EXAM 1 Flashcards

1
Q

R.I.C.E.

A

Rest (2-3 days)
Ice (15-20 minutes, every 2-3 hours)
Compress (not during sleep)
Elevate (above heart level)

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2
Q

the 6 P’s for neurovascular assessment

A
pallor
pain
parasthesia
pulselessness
poikilothermia (polar/cold)
Paralysis
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3
Q

what should be done immediately after a soft tissue injury

A

first 12-24 hours

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4
Q

what is a sprain

A

injury to a ligament

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5
Q

what is a strain

A

injury to tendons

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6
Q

what are s/s of a soft tissue injury

A

pain
edema
decreased function
contusion

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7
Q

what joints are commonly dislocated

A

hips
shoulders
elbow
thumb

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8
Q

what is the ROM with a dislocation

A

not able to move
no ROM
loss of ROM distal

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9
Q

whats important immediately after a dislocation

A

immobolize it

RICE

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10
Q

what is important to educate people on for future dislocations

A

at higher risk for future dislocations

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11
Q

what is bursitis

A

inflammation of bursa

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12
Q

what causes bursitis

A

repeat of excessive trauma/friction of joint
gout
RA
infection

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13
Q

s/s of bursitis

A
warmth
pain
stiffness
swelling
limited ROM
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14
Q

when does rotator cuff injury typically occur

A

age
injury
repetitive stress

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15
Q

how can you determine the difference between a rotator cuff injury and a dislocation

A

can still move it when it is a rotator cuff injury

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16
Q

what is carpal tunnel

A

the median nerve is compressed

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17
Q

what causes carpal tunnel

A

repeated hand movements
edema
trauma
arthritis

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18
Q

what is the Phalens Test

A

pushing of the hands together

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19
Q

what is the Tinels Test

A

tap over the nerve

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20
Q

what are the treatments for carpal tunnel

A

splint the wrist
promote rest 2-3 weeks
educate on prevention (short breaks)

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21
Q

what can prolonged immobilization cause

A
decreased metabolic rate
bone demineralization (osteoporosis)
tissue ischemia
pressure ulcer
decreased need for oxygen, loss of RR strength
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22
Q

what is different with fractures and children

A

they have more rapid healing

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23
Q

what is the weakest point of the bone with growing children

A

the growth plate

are of growing tissue at the end of long bones

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24
Q

what do osteoclasts do

A

clean up

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25
Q

what do osteoblasts do

A

building blocks

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26
Q

what do osteocytes do

A

cycle of it

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27
Q

how should you immobilize a fracture

A

in which it is found

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28
Q

where should you splint a fracture

A

above and below the limb/bone

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29
Q

why may a child still be able to move after a fracture

A

thick periosteum

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30
Q

labs can be evaluated for a fracture

A

H/H
Calcium
ESR

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31
Q

what is the main goal of treatment for a fracture

A

restore normal function

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32
Q

what is the most common reduction used for simple fractures

A

closed reduction

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33
Q

what does reduction do

A

realign ends of fractured bone

x-ray taken before and after

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34
Q

what are the types of immobilization

A
splinting 
casting
traction
external fixation
internal fixation
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35
Q

what should you use when placing a wet cast

A

use palms and not fingers

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36
Q

what should you assess for when it comes to infections and casts

A

hot spots

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37
Q

how should you remove the nasty gunk after a cast

A

baby oil/soak it

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38
Q

what is a temporary form of traction

A

bucks traction

39
Q

when is bucks traction used

A

for a femoral/hip fracture when they can’t have immediate surgery

40
Q

what is the max weight for a bucks traction

A

10 pounds

41
Q

should the weights be on the ground

A

no, call someone

42
Q

what is skeletal traction

A

traction used to treat fractures of the femur

43
Q

how many pounds can be used on skeletal traction

A

20-40 ibs

44
Q

what is important care with skeletal traction

A

pin site care

45
Q

what is an open reduction with an internal fixation device (ORIF)

A

bone ends reduced via surgical incision

bone ends held together by internal fixation devices

46
Q

what is used for severe bone damage, crush injuries, splintered fractures, numerous breaks

A

external fixation

47
Q

what kind of infection can occur with external fixation devices

A

Osteomyelitis

48
Q

what is a common medication for fractures

A

tetanus

49
Q

what is a common med for external fixation devices

A

bone penetrating antibiotics

50
Q

what complications can occur with fractures

A
neurovascular (6 P/s)
hemorrhage
infection
venous thrombosis
compartment syndrome
fat embolism syndrome
51
Q

what type of fractures are most at risk for hemmorhage

A

open fractures

52
Q

what are s/s of hemmorhage

A

increased HR
decreased BP
increased RR

53
Q

what is compartment syndrome

A

swelling and increased pressure within a limited space
compromises function of blood vessels
impaired tissue perfusion

54
Q

what is compartment syndrome caused by

A
restrictive dressings
splints
casts
bleeding
edema
sweling
IV
55
Q

what is the earliest symptom of compartment syndrome

A

severe increasing pain that isn’t relieved by opiods

56
Q

what can be done for compartment syndrome that is surgical

A

fasciotomy

57
Q

what is a fasciotomy

A

surgical decompression to relieve pressure

can be left open for several days

58
Q

what can occur if compartment syndrome is not treated

A

necrosis
infection
renal failure
Rhabdomyolysis (muscle breaks down, increased protein causes renal failure)

59
Q

what two syndromes are an emergency

A

compartment syndrome

fat embolism syndrome

60
Q

what is fat embolism syndrome

A

small fat particles that dislodge from broken bones (bone marrow fat) and distribute into tissues and organs

61
Q

what is the triad of places that fat embolisms travel

A

lungs
brain
skin

62
Q

what is one way to tell a fat embolism from a blood embolism

A

the skin

petechiae (rash) on chest, neck, axilla, conjunctiva

63
Q

what is important not to do when someone has a suspected fat embolism

A

DO NOT MOVE

64
Q

nursing care for fat embolism

A

continious immobilization of the long bone fracture
high fowlers
minimize movement

65
Q

when can dysplasia of the hip occur

A

anytime during fetal life, infancy, childhoow

66
Q

the pavlick harness is what form of brace

A

abduction brace (out)

67
Q

when is juevenile scoliosis diagnosed

A

before age 10

68
Q

what is the Ponseli method

A

frequent casting shortly after birth to correct a club foot

69
Q

what are the s/s of osteomyelitis

A
fever
diaphoresis
malaise
night sweats
inflammation
erythema
restricted movement
difficulty ambulating
70
Q

what is osteoporosis

A

chronic progressive metabolic bone disease
loss of bone density and structure
weak fragile bones

71
Q

what is osteopenia

A

bone loss, not yet osteoporosis

72
Q

what is the key to helping osteoporosis

A

low impact exercise (walking)

73
Q

what is Pagets disease

A

a skeletal bone disorder

excessive bone destruction followed by disorganized bone remodeling

74
Q

what is the most common and most fatal form of bone cancer

A

Osteosarcoma

inside bone

75
Q

who does osteosarcoma usually effect

A

young people 10-25

males

76
Q

s/s of osteosarcoma

A

localized pain/tenderness

possible mass

77
Q

what is Ewings Sarcoma difference from osteosarcoma

A

increased rate of being cured

outside the bone

78
Q

what can be seen with ewings sarcoma

A

local pain/swelling
low grade fever
leukocytosis
anemia

79
Q

what are the bone seeking cancers

A

prostate
breast
lung
thyroid

80
Q

what will the patient report with cancer has metastasized

A

diffuse severe pain

81
Q

what is primary gout caused by

A

purine metabolism

increased uric acid and kidneys cant excrete it all

82
Q

what can secondary gout be caused by

A

renal unsufficiency

medications (diuretics, chemo)

83
Q

what can increased uric acid cause in the kidneys

A

renal stone development

84
Q

what should people increase their diet in when they have gout

A

seafood
red meat
organ meat
game meat

85
Q

what is the most common form of joint disease

A

osteoarthritis

86
Q

what is osteoarthritis

A

slow detirioration of articular cartilage and bone ends of joints

87
Q

what are the nodes cause by arthritis called

A

heberdens

bouchards

88
Q

what is the difference between OA and RA

A

OA is localized and has no systemic manifestations

89
Q

where is heberdens nodes

A

distal

90
Q

where is bouchards node

A

proximal

91
Q

what is ice for

A

acute inflammation

92
Q

what is heat for

A

stiffness

93
Q

what age is arthroplasty/athroscopic surgery available to

A

under 55 years old

94
Q

what is RA classified as

A

systemic autoimmune disease