Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Takes Ca out of bone

A

PTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Puts Ca into bone

A

Calcitonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Accelerated bone loss with what type of osteporosis

A

Postmenopausal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What type of fx with postmenopausal

A

vertebral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what type of fx with age related osteoporosis

A

hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What type of bone does postmenopausal osteoporosis impact

A

trabecular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the purpose of the FRAX Tool

A

evaluates 10 year probability of hip fracture and major osteoporosis fracture

  • can be a guide as to whether meds or needed or not
  • available for 4 U.S. populations (white, black, asian, hispanic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Type of osteporosis med that can lead to femoral insufficincy fractures

A

Alendronate (Fosamax, Boniva)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Type of osteoporosis med that decr number of osteoclasts an is a nasal spray

A

Calcitonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Type of osteoporosis med that prevents bone loss in the spine and is a selective estrogen receptor modulator

A

Raloxifene (Evista)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Type of osteoporosis med that simulates osteoblastic proliferation and new bone formation. Taken intermittently and used with Ca citrate

A

Sodium Fluoride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What age needs the most Ca

A

9-18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Management of acute vertebral fractures

A
  1. ) Intermittant Horizontal Rest Regime (supine, SL, standing)….no sitting
  2. ) TENS for pain
  3. ) Isometric exercises with breathing
  4. ) Gentle AROM or AAROM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Management of subactue vertebral fractures

A
  1. ) Start to include some flexibility, strengthening, and balance
  2. ) Limit the amount lifting to less than 10 lbs
  3. ) Education on proper posture and body mechanics
  4. ) Evaluate need for orthotic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What two tests would you want to avoid in someone who has osteoporosis

A

BBS and Fullerton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What RPE for 60-80% of 1 RM

A

13-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What RPE for 40-60% of 1 RM

A

11-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Older adults and children rely on what sense more for balance

A

vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Adults rely on what sense more for balance

A

somatosensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What was were the two most predictive things of having a fall after D/C from hosptial

A
  1. ) Previous fall

2. ) Use of AD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When protein clumps together and cloud a small area of the lens, making it harder to see

A

Cataracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Degneration of the macula which is responsible for sharp, central vision

A

Age-related macular degeneration (AMD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Category of eye disorders associated with a dangerous buildup of internal eye pressure which can cause eye damage

A

Glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Glaucoma leads to loss of what type of vision

A

peripheral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Is glaucoma painful

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What score is indicative on fall risk for the GDS

A

More than 6 points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What score is indicative on fall risk for the FES-I

A

More than 24 points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

5 Medical History Questions Predictive of Falls

A
  1. ) Previous falls
  2. ) Psychoactive meds
  3. ) AD for ambulation
  4. ) Assistance with ADLS
  5. ) Fearful of falling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What score is indicative on fall risk for the BBS

A

Less than 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What score is indicative on fall risk for the TUG

A

More than 11 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What score is indicative on fall risk for the SLS, EO

A

Less than 6.5 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What score is indicative on fall risk for the 5x STS

A

More than 12 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What score is indicative on fall risk for the Self selected walking speed

A

Less than 1 m/sec

34
Q

What constitutes a hypertensive crisis

A
  1. ) SBP more than 180
  2. ) DBP more than 120
  3. ) RR more than 35
  4. ) HR more than 130 bpm
  5. ) HR less than 40 bpm
35
Q

What score is indicative on fall risk for the ABC Scale

A

Less than 67%

36
Q

What score is indicative on fall risk for the Functional Reach/Modified Functional Reach

A

Less than 6-7 inches

37
Q

What score is indicative on fall risk for the Fullerton means high fall risk

A

Less than 25

38
Q

What score is indicative on fall risk for the 4 Square step test

A

More than 15 sec

39
Q

What score is indicative on fall risk for the DGI

A

Less than 19

40
Q

What score is indicative on fall risk for the Tinetti (POMA)

A

Less than 19

41
Q

What measures static and dynamic balance in higher functioning adults

A

Fullerton Advance Balance Scale

42
Q

What time on the TUG would mean dependent in mobility and ADLs

A

More than 30 sec

43
Q

What percent slow on inside the parallel lines vs outside the parallel lines = fall risk

A

15%

44
Q

How long and wide is the corridor for the parallel walk test

A

6m long, 20cm wide

45
Q

What is a high fall risk on the tandem walk

A

Unable to walk 5 steps with eyes closed

46
Q

What test looks at dynamic balance with change in direction

A

4 Square Step Test

47
Q

What score on the FGA is indicative of falls

A

22/30 or less

48
Q

What score is indicative on fall risk for the 30 second chair stand

A

Less than 8

49
Q

What do you need to do before beginning the 30 second chair stand

A

Measure BP, HR, RR pre and post test

50
Q

More than ____cm = fx with arm span to height measurement

A

4cm

51
Q

More than ___cm on flexicurve = clinical kyphosis

A

13 cm

52
Q

Index of Kyphosis =

A

(TW/TL) x 100

53
Q

Less than or equal to ___cm = vertebral compression fx with the iliocostal distance measurement

A

3.6 cm

54
Q

What do you need to do pre and post test on the 2 min walk test

A

Measure BP, HR, RR

55
Q

What do you need to do pre and post test on the 2 min step test

A

Measure BP, HR, and RR

56
Q

What are the 4 categories on the Mini BEST

A

Anticipatory, reactive, sensory orientation, and dynamic gait

57
Q

3 evidence based community fall prevention program

A
  1. ) Otago
  2. ) Tai Chi
  3. ) Stopping Elderly Accidents Deaths and Injuries (STEADI)
58
Q

3 components of STEADI

A
  1. ) Screen
  2. ) Assess
  3. ) Intervene
59
Q

What 3 muscles make up the Levator Ani

A
  1. ) Puborectalis
  2. ) Pubococcygeus
  3. ) Illiococcygeus
60
Q

Are there more endurance or quick twitch fibers in the pelvic floor

A

endurance

61
Q

which trimester has the highest rate of miscarraige

A

first

62
Q

What is full term

A

37-42 weeks

63
Q

What causes the supine hypotension in pregnancy

A

compression to the inferior vena cava

64
Q

Posture changes that occur with pregnancy

A
  • cervical ext
  • scapular ab
  • protraction
  • increased thoracic flex
  • increased lumbar ext
  • increased anterior pelvic tilt
  • increased BOS
  • increased hip ER
65
Q

What BP is gestational HTN

A

140/90

66
Q

What types of movement can cause round ligament pain

A

anterior pelvic tilt or a cough or sneeze or another quick motion with pull

67
Q

True or false: ribcage expansion occurs early in pregancy

A

true

68
Q

Things to avoid when exercising someone who is pregnant

A
  • prolonged static positions
  • extreme assymetrical LE positions, vigorous stretching of hip adductors, positions that strain pelvic floor or abdominal muscles, supine for longer than 3 min, inverted, buttocks higher than chest (bridging)
69
Q

Is cryotherapy safe in someone who is pregnant

A

yes

70
Q

What motion do you want to avoid for 6-8 weeks postpartum

A

hip extension

71
Q

Type of urinary incontinence with a strong unconrollable sensation to void

A

Urge

72
Q

leakage with cough, laugh, sneeze, exertion, exercise

A

Stress incontinence

73
Q

urinary leakage secondary to lack of sensation to urinate…..common in those who hold their urine for long periods of time or those who have a neurological conditions like MS

A

Overflow incontinence

74
Q

Weakness of the anterior vaginal wall (and most common type of pelvic organ prolapse)

A

Cystocele

75
Q

Weakness of posterior vaginal wall

A

Rectocele

76
Q

Prolapse of the small bowel

A

Enterocele

77
Q

If someone has pelvic organ prolapse what might they complain of

A

back pain, pelvic heaviness/pressure, feeling something fall out

78
Q

What is the tx for dyssynergia of the pelvic floor muscles

A

biofeedback

79
Q

Things to screen for to see if pelvis is the issue:

A
  1. ) Pelvic Pain greater than 3/10
  2. ) Hx of tailbone fall
  3. ) urinary dysfunction such as incontinence, difficulty emptying bladder, pain with urination
  4. ) Nocturia
  5. ) Feeling of pelvic pressure
  6. ) Hx of LBP, hip, or groin pain
  7. ) Painful intercourse
  8. ) Pain with sitting
  9. ) Bowel dysfunction such as incontinence, difficulty emptying, pain, or straining
80
Q

What are the two subtests on the POMA

A

Balance and Gait