of the eye medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is cranial nerve 4

A

Trochlear. Primarily a motor nerve that directs the eyeball. (superior oblique)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is cranial nerve 5

A

Trigeminal. Three divisions: Opthalmic (V1), Maxillary (V2), and Mandibular (V3).
mastication, sensory from face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what is cranial nerve 6

A

Abducens- abduction of the eye (lateral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is cranial nerve 7

A

Facial- muscle of face, taste (anterior 2/3 tongue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what is cranial nerve 8

A

Vestibulocochlear/acoustic
balance-vestibular
audition- cochlear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what is cranial nerve 9

A

Glossopharyngeal taste (posterior 1/3 tongue) carotid body and sinus efferent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what is cranial nerve 10

A

Vagus, heart, motor control fo larynx and pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what is cranial nerve 11

A

accessory, shoulder and head movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what is cranial nerve 12

A

Hypoglossal moves tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

which cranial nerves are sensory

A

1
2
8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what cranial nerves are motor

A

3
4
6
11
12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what cranial nerves are mixed

A

5
7
9
10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

how do alzheimers drugs like rivastigmine (exelon) work

A

acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
blocks breakdown of acetylcholine to increase levels in brain and provide better transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what kind of neurotransmitter/receptor do interneurons use

A

ACH and nicotinic receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what kind of neurotransmitter/receptor do parasympathetics use

A

ACH and muscarinic at target organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what kind of neurotransmitter/receptor do sympathetics use

A

NE or ACH and muscarinic receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what kind of neurotransmitter/receptor does somatic system use

A

ACH and nicotinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what percent of total body oxygen does brain use

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

the brain uses 60% of O2 to make __________ and support electrical activity

A

ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what is CMRO2 in adults

A

3-3.8 ml/100g/min or 50 ml/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

the brain reaches unconsciousness after ______________ of interrupted blood flow

A

10 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

after __________________ of no blood flow the brain has cellular injury

A

3-8 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what is volatile effect on brain (CMR, CBF, ICP)

A

decrease CMR
increase CBF
increase ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what is the best volatile for neuro and why

A

ISO
increases CSF absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is CPP and how is it calculated

A

cerebral perfusion pressure
CPP = MAP - ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what is normal CPP

A

80-100 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what happens with CPP <50

A

slowed EEG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what happens with CPP <25

A

irreversible brain damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what range of MAP is CBF stable

A

60-160 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

CBF directly mirrors ___________

A

PaCO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

how does a lower hct effect blood flow

A

improved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

how does a high hct effect blood flow

A

decreased BF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

what does hypoglycemia do to brain

A

injures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what does hyperglycemia do to brain

A

exacerbates global and focal hypoxic brain injury by accelerating cerebral acidosis and cellular injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

what rate does brain consume glucose

A

5mg/100g/min

102
Q

MAP calculation

A

(SBP+ 2x DBP )/3

103
Q

what does a decrease in CPP lead to

A

cerebral vasodilation

104
Q

what does an increase in CPP lead to

A

cerebral vasoconstriction

105
Q

what is the result of crazy HTN

A

disruption in BBB, brain swelling and bleeding

106
Q

what is result of hyperventilation on brain

A

CO2 decreases, vessels vasoconstrict, decreased blood flow, inverse steal causing ischemia

107
Q

what ICP level leads to brain herniation

108
Q

what are s/s increased ICP

A

HA, vomiting, papilledema, vision changes, change in mentation/somnolence, GCS reduction

109
Q

what is physiology of increased ICP

A

-Displacement of CSF from cranium to the spinal canal
-Increase in CSF absorption
-Decrease in CSF production
-Decrease in total cerebral blood volume

110
Q

what is optimum HCT for neuro patients

A

30-34% for optimal carrying capacity

111
Q

what is optimum PaO2 and SpO2 for neuro patients

112
Q

what is optimum CO2 for neuro patients

A

normal (35-45) or higher

113
Q

GCS

A

EYE
4- spontaneous
3 sound
2 pressure
1 none
Verbal
5 oriented
4 confused
3 words
2 sounds
1 none
MOTOR
6 commands
5 localizes
4 normal flexion
3 abnormal flexion
2 extension
1 none

114
Q

what is GCS score 13-15

115
Q

what is GCS score of 9-12

116
Q

what is GCS score of 3-8

117
Q

what does the BP tell us in the brain…

A

no idea but maintain or slightly increase BP during anesthesia

118
Q

what happens to CBF when PaO2 is 50mmHg or less

A

increases CBF

119
Q

CBF changes ________________ per mmHg change in CO2

A

1-2 ml/100g/min

120
Q

CBF changes __________ per every 1* change in celsius

121
Q

what is cushings triad

A

HTN, bradycardia, irregular breathing

122
Q

what does cushing triad tell us

A

herniation/increased ICP

123
Q

what kind of fluids do we avoid in intracranial HTN

A

glucose containing fluids

124
Q

where do you zero a line for intracranial HTN

A

circle of willis

125
Q

what paralyzer do we avoid in intracranial HTN

126
Q

what safety device do we have ready for intracranial HTN

A

suction for vomiting

127
Q

what kind of emergence do we want for intracranial HTN

128
Q

what do we elevate HOB at for intracranial HTN

129
Q

what anesthetic agents increase Cerebral vascular resistance

A

thiopental, propofol, etomidate

130
Q

T/F keep neuro patients hypothermic

131
Q

T/F use PEEP in neuro patients

132
Q

what anesthetic agents do NOT reduce electrical activity

A

nitrous
ketamine

133
Q

what is the effect of N2O on brain

A

increases CMR, CBF, and ICP, can cause bubbles in brain

134
Q

what is effect of lidocaine on brain

A

decreases CMR, CBF, ICP, is neuroprotective

135
Q

what patients do we avoid lidocaine in

A

seizure patients

136
Q

T/F use flumazanil/romazicon in neuropatients

A

be cautious, lowers neuroprotection

137
Q

T/F use naloxone/narcan in neuro patients

A

be cautious, lowers neuroprotection

138
Q

what is the effect of most vasodilators on brain

A

cerebral vasodilation and increases CBF

139
Q

what effect does SUCCS have on brain

A

increases ICP

140
Q

what monitors brain waves

141
Q

what type of patients have EEG monitors

142
Q

what is frequency on EEG

A

time between impulses

143
Q

what is amplitude on EEG

A

peak to peak measurements on verticle plane, measured in microvolts

144
Q

what are the worst 3 waves on EEG getting worse

A

Delta waves
burst suppression
isoelectricity

145
Q

what is an early warning sign on EEG of declining neuro health

A

delta waves

146
Q

what can a bolus of anesthetic drugs lead to

A

burst suppression- communicate to team before you bolus

147
Q

what waves are on normal EEG

A

Beta and alpha waves

148
Q

what happens with early onset of ischemia/hypoxia on EEG

A

theta and delta waves

149
Q

what happens with increased hypoxia on EEG

A

delta waves

150
Q

what happens on EEG with worsened hypoxia

A

burst suppression

151
Q

what kind of waves happen with closed eyes and deep relaxation

A

alpha waves

152
Q

what kind of waves happen with normal awake consciousness

A

beta waves

153
Q

what kind of waves happen with light sleep

154
Q

what kind of waves happen with deep sleep

A

Delta waves

155
Q

what do you communicate to OR team before induction

A

bolusing drugs, may see delta waves

156
Q

how does epilepsy appear on EEG

A

high voltage spikes with slow waves

157
Q

how does ischemia appear on EEG

A

slowing frequency with preserved amplitude

158
Q

how do anesthetic agents appear on EEG

A

similar to global ischemia or hypoxemia (slowing frequency with preserved amplitude)

159
Q

what MAC of des and sevo leads to burst suppression

160
Q

what MAC of iso leads to bust suppression

161
Q

how does low dose volatile effect EEG

A

increases Beta waves, some alpha waves

162
Q

how does moderate dose volatile effect EEG

A

only beta waves

163
Q

how does high dose volatiles effect EEG

A

delta. and theta waves

164
Q

what two IV anesthetics lead to burst suppression

A

propofol and etomidate

165
Q

how does large dose of opioids effect EEG

A

slow delta waves

166
Q

T/F muscle relaxants effect EEG

167
Q

what is technology behind cerebral oximeter

A

neat infared spectoscopy measures light absorbance to calculate oxy-hemoglobin deoxyhemoglobin
indirectly measures brain activity

168
Q

what does cerebral oximeter detect/monitor

A

decrease in CBF in relation to CMRO2

169
Q

what kind of blood does cerebral oximeter measure

170
Q

how do you set up cerebral oximeter

A
  1. alcohol prep
  2. pad on either side of head
  3. mark baseline
  4. start O2
171
Q

what change do we watch for in cerebral oximeter or that causes alarm

A

20% change

172
Q

what procedures do we do SSEPs for?

A

usually spinal cord

173
Q

what is a 50% decrease in amplitude or a 10% increase in latency indicative of for SSEPs

A

possible ischemia (decreased blood flow to spinal cord )

174
Q

what is effect of volatiles and barbiturates on SSEPs

A

increase latency and decreased amplitude

175
Q

what is anesthetic plan for enoke potentials

A

TIVA, dont use NDMB
propofol and remi good option
precedex good option
can use anectine for intubation

176
Q

when do we notify surgeon about Evoke potential numbers

A

50% decrease in amplitude or 10% increase in latency

177
Q

what do evoke potentials help us detect

A

ischemia to spinal cord or cerebral cortex

178
Q

what are examples of neuroprotective drugs (decrease CMRO2)

179
Q

what are epileptogenic drugs to avoid

A

lidocaine
phenergan
robaxin
demerol

180
Q

what are drugs that increase ICP

A

anectine increases by 5 mmHg
ketamine

181
Q

what drugs cross the BBB (limit use of these

A

Benadryl
scopolamine
atropine (use robinol instead)

182
Q

what drugs do we avoid that cloud sensorium

183
Q

what drugs depress immune protective mechanisms

A

N2O, etomidate

184
Q

what drugs increase cerebral steal?

A

nitroprusside and nitroglycerin, so use nicardipine instead

185
Q

what drugs do we utilize that decrease the risk of intracerebral arterial vasospasms

A

nicardipine
magnesium sulfate

186
Q

why do avoid narcotics in brain cases

A

brain has no pain receptors

187
Q

what medications do we use to treat autonomic responses in neuro cases

A

propofol
esmolol

188
Q

what part of head has pain receoptors

189
Q

when do we give opioids in neurocases

A

with emergence/closure of head

190
Q

what medications can we give to decrease ICP

A

hypertonic Na
mannitol
lasix

191
Q

what do we monitor with mannitol and lasix

A

electrolytes
UOP
BP

192
Q

what is goal of fluid management of neuropatient

A

minimize neuronal injury
maintain organ perfusion

193
Q

T/F inhalational anesthetics effect brain more than IV drugs

194
Q

T/F N2O and ketamine decrease CMR

195
Q

what is brain protective MAP

196
Q

how can we manipulate CO2 to increase cerebral blood flow

A

hypoventilate to increase CO2 and vasodilate

197
Q

how can we manipulate CO2 to decrease blood flow and ICP after giving ketamine

A

ketamine increases ICP
hyperventialte to decrease CO2
vasoconstrction
decrease ICP

198
Q

what are effects of ISO, DES and SEVO on
CMR
CBF
ICP

A

decrease CMR
increase CBF
increase ICP

199
Q

what is effect of barbiturates, etomidate, propofol, benzoson
CMR
CBF
ICP

A

decreased CMR
decreased CBF
decreased ICP

200
Q

what is effect of ketamine on
CBF
ICP

A

increase CBF
increase ICP

201
Q

what is the best volatile for Neuro

202
Q

what inhaled anesthetic do we avoid for neuro

203
Q

what is the most common reason to have high ICP with succs

A

light anesthesia

204
Q

what do we want ICP to be at before we open dura

205
Q

what can happen if ICP is high when dura is opened

A

herniation

206
Q

what diuretics do we give to lower ICP

A

mannitol 0.25-1 g/kg followed by furosemide for up to 6 hrs

207
Q

what is goal of BP during neuro case

A

normovolemia
MAP within 20%

208
Q

what is goal serum osmolarity for neuro

209
Q

what can cross the BBB

A

water, O2, glucose

210
Q

what cannot cross the BBB

A

Na, Albumin, HCO3

211
Q

what can happen with severe fluid restriction

A

hypovolemia
hypotension
decreased CBF
ischemia to brain and organs
moderate decrease in brain H2O
decreased tissue perfusion and oxygenation
decreased serum pH (hyperventilate to prevent acidosis)
monitor UOP, HR, BP

212
Q

what can excessive hypervolemia lead to

A

HTN
cerebral edema

213
Q

when do we want patient to be in a dehydrated/hypovolemic state

A

space occupying legions
CSF drainage/production problem
cerebral swelling with increased ICP
cerebral aneurism

214
Q

how do we manage patient in a hypovolemic state

A

fluids on a microdrip, turn fluids off immediately after induction drugs

215
Q

why dont we fully replace fluid in neuro cases

A

save space for blood replacement at end of case

216
Q

what do we monitor for fluid balance

A

UOP
HR
BP
electrolytes

217
Q

when do we want hypervolemia in neuro

A

cerebral aneurism repair
prevent vasospasm

218
Q

when do we give patient fluids to make a hypervolemic state to prevent vasospasm

A

before dura is open be fluid sparing to keep ICP down, same during procedure
after aneurism is clipped ask surgeon if we can increase fluid to avoid vasospasm

219
Q

what are the three Hs for cerebral aneurism repari/vasospasm prevention

A

hypervolemia
hypertension
hemodilution

220
Q

what types of patients do we use hypertonic saline on

A

mass effects, midline shifts, high risk for post op cerebral edema, recipients of osmotic diuretics

221
Q

what are hyponatremic patients at risk of

A

brain herniation

222
Q

what are doses of hypertonic saline

A

50 ml/hr of 3%
30 ml/hr of 7.5%

223
Q

at what sodium level do we give hypertonic saline

224
Q

at what sodium level do we hold hypertonic saline

225
Q

T/F replace fluid deficit in neuropatient

226
Q

what fluid do we use for management in neuro patient

A

NS (isotonic)

227
Q

what do we replace UOP with in neuropatient

228
Q

what are potential areas of hidden blood loss in crani

A

blood loss in drapes and head bag, lots of irrigation, mannitol and lasix losing more fluids so monitor fluids and electrolytes when using these drugs

229
Q

what is best way to monitor blood loss in nuero patient

A

get baseline hct and recheck

230
Q

what is average blood loss of crani

231
Q

HCT drops ______ for every 100 ccs of blood loss

232
Q

how much blood does a raytec hold

233
Q

how much blood does a lp hold

A

50-100 ccs

234
Q

what is risk of replacing fluid loss with NS

A

hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

235
Q

what do we watch closely with manntol and lasix

A

fluids and electrolytes

236
Q

what do we want BS to be

A

150 and under

237
Q

what is normal blood flow in brain

A

50 ml/100g/min

238
Q

what blood flow is associated with failure and structural damage

A

less than 20-25 ml/100g/min

239
Q

when is dehydration needed in neuro

A

-space occupying lesions
-csf drainage/production problem
-cerebral swelling w/increased icp
-cerebral aneurysms
-when there is need to save space for blood product admin
-post op swelling anticipated

240
Q

what labs should be monitored hourly for acid base status

A

base deficit
pH
HCO3

241
Q

what should be monitor continously for fluid balance

242
Q

how do we manage fluid for heads

A

npo defecit not replaced, caution fluid because of increased icp with dural opening

243
Q

how do we manage fluids for spines

A

give a little fluid preop, then give albumin in or, and then gauge replacement based on uop, blood loss, bp, hr, etc.

244
Q

what is positioning consideration for spines

A

prone so fluid goes to eyes, be conservative

245
Q

what drugs do we avoid in neuro

A

lido
phenergan
robaxin
demerol
succs
ketamine
benadryl
scopolamine
atropine
benzos
N2O(crani)
etomidate
nitroprusside
nitroglycerin

246
Q

what is latency on SSEP

A

time for evoke response to be measured in brain

247
Q

what is effect of most anesthetic drugs on SSEPs

A

decrease amplitude, increase latency

248
Q

what neuron function is motor

A

multipolar

innervate/control effector muscles and glands

249
Q

what neuron function is sensory

A

psuedomonipolar

receive exteroceptive, interoceptive, and proprioceptive input

250
Q

what neuron function is interneurons

A

pseudounipolar

connect to an adjacent neurons

251
Q

what is grey matter

A

neuron cell bodies in the CNS

252
Q

what is white matter

A

myelinated axons