Exam-1 Flashcards
1
Q
What type of session will require a longer initial interview and evaluation?
A
Treatment massage
2
Q
Define the term: Superficial Fascia
A
Fascia in the superficial realm of the body; just beneath the skin.
3
Q
Gentle, passive range of motion techniques used during end-of-life care are:
A
Contraindicated as too aggressive
4
Q
Define the term: Downward rotation
A
Rotating a body part in an inferior direction
5
Q
Define the term: Cutaneous membrane
A
Skin; the outer membrane of the body composed of the dermis and epidermis.
6
Q
What do changes in muscle, fascia, and connective tissue indicate?
A
A functional postural dysfunction
7
Q
Aside from the positive effect on a person’s mood, the relaxation response promoted by massage also decreases sensations of:
A
Pain
8
Q
By inducing this type of nervous system response, massage promotes relaxation.
A
Parasympathetic
9
Q
Massage techniques stimulate sebaceous gland activity. This is a:
A
Mechanical effect
10
Q
One somatic reflex that can be manipulated by massage application methods is:
A
The tendon reflex
11
Q
Primary effects from massage are:
A
The first effects to occur in the tissue
12
Q
Adrenaline is associated with the “fight or flight” stress response and is also known as:
A
Epinephrine (also known as adrenaline) into the bloodstream
13
Q
The environment, the attitude of the person administering the treatment, and the client’s confidence in the effectiveness of the treatment all contribute to the:
A
Placebo effect
14
Q
Massage has been shown to DECREASE this type of brain wave, thus stimulating greater relaxation:
A
Beta
15
Q
Massage increases available amounts of “feel-good” chemicals in the body such as dopamine, oxytocin, and:
A
Serotonin
16
Q
Massage stimulates digestion because of the activation of which branch of the autonomic nervous system?
A
Parasympathetic nervous system
17
Q
The client’s mental and emotional experience of a massage session is a result of:
A
Psychological effects
18
Q
A physiological effect of massage that supports stress management is:
A
Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system response
19
Q
Which massage technique is most commonly used to loosen and discharge phlegm?
A
Tapotement
20
Q
Physiological effects of massage are:
A
Effects that occur in the body
21
Q
A common psychological side effect of chronic pain conditions such as fibromyalgia or myofascial pain syndrome is some level of:
A
Depression
22
Q
Massage can help reduce feelings of anxiety commonly associated with hyperstimulation of this branch of the autonomic nervous system:
A
Sympathetic
23
Q
Avid athletes seek massage as part of their training regimen because of its effectiveness in reducing muscle:
A
Fatigue
24
Q
With the improved quality of sleep that massage provides, production of this chemical, which reduces pain in the body, is increased:
A
Somatostatin
25
The increase in serotonin production stimulated by massage is linked to a DECREASE in symptoms of depression and:
Stress
26
Systemic effects of massage are:
Effects that cause changes to the body's chemistry, circulation, metabolism, and nervous system
27
Components of standard precautions include:
Properly cleaning surfaces contaminated with blood or bodily fluid
28
Practitioners should pull long hair back so that it does not touch a client because:
The hair can act as a reservoir for pathogens
29
A virus is a type of:
Infectious Agent
30
A pathogen passed from one person to another results in a(n):
Infectious Disease
31
Mites thrive in:
Warm, moist areas of the body and skin folds
32
Directly after eating on a lunch break during a massage shift, practitioners should:
Brush and Floss teeth
33
Which of the following types of jewelry can a practitioner keep on during a massage?
Small earrings
34
Mites do what?
Suck the blood of the host and cause itching?
35
Smoking should not be allowed:
Anywhere in the massage business facility or parking lot
36
If a client sneezes on a magazine in the reception area, he/she might transfer pathogens to another person via:
Indirect contact
37
An informed consent document should include:
A disclaimer and signature section
38
An example of objective data is:
Palpation of the client's soft-tissue
39
In the A section of a SOAP form you might document:
Session goals
40
Visual and palpation findings are documented in this section of the SOAP form:
O section
41
In the S section of a SOAP form you might document:
The symptoms the client reports
42
In the S section of a SOAP form, "intensity" means:
The degree the client experiences the symptoms
43
An example of subjective data includes:
The information the client write son the health form
44
When documenting a massage session on a standardized form:
Measure every finding and symptom with a consistent scale to quantify the data both before and after session
45
When Jenny leaves the massage clinic to move on to a new career opportunity, her client becomes very upset. She insists that she can't recover from her sports injury without Jenny. This is an example of:
Projection
46
One indication of unethical, unprofessional touch is:
When the practitioner
| is angry or frustrated with the client and can't drop it before providing massage
47
Any mental process that allows the mind to deal with conflicts that can't be immediately is classified as a:
Psychological defense mechanism
48
All of the following are examples of careless or unprofessional touch EXCEPT:
Rocking or vibration
49
Focusing on whatever is in the best interest of the client’s well-being is known as:
Client-centered care
50
The conscious decision to push away difficult emotions or anxiety-producing thoughts is called:
Suppression
51
A psychological defense that involves the outright refusal to acknowledge something that has occurred, or is occurring, is called:
Denial
52
The mutual trust and understanding established between practitioner and client at every stage of a massage session is known as:
Rapport
53
When clients experience transference, they may:
Attempt to establish the practitioner in a place of importance in their personal life
54
The friendly bond between people based on mutual liking, trust, and a sense that they understand and share each other's concerns is called:
Rapport
55
Which of the following is shortened in a muscle contraction?
The sarcomere unit
56
The origin of a muscle normally refers to the:
More stationery attachment
57
Which term best describes the quality felt at the end of passive range of motion with tissue stretch and tissue compression?
Firm end feel
58
What is an example of the type of tissue that would create a soft end feel?
Adipose
59
A straight line that passes horizontally, right to left, is a:
Medial-lateral axis
60
What should a therapist always do before asking a client to perform an active-assisted range of motion?
Demonstrate the action him/herself/they/them and whatever other pronouns I might have missed
61
Which type of contraction could a practitioner induce in a client to reduce the stretch reflex and soften hypertonic muscles?
Isometric
62
Tissue damage due to overuse, overstretching or over contracting is called:
Strain
63
The plasma membrane of muscle fibers is also referred to as the:
Sarcolemma
64
Which term best describes the act of using one's hands to examine, locate and manipulate muscle, soft tissue, or structure of the body?
Palpation
65
Which proprioceptors monitor the stretch reflex?
Muscle spindles
66
An articulation may refer to:
Any joint
67
Which term refers to the body's position and alignment while standing, sitting, or lying down?
Posture
68
Movements occur in the transverse plan around this axis:
Superior-inferior axis
69
Which term best describes a bundle of specialized fibers that contract to hold positions of the body or move a joint
Muscle
70
The sensitive area of the muscle fiber that connects with a motor neuron at the neuromuscular junction is called the:
Motor end plate
71
Which term is used to refer to a sheath of fibrous connective tissue that envelops muscles and organs?
Fascia
72
Pivot joints allow for what type of motion?
Rotation
73
Which term refers to an increase in muscle volume and size?
Hypertrophy
74
When the shape of the bones stop a movement, as when a person extends his elbow all the way, this is classified as what type of end feel?
Hard end feel
75
Lowering a book onto a table with control is an example of what type of contraction?
Eccentric
76
Which term refers to a muscle that shares the same action as another muscle at the same joint?
Synergist
77
Which term refers to movement of the scapula or mandible in an anterior direction?
Protraction
78
Where are muscle spindles located?
In the muscle of the belly
79
Which of the following is an example of a cartilaginous joint?
Intervertebral-Joint
80
The deltoid muscle has fibers that are oriented at multiple angles along a force-generating axis. This muscle is a:
Multipennate muscle
81
Which term best describes tissue damage resulting from long periods of repetitive use?
Cumulative Stress
82
Which term means underneath single or multiple layers?
Intermediate
83
Which term refers to a broad area of muscle, which converges on an attachment site and is called a triangular muscle?
Convergent
84
Isometric muscle contraction is the contraction of a muscle with:
No joint movement
85
Which term refers to the use of various body parts such as the hands, fingers, knuckles, thumbs, or elbows to perform certain palpation activities or application methods?
Anatomical tools
86
Massage has been shown to stimulate more rapid and elaborate development of this part of the brain, which is related to memory:
Hippocampus
87
Reflexive effects from massage occur from:
An involuntary response of the nervous system
88
The increase in delta wave activity in the brain, which is promoted by massage, is linked to enhanced:
Relaxation and sleep
89
Substance P is a neuropeptide that relates sensory information to the brain associated with:
Pain
90
Massage can reduce stress by regulating the body’s wake and sleep cycles, also known as:
Circadian Rhythm
91
The styloid process of the temporal bone is tender to even moderate pressure. It should be avoided when the practitioner is working the:
Neck and later portions of the face
92
Endangerment areas are:
Regions of the body where delicate structures are superficial and may be damaged by techniques applied too forcefully
93
If a client is receiving treatment for cancer and has had surgery to remove a tumor, he or she:
Is cleared to receive massage with a physician's release, but the recent surgery site is local contraindication
94
The clavicles, sternocleidomastoid muscles, and the trapezius muscles define the:
Posterior Triangle area
95
If a client takes lithium, it is important to avoid:
Scalp massage, as lithium causes hair shafts to weaken and thins the hair
96
If you feel a strong pulse while doing abdominal work, change the position of your hands to avoid disrupting circulation because you may be placing too much pressure on the:
Abdominal aorta or inferior vena cava
97
A client with mild depression:
Is indicated for massage
98
If a client is taking antidiabetic medications, the practitioner should be aware that:
Massage increases the use of glucose and insulin in the body, which could lead to adverse reactions
99
Anticoagulant medications may cause:
The client to bruise more easily in response to massage
100
The femoral triangle is defined by:
The inguinal ligament, sartorius, and adductor longus
101
When you use a hydrocollator pack or other hot pack:
Use at least four layers of towel to insulate the pack
102
When storing massage linens, a massage practitioner should:
Wash them in hot water with detergent, dry with heat, and store in a closed container
103
A well-planned treatment room for a business focusing on clinical massage would most likely have:
Neutral colors, medical charts, and anatomical models
104
When choosing lighting for a treatment room and the application of massage to clients:
Candles should always be avoided as a safety hazard
105
When you purchase sheets for your massage practice, an important consideration is that:
They are thick enough to provide sufficient coverage
106
If a practitioner who works as an employee notices that there is a safety issue at her place of employment, she should:
Report it to her supervisor
107
If you have cuts or hangnails on your hands, practice
Standard precautions
108
Pathogenic bacteria like E. coli may enter the body through:
Improperly handled food
109
These items are coverings for individual fingers that practitioners can use if there is a cut on a single finger:
Finger cots
110
If you touch your own hair during a session, you should:
Decontaminate your hands before touching the client again
111
Skin-to-skin contact or contact with contaminated linen, flooring, or hard surfaces could cause infections from:
Ringworm
112
This type of disease is passed from parent to child and is not infectious:
Genetic diseases
113
The US Centers for Disease Control and Prevention has determined that this practice is the single most important element of infection prevention:
Hand Washing
114
Lice are an example of this type of pathogen that can be transmitted from direct contact in a massage session:
Parasitic Animals
115
If a client has broken skin, practice:
Standard Precautions
116
A biological agent capable of causing disease is referred to as a:
Pathogen
117
Parasitic animals of most concern to massage practitioners include:
Lice
118
Because of the possibility of fungal infection, practitioners are discouraged from working:
Barefoot
119
The type of hepatitis commonly transferred through blood in health-care settings is:
Hepatitis C
120
Practitioners should wash their hands up to this level to ensure thorough sanitation:
Elbows
121
All of the following are mechanisms of vehicle transmission EXCEPT:
Insect Bite
122
A producer of disease is called:
A pathogen
123
Antiseptics are:
Weaker than disinfectants
124
When handling cleaning products:
Open the windows and run ceiling fans to increase ventilation
125
Practitioners who perspire heavily while giving massage should:
Wear sweatbands on the forehead and wrist to prevent droplets of sweat from getting on the client
126
On a 0–10 scale, 1 represents:
Mild minus (L-)
127
The client's goals, symptoms, and activities of daily living that aggravate or relieve symptoms are called:
Subjective data
128
Information you gather through observation of the client and palpation of the client's tissue is called:
Objective data
129
In order to be eligible for liability insurance coverage, most insurance providers expect practitioners to:
Complete honest and accurate documentation for each session
130
An example of documentation where "onset" is recorded properly is:
The first week of may 2007
131
Practitioners develop their own abbreviations for massage terms when:
Standard abbreviations do not exist
132
A document that clients complete before their first session that includes personal contact information, current health conditions, medications, and past health conditions is:
A health history form
133
"Constant," "intermittent," and "seldom" are examples of:
Frequency
134
The session goals are documented in this section of the SOAP form:
A section
135
If a practitioner experiences a feeling of fullness in the forearm of the upper extremity, or numbness and decreased motor control, or shooting pain, he/she may be developing:
Thoracic outlet syndrome
136
While applying a stroke, it is good body mechanics to:
Line your body up directly behind your hands so it is positioned behind the work
137
When applying compression strokes or sustained direct pressure:
Use the forearm or elbow if possible to avoid injury
138
To avoid injury due to repetitive actions and overuse, incorporate plenty of this into the massage routine:
Movement and variety
139
If the practitioner is performing bilateral compression strokes to a client’s pectoral muscles, which is the most effective stance?
Symmetric stance
140
The ability to perform a full day's work with several clients without tiring or compensating with poor body mechanics is referred to as:
Stamina
141
Accurately informing clients and other professionals of the breadth and limitations of one's discipline describes which ethical principle?
Working within scope of practice
142
Lack of modesty in draping or personal privacy practices is a violation of which ethical principle?
Respecting the client’s dignity and basic rights
143
Which of the following is NOT directly related to providing high-quality care?
Creating a website that displays professional images and text
144
It is not unethical to refuse massage service to clients in this situation:
The client is under the influence of illegal drugs or alcohol
145
These are made up of beliefs and opinions that hold emotional worth and guide people’s behavior.
Values
146
Clients may experience unwanted sexual arousal responses because:
The abdominal areas, gluteal region, lower extremities, and genitals share the same nerve plexuses
147
If a practitioner starts a session late or ends a session early, he/she is violating which ethical code?
Commitment to high-quality service and client care
148
Beliefs that hold emotional worth, define character, and guide actions are known as:
Values
149
If you use a nickname for a client, such as "honey," and the client asks you to refrain from using the nickname and you use it again, it is considered:
Sexual harassment and may result in sexual abuse charges
150
What is the most appropriate method for obtaining informed consent from a client?
Have the client read and sign an informed consent form, with an opportunity to ask questions
151
When clients use sexual innuendo or sexual impropriety, such as telling jokes of a sexual nature or sharing with the practitioner that the client hasn't had sex in a long time, it is appropriate to:
Give them one warning that allows them to stop the inappropriate behavior and then terminate the session if the client does not stop the behavior that jeopardizes the therapeutic relationship
152
When a practitioner sees a client for massage and also tries to sell that client supplements, this is referred to as:
A conflict of interest
153
When should all secondary relationships be avoided?
If the therapeutic relationship came first
154
Which type of boundary is appropriate for a practitioner to exhibit if a client makes a sexual advance?
Impermeable
155
The NCBTMB mandates this period between ending a therapeutic relationship and beginning a personal relationship:
6 months
156
In order to avoid creating a dual relationship, a practitioner should not provide massage to:
A love interest
157
A semipermeable boundary between practitioner and client is most appropriate because it allows the practitioner to be sensitive to the client without:
Risk
158
A practitioner who refuses to work on a client because of race or sexual orientation is presenting which type of boundary?
Impermeable
159
When a practitioner sees a good friend as a massage client, and begins to discuss her relationship troubles during the massage, she is sacrificing this aspect of the massage:
Client - centered
160
When people who have been practicing massage for a number of years under an older system are allowed to integrate into the new system, this is referred to as:
Grandfathering
161
In states that do not regulate massage, a client who wants to lodge a complaint against a practitioner should contact:
The practitioner's membership organization
162
The identification or naming of a condition or disease is known as a(n):
Diagnosis
163
How does certification differ from licensure?
A license is granted by state or local government; certification typically comes from nongovernmental agencies
164
The diagnosis of illness or disease is:
Out of the scope of practice for massage therapy
165
A requirement to practice massage in some states, this process allows an organization to keep track of practitioners in a database:
Registration
166
In what instance is a spinal adjustment included in a massage practitioner's scope of practice?
Spinal adjustment is never part of the scope of practice
167
This group is usually appointed in states that regulate massage to oversee licensees and investigate complaints:
Board
168
Which of the following represents a practitioner violating his scope of practice?
A massage practitioner offers spinal adjustments to clients
169
Diagnosing a medical condition is considered:
Outside the scope of practice for any massage practitioner
170
The activity of the body in terms of groups of mutually supportive organs is the:
Organ System Level
171
The long, hollow passage formed by the vertebral foramina in the intact vertebral column is the:
Spinal Canal
172
The origin of a nerve at the spinal cord is its:
Root
173
A muscle closest to the bone is referred to as:
Deep
174
Filtration is the movement of water and dissolved substances across a membrane because of:
Hydrostatic pressure
175
Medial rotation of the radius that turns the palm downward is called:
Pronation
176
Toward the midline of the body is called:
Medial
177
The anterior thorax and upper limb is known as the:
Pectoral Area
178
Transverse plane is another term for what?
Horizontal
179
The movement of the ankle that moves the dorsal surface of the foot away from the anterior tibia is:
Plantar Flexion
180
Spinal relates to the:
Vertebral column
181
Which plane runs front to back, dividing the body into right and left parts?
Sagittal
182
The movement at the intertarsal joints facing the plantar surface of the foot medially is:
Inversion
183
The part of the abdomen to the left of the midline and below the umbilicus is the:
Left lower quadrant
184
Body temperature, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and palpable swelling are all considered:
Signs
185
The bones of the proximal foot are referred to as:
Tarsals
186
The transport of small molecules across cell membranes that does not require energy is:
Passive Transport
187
A muscle at, or close to, the surface of the body is said to be:
Superficial
188
Effects of cells on the body is activity at the:
Cellular level
189
The anterior surface of the hand in the anatomical position is the:
Palmar surface
190
Carotene is the precursor to vitamin:
A
191
The sebaceous glands are commonly referred to as:
Oil glands
192
Cutaneous is a term that refers to:
Skin
193
In addition to pressure, Pacinian corpuscles are also sensitive to:
Vibration
194
Merkel cells are also referred to as:
Tactile cells
195
Sudoriferous glands produce:
Sweat
196
The deeper layer of the skin containing blood and lymph vessels, nerves, and accessory organs is the:
Dermis
197
What are the small openings for sweat and sebaceous glands?
Pores
198
The deeper layer of the dermis made up of disorganized fibrous connective tissue and collagen that attaches the dermis to the adipose layer below is the:
Reticular region
199
The sensory receptors of incoming nerves in the mouth, eyelids, skin, and other places sensitive to cold are called:
Krause end bulbs
200
What is the strong fibrous membrane that covers and protects the long bones of the body?
Periosteum
201
Which term refers to fixed or immovable joints in which little or no movement between bones is possible?
Fibrous joints
202
Name the longest bone of the body:
Femur
203
Which term is used to describe specific locations or marks upon a bone?
Bony Landmark
204
Which term refers to ellipsoid joints between the metacarpals and the proximal phalanges?
Metacarpophalangeal joints
205
Which term refers to the medial bone of the forearm?
Ulna
206
Name the weight-supporting bone of the leg articulating with the femur at the knee and the talus at the ankle:
Tibia
207
The phenomenon in which something becomes deformed when an outside force manipulates it and slowly returns to its normal orientation over time is:
Viscoelasticity
208
Fascia moves between a sol and gel state easily when manipulated by massage techniques because:
It has more ground substance than other forms of connective tissue
209
When fascia is in a sol state, it is more:
Fluid
210
One way that fascia maintains the structural integrity of the body is:
It separates individual structures without losing the cohesion between them
211
When fascia is in a gel state it is more:
Viscous
212
These delicate collagen strands form networks that support skeletal and smooth muscle cells and nerves, and provide the framework for soft organs like the spleen:
Reticular fibers
213
This type of fascia surrounds organs and muscles so they can glide over each other without sticking:
Deep Fascia
214
One of the primary functions of fascia is to:
Provide Structural Integrity
215
One of the three fibers found in the connective tissue matrix is:
Elastin
216
This fluid, produced by fibroblasts, surrounds the cells in the body to support cellular metabolism:
Ground Substance
217
A reflex mechanism that coordinates the efforts of agonist and antagonist muscles is called:
Reciprocal Inhibition
218
Which term refers to the intermediate muscle layer of the flexor compartment that flexes fingers 2–5?
Flexor digitorum superficialis
219
Which muscle attaches to the manubrium and medial clavicle, and runs up to the mastoid process?
Sternocleidomastoid
220
Which concept best describes the interaction between myosin and actin that causes a muscle contraction?
Sliding filament theory
221
The most superficial muscle of the posterior lower leg is the:
Gastrocnemius
222
Which term best describes chronic pain that is accompanied by trigger points?
Myofascial pain syndrome
223
Which muscle of the quadriceps originates on the medial femur?
Vastus medialis
224
What are the deep muscles connecting the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae?
Interspinales
225
The peroneus longus inserts on the:
1st cuneiform and 1st metatarsal
226
What is the large, superficial muscle of the anterior chest?
Pectoralis major
227
The occipital lobe, basal ganglia, and corpus callosum are all part of the:
Cerebrum
228
Bell's palsy is paralysis of the:
Facial Nerve
229
Which of the following are not special sensory receptors?
Golgi tendon organs
230
The nerve whose deep division passes through the carpal tunnel is the:
Median Nerve
231
Most of the respiratory centers of the brain are located in the:
Pons
232
What is the part of the central nervous system (CNS) outside the brain?
Spinal Cord
233
A bundle of neurons that carries information from one part of the nervous system to another is a(n):
Neuronal pathway
234
A gap in the myelin sheath that aids in speeding the impulses is called:
Node of Ranvier
235
The most medial nerve of the forearm is the:
Ulnar nerve
236
The communicating junction between neurons is a:
Synapse
237
If one presses finger into the skin, and it leaves a hollow spot on removal, it may be due to:
Pitting edema
238
Diastole refers to the ____ of the myocardium.
Relaxation
239
What do you call the hollow center of a blood vessel or organ?
Lumen
240
The accumulation of fluid in interstitial spaces is called:
Edema
241
Blood from the arms and upper body is returned to the heart via the:
Super vena cava
242
The cells that transport oxygen are properly called:
Erythrocytes
243
The movement of blood through the lungs is:
Pulmonary circulation
244
The aorta carries blood out of the:
Left ventricle
245
The total venous drainage from the lower body is carried by the:
Inferior vena cava
246
The circulation of blood throughout the body is called:
Systemic Circulation
247
Lymph drainage from the feet, legs, and gluteal region passes through the:
Inguinal nodes
248
The lymph tissue in the wall of the intestine is:
Peyer's patches
249
Backflow in the lymphatics is prevented by the:
Intralymphatic valve
250
How many sets of tonsils are in the body?
3
251
What are the nodes that receive immediate drainage from the cheeks and floor of the mouth?
Submandibular nodes
252
Where does the lymph from the arm, shoulder, and upper trunk drain?
Axillary Nodes
253
Once a person has chicken pox, he is considered immune to acquiring it in the future. This type of immunity is known as:
Active naturally acquired immunity
254
The lymph node is the main residence for:
Lymphocytes
255
What is the system that returns lymph to the blood?
Lymphatic vessels
256
Where is the thymus gland located?
Behind the sternum
257
Antibodies are produced mainly by:
B cells
258
Lymphocytes that migrate to damaged areas and attack invading microbes are the:
T cells
259
A harmful substance that stimulates the immune system is a(n):
Antigen
260
A very severe allergic reaction involving the release of large amounts of histamine is:
Anaphylaxis
261
What is the name of the system that fights off diseases and some toxic substances?
Immune System
262
Any cell that engulfs bacteria and other foreign material is called a:
Phagocyte
263
A disease in which the immune system attacks normal tissue is an:
Autoimmune disease
264
A red, superficial rash of welts is called:
Urticaria
265
When the immune system is exposed to a substance it has been sensitized to, there can be a(n):
Allergic reaction
266
The first line of defense in an immune response that might include the skin oils or mucus is called:
Non-specific Immunity
267
The last section of the small intestine, which opens to the large intestine, is known as the:
Ileum
268
The synthesis of larger molecules from smaller molecules is called:
Anabolism
269
Gingivae is the technical term for:
Gum
270
The majority of the breakdown of proteins occurs in the:
Stomach
271
The external anal sphincter contains which type of muscle tissue?
Striated
272
What is the tube-shaped sac at the beginning of the colon?
Appendix
273
The breakdown of ingested food in the gut by enzymatic action is
Chemical Digestion
274
The most acidic part of the digestive system is the:
Stomach
275
The total energy budget of the body is called:
Metabolism
276
The valve that allows chyme to pass from the small to the large intestine is the:
Ileocecal valve
277
Which of the following is not part of the respiratory system?
Carotid Sinus
278
What are the larger air passages in the lungs?
Bronchi
279
During external respiration, the blood in the pulmonary capillaries gains oxygen and releases:
Carbon dioxide
280
What structure within the lungs is the site for gas exchange?
Respiratory membrane
281
Each lung is covered by a serous membrane called the:
Pleura
282
All of the following are muscles of respiration EXCEPT for:
Pectoralis major
283
The nasopharynx is the part of the pharynx behind the nasal cavity and above the:
Soft palate
284
The series of cavities and tubes that serves to filter, warm, and moisten air before sending it to the lungs is called the ____ of the respiratory system.
Conducting portion
285
The volume of air that is inhaled or exhaled during a normal, resting breath cycle is called:
Tidal Volume
286
The trachea divides to form what?
Primary bronchi
287
The hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex in response to stress is:
Cortisol
288
Another term for the pituitary gland is the:
Hypophysis
289
The hormone that increases blood sugar and suppresses the immune system after secretion by the adrenal cortex is:
Cortisol
290
The cell groups within the pancreas that produce insulin and glucagons are known collectively as:
The islets of Langerhans
291
The hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex that aids in metabolism of fat, protein, and carbohydrates is:
Cortisol
292
Adrenaline is produced by which part of the adrenal gland?
Adrenal medulla
293
The hormone that stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce steroids is the:
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
294
The rate at which the body metabolizes in a resting state is known as the:
Basal metabolic rate
295
This gland is referred to as the master gland because the hormones it produces control several other glands:
Pituitary
296
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) acts on the:
Thyroid
297
The production of female gametes (sex cell) is called:
Oogenesis
298
The fibromuscular sac containing the testes is the:
Scrotum
299
The human papillomavirus has been implicated as a factor in:
Cervical cancer
300
The production of estrogen and progesterone occurs in the:
Ovaries
301
What do you call a chromosome that is not a sex chromosome?
Autosome
302
The luteinizing hormone during the middle of the ovarian cycle stimulates:
Ovulation
303
The scrotum is a pouch-like sac responsible for holding what?
Testes
304
The type of cell division that results in haploid cells is called:
Meiosis
305
The canal leading from a woman's cervix to the external genitalia is the:
Vagina
306
The female homolog of the male testes is the:
Ovary
307
Which of the following is not part of the urinary system?
Testes
308
The inlets on the renal pelvis that collect urine from the renal pyramids are referred to as ____ major and minor.
Calyces
309
Urine is normally ____% water.
95
310
These structures travel alongside nephrons for reabsorption and secretion between the blood and nephron:
Peritubular capillaries
311
The renal capsule is ____ surrounding the kidneys.
Fibrous connective tissue
312
The hilus is a concave area on which portion of the kidney?
Medial
313
What organ is a storage site for urine?
Bladder
314
This sphincter is involuntary and is located at the exit of the bladder:
Internal urethral sphincter
315
How long is the average female urethra?
1.5 inches
316
All of the following are normal constituents of urine EXCEPT:
Albumin
317
A process where fibroblasts lay down a weak, delicate form of collagen in an area of injury where tissue was lost is called:
Granulation
318
The point at which structures are damaged by loads and lose their mechanical integrity, usually resulting in injury is called:
Tissue Failure
319
An abnormal nodular mass caused by excessive collagen synthesis is known as:
Keloid
320
The cellular debris destruction naturally initiated by the body in response to injury is referred to as:
Phagocytosis
321
A low-magnitude force in which contracting structures move in opposite directions and resist one another is known as:
Friction
322
Hara refers to the:
Abdominal region
323
The field produced as a result of the body's electrical activity that is projected into the space around the body is called a:
Bio-magnetic-Field
324
Vata is an example of a(n)
Dosha
325
One of the five elements in Chinese medical system is:
Metal
326
Imbalance in this is believed to cause continuous feelings of dissatisfaction:
Chakras
327
What is the energy, considered vital life force energy, that underlies everything in the universe in Chinese concepts of medicine?
Qi
328
What is a general term based on beliefs of energy movement and stagnation?
Energy Anatomy
329
What Chinese word means "spirit" and is one of the five essential substances?
Shen
330
In the Chinese concept of body fluid, mucus, tears, and perspiration do this:
lubricate tissues and organs
331
Information the client gives the practitioner that is based on experience, opinion, and feeling is referred to as:
Subjective Data
332
A health history form is used to gather:
Medications
333
A client is reporting shooting pains in her shoulder and numbness down her arm. Which of the following questions is the most relevant follow-up?
How long has this been happening?
334
While the client fills out the health history form, the practitioner should:
Be available for questions and clarifications
335
During the initial interview, you should avoid:
Offering your opinion when your client shares a previous therapist’s or doctor’s evaluations
336
A health history form is used to gather:
Personal Contact Information
337
The informed consent document should contain:
Potential benefits, as well as risks or side effects of treatment
338
A conversation that occurs between the therapist and client to gather information used to plan a session is called:
A client interview process
339
The primary purpose of a health history form is:
To rule out contraindications
340
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate or relevant question to include on a health history intake form?
Sexual Orientation
341
In order to see deviations in the midsagittal plane, it is best to view the client:
from front to back
342
When massage is not expected to cure the pathology but is used to reduce some symptoms or improve the body's ability to cope, it is categorized as:
Condition management
343
When the body attempts to correct an imbalance or protect an area from injury by offsetting the posture in some way, this is known as:
A Compensation Pattern
344
Gentle massage or laying-on of hands to ease pain and provide reassurance for serious illness, terminal illness, or the dying process is categorized as:
Palliative Care
345
During general observations of the client, a therapist might gather information about:
The general symmetry of the client's body
346
When massage is used to help the client preserve their present state of well-being as part of a healthy lifestyle, it is categorized as:
Health Maintenance
347
All of the following would indicate a client that is in an aroused, sympathetic nervous system state EXCEPT:
Arms crossed over the chest and head hanging
348
Whether a practitioner is performing a wellness massage or a therapeutic massage, the assessment begins with:
Understanding the client’s goals
349
One shoulder is elevated higher toward the client's ear than the other. This is an example of:
Asymmetry
350
Palpation of bony landmarks, such as locating the superior spine of the scapula, can help a practitioner determine:
The degree of symmetry
351
Temperature differences felt on the client’s skin can be an indication of differences in:
Circulation
352
In order to gradually relax the client's body, it is best to palpate the muscles from:
Superficial to deep layers
353
A practitioner with strong palpation skills:
Feels nuances in tissue temperature, texture, hydration, tone, and depth
354
The practice of assessing a client’s tissues through touch is known as:
A palpation assessment
355
A practitioner's palpation skills rely on his or her responsiveness developed predominantly in:
Mechanoreceptors that reside in the skin
356
These will always feel taut, regardless of the position of a joint:
Ligaments
357
During a wellness session, the objective of palpation is:
To palpate attentively and continuously in order to adjust the depth and speed of strokes to ensure the client's comfort
358
During palpation of the superficial fascia, a practitioner would consistently be able to feel variations in the:
skin
359
If a client is tense and stressed, the practitioner may notice that the client’s breath:
Is concentrated in the upper chest
360
In the anterior view, shoulder elevation is determined by observing and palpating the:
Clavicles
361
If one iliac crest is elevated and the other is depressed, the pelvis is likely:
Tilted Laterally
362
From a lateral view, a practitioner can observe:
Protracted or retracted shoulders
363
Muscles that are likely short and hypertonic when a shoulder elevation is observed include:
Scalenes and upper trapezius
364
If the medial longitudinal arch of one or both feet is decreased due to pronation, it is referred to as:
Pes planus
365
If the client has an anterior pelvic tilt, the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) will:
Tilt forward
366
When the head is positioned anteriorly of its correct alignment it is called:
Head forward position
367
During a posture assessment, you evaluate:
Four views of the client
368
The greater the lack of symmetry in the left and right sides of the body, the greater the potential for:
Injury and dysfunction
369
The body's center of gravity is located:
Just above the pelvis
370
The difference between the amount of movement a client can create in a joint and the extra amount of movement a therapist can create is a measure of:
Joint Play
371
What should a therapist always do before asking a client to perform active-assisted range of motion?
Demonstrate the movement himself
372
Passive range of motion evaluates the health and elasticity of passive tissues such as:
Ligaments
373
Joint play can be assessed during which type of range of motion?
Passive
374
The abbreviation ROM stands for:
Range of Motion
375
Which of the following is NOT a sign that a client has reached her limit in an active range of motion exercise?
A sudden flush of heat through the tissues
376
To assess the client's willingness to move, as well as general pain levels related to movement, the practitioner would use this test first:
Active range of motion
377
What is an example of the type of tissue that would create a soft end feel?
Muscle
378
What type of tissue offers resistance to movement in a hard end feel?
Bone
379
Pivot joints allow for what type of motion?
Rotation
380
Pain that extends out from the injured area along specific spinal nerve root distributions (dermatomes) is defined as:
Radiating pain
381
When pain is restricted to one local region of the body and felt in only one place, it is defined as:
Focal Pain
382
Chronic pain that persists despite treatment is defined as:
Intractable pain
383
One method of pain assessment is:
The use of pain and disability indexes
384
Massage reliably reduces pain for a wide variety of chronic conditions and special populations by:
Promoting relaxation
385
A chronic pain condition characterized by tender points all over the body is called:
fibromyalgia
386
Axons that are not myelinated and convey pain information more slowly are:
C fiber axons
387
Pain that persists for a long period of time, past the point of typical injury recovery or in relationship to a medical condition, is defined as:
Chronic Pain
388
When pain sensations are broadly distributed, and pain is felt in more than one place, it is defined as:
Multifocal pain
389
One benefit of conducting a pain assessment is:
Documentation of regularly conducted pain assessments demonstrates the need for massage to referring physicians
390
Which of these functional goals is measurable?
Lift a 5-lb. box onto a conveyer belt for 1 hour three times during the day with mild-plus pain
391
Functional goals are documented in this section of a SOAP chart:
A
392
Carrying items, lifting items, walking up and down stairs, and grasping and holding objects are defined as:
Basic Functions
393
Functional limitations impact clients:
On many levels
394
A functional goal achieved by the client and related to benefits from regular massage is called:
A functional outcome
395
Daily activities that are limited by a condition or a symptom are referred to as:
Functional limitations
396
To quantify a goal:
Describe how much of the activity should be performable
397
Short-term goals are written for this time period:
7 - 14 days
398
Functional limitations impact a client's ability to participate in:
Activities of daily living
399
Before the client gets undressed, the practitioner should always remind each client to remove:
All jewelry
400
Is it ever OK to change the treatment plan in the middle of a massage?
Yes, but the practitioner should explain the reasoning to the client and get consent first
401
Which of the following is an example of an effective short-term goal?
Within two weeks, be able to lift child in and out of car seat, twice a day, 5 days a week without pain
402
In the acute stage of a healing process, a practitioner is planning a session to:
Reduce tissue swelling and pain at the affected region and reduce sympathetic nervous system firing to support client recovery
403
Where should the practitioner record the treatment plan for the next session?
In the P section of the SOAP notes
404
Which of the following is NOT a factor in deciding whether to start the client supine or prone?
The client requests a firm pressure throughout all areas of the body
405
Before the practitioner leaves the room to let the client get undressed and situated on the table, the practitioner should:
Tell the client how to position himself on the table, how completely to undress, and where to hang his clothes
406
If a client reports she has a soft-tissue injury from a recent sporting accident, the first thing you need to determine is:
What is the affected tissue's stage of inflammation?
407
When massage is used as a tool to induce a positive effect in a client's entire system and general well-being, this is referred to as:
Therapeutic change
408
All of the following are indications the practitioner may be using too much pressure EXCEPT:
The client sighs out a deep exhalation
409
Which joint refers to the articulation between the trochlear notch of the ulna and the trochlea of the humerus?
Humeroulnar joint
410
What muscle can supinate the forearm as it flexes the forearm at the elbow?
biceps brachii
411
Which term best describes a sharp edge of bone continuing proximally from the lateral epicondyle on the distal and lateral portion of the humerus?
Lateral supracondylar ridge
412
Which term refers to the ellipsoid joints between the metacarpals and the proximal phalanges?
Metacarpophalangeal joints
413
Which bone refers to the distal carpal row between the trapezium and capitate and articulates with the second metacarpal?
Trapezoid
414
Which term refers to a depression on the distal, anterior humerus?
Coronoid fossa
415
Which muscle refers to the superficial layer of the extensor compartment that extends digits 2–5?
Extensor digitorum
416
Which term refers to the long bone of the upper arm?
Humerus
417
Which term refers to the ellipsoid joint between the distal radius and the proximal row of carpals?
Wrist Joint
418
Which term refers to the bony prominence of the humerus located lateral to the olecranon process?
Lateral epicondyle
419
Which term best describes the anterior movement of the upper extremity in the sagittal plane?
Flexion
420
Which term refers to a rotational movement of the glenoid cavity in a superior direction?
upward rotation
421
Which term best describes movement of the scapula toward the spine and in a posterior direction?
Retraction
422
Which term best describes the joint formed by the medial end of the clavicle and the sternal notch of the manubrium?
Sternoclavicular joint
423
Which term refers to the outside edge of the scapula?
Lateral Border
424
Which muscle has the same action as teres major?
Latissimus dorsi
425
Which term refers to a joint that has a ball-shaped bone that articulates with a round depression of another bone and can move in all three planes, such as the shoulder joint?
Ball-and-socket joint
426
Which term best describes a bony prominence on the proximal lateral aspect of the humerus that articulates with the scapula and provides an attachment site for the teres minor and infraspinatus?
Greater tubercle
427
Which term best describes movement of the scapula in an inferior direction?
Depression
428
Which rotator cuff muscle fills the subscapular fossa and stabilizes the head of the humerus in the glenoid cavity?
Subscapularis
429
The 3–5 small, fused vertebrae at the caudal end of the spinal column make up the:
Coccyx
430
All of the following are considered origins of the diaphragm EXCEPT:
The lower three or four thoracic vertebrae
431
The long S-shaped bone, also called a collar bone, that connects the shoulder to the axial skeleton is the:
Clavicle
432
What is a muscle contraction in which there is no joint movement?
Isometric contraction
433
Which term best describes the false joint formed by the anterior scapula and the posterior ribs?
Scapulothoracic joint
434
The five largest, unfused vertebrae in the spinal column are the:
Lumbar vertebrae
435
The deepest of the lateral abdominal muscles is the:
Transverse abdominis
436
The posterior projections of the vertebrae for muscle attachment are the:
Spinous processes
437
A term referring to a small, flat, gliding joint surface between two articular processes of adjacent vertebrae is:
Articular facet
438
The space formed by the spinous and transverse processes of the vertebral column is:
Lamina groove
439
The flat muscle that connects the spinous processes of C7–T4 to the mastoid process is the:
Splenius capitis
440
Raising or closing the jaw is called
Elevation
441
Which of the following connects to the second rib?
Posterior Scalene
442
An abnormal, forced closure of the jaw is called:
Clenching
443
The fibrocartilage structure shaped to improve the fit between the bones of a synovial joint is the:
Articular disc
444
The trapezius originates on the spinous processes of which vertebrae?
C7 through T!2
445
The atlanto-occipital joint is:
The joint between the occipital bone and C1
446
The closing muscle of the jaw that attaches to the coronoid process of the mandible is the:
Temporalis
447
The flat sheet of connective tissue in the mid-sagittal plane connecting the occipital crest of the skull to the cervical spinous processes is:
Ligamentum nuchae
448
The anterior part of the nasal septum is formed by the:
Vomer
449
The most superficial muscle of the upper back and neck is the:
Trapezius
450
What is the origin of the serratus anterior muscle?
Ribs 1 -9
451
The prominent projection of bone just below and behind the ear and attachment of the sternocleidomastoid is the:
Mastoid Process
452
The gliding joints between the articular processes of vertebrae are:
Intervertebral joints
453
The atlanto-axial joint is:
A pivot joint between C1 and C2
454
The flat muscle that raises the eyebrows is the:
Frontalis
455
The fibrous joints between the bones of the skull are called:
Sutures
456
The joint surfaces that project upward from a vertebra to form the intervertebral joint are the:
Superior facets
457
The facial bone forming the arch of the cheeks is the:
Zygomatic bone
458
The external ear canal is properly called the:
External auditory meatus
459
The bony ridge between the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS) is the:
Illiac Crest
460
The small bone composed of fused vertebrae attached to the caudal end of the sacrum is the:
Coccyx
461
What part of the iliopsoas attaches at the anterior portion of the 12th thoracic vertebra and all lumbar vertebrae?
Psoas major
462
What part of the pelvis is the ischium?
Posterior inferior
463
Medial rotation:
Is movement of the anterior surface of the femur toward the midline
464
What is the only muscle that crosses the sacroiliac joint?
Piriformis
465
The most prominent bony landmark of the anterior ilium is the:
Anterior superior iliac spine
466
What is the insertion of the iliopsoas?
Lesser trochanter of the femur
467
The bowl-shaped structure formed by the two pelvic bones and the sacrum is the:
Pelvis
468
The largest bone in the human body is considered to be this:
Femur
469
What is the large convex surface on the lateral distal femur that articulates with the lateral tibial condyle?
Lateral femoral condyle
470
Which term, otherwise known as the "goose foot," refers to a wide, tendinous attachment on the proximal medial tibia?
Pes anserinus
471
What is the long slender muscle originating on the inferior pubic ramus and inserting on the pes anserinus?
Gracialis
472
Which term best describes a ligament that runs from the medial epicondyle of the femur to the proximal medial tibia?
Tibial Collateral
473
What do you call the low projection on the side of the lateral distal femur?
Lateral femoral epicondyle
474
What is the slightly concave surface on the lateral proximal tibia that articulates with the lateral femoral condyle?
Lateral tibial condyle
475
Which muscle is the longest quadriceps muscle?
Rectus femoris
476
What is the anatomical name for the knee joint?
Tibiofemoral joint
477
Semitendinosus is ____ to the biceps femoris.
Medial
478
This prominence on the distal end of the femur serves as an attachment site for the adductor magnus:
Adductor tubercle
479
The transversely oriented bone on the medial aspect of the ankle that articulates with the talus posteriorly and the cuneiforms anteriorly is the:
Navicular
480
The extensor hallucis longus:
Extends the first digit of the foot
481
The curve made up of the distal metatarsals is the:
Transverse arch
482
Muscles whose origins are not in the area of the body of their insertions are called:
Extrinsic
483
The movement at the tarsal joints, facing the plantar surface of the foot medially, is called:
Inversion
484
The muscle that flexes the first digit of the foot is the:
flexor hallucius longus
485
The interosseous membrane:
Connects the tibia and fibula
486
The fibrous band whose ends both attach to the calcaneus, restraining the peroneus longus and brevis tendons is the:
Inferior fibular retinaculum
487
Which term refers to movement of the intertarsal joints, facing the plantar surface of the foot medially?
Inversion
488
A synovial hinge joint moves in the:
Saggital plane only
489
What is the outer layer of the kidney called?
Renal Cortex
490
Where does blood from the renal arteries go?
Kidneys
491
What is the storage organ for urine?
Bladder
492
The urinary bladder is composed of what kind of muscle?
Smooth
493
The primary organs of the urinary system are the?
The primary organ(s) of the urinary system are the:
494
A rapidly developing and severe allergic reaction is:
Anaphylaxis
495
How many cervical vertebrae are there?
7
496
When palpating the muscles of the upper back, the most superficial muscle is the:
Trapezius
497
A grainy, fibrous texture, or the sensation that the tissues are stuck together, best describes:
Scar Tissue
498
When palpating tendons, a practitioner is likely to notice that they:
Feel denser than muscle tissue
499
The subtle ebb and flow of cerebrospinal fluid is most easily felt at:
The cranium
500
If a client’s muscles feel like they are dissolving or falling away under pressure, this is a sign of:
Poor Nutrition
501
To palpate the piriformis you would:
Drop through the gluteus maximus
502
When practicing palpation assessment to test for areas of tension, it is best to make contact:
With a slow and gradual sustained pressure
503
If a client is experiencing edema, her tissue will feel:
Spongy
504
Reduced blood flow to an area can result in fascial adhesions and hypertonic muscles. This condition is known as:
Ischemia
505
A hyperirritable spot in skeletal muscle that is associated with a hypersensitive palpable nodule in a taut band is called a
trigger point
506
Jaundice is caused by a buildup of:
a bile pigment
507
Orthostatic hypotension is:
a sudden drop in blood pressure
508
The ____ divides each muscle into several large sections known as fascicles.
Epimysium
509
The collection of nerves that might be damaged if too much pressure is applied in the posterior region of the neck or in the upper extremity is the:
Brachial Plexus
510
The collection of nerves that might be damaged if too much pressure is applied in the posterior region of the neck or in the upper extremity is the:
Brachial Plexus
511
A client with systemic, acute gout:
Contraindicated for massage
512
If the client has an absolute contraindication, he or she should:
Not receive massage
513
The collection of nerves that innervates the upper extremity is the:
Brachial Plexus
514
Deep strokes on this muscle can cause damage to the facial nerve:
The masseter muscle
515
These veins are common sites of varicosities and require caution when working in the lower extremities:
Great and small saphenous veins
516
If a client takes insulin via injection, the practitioner should:
Avoid injection site during massage
517
Massage positions for pregnant clients in the late second trimester include:
Side-Lying and Semi declined
518
A sudden onset headache with associated neck stiffness, a fever, and possible slurred speech is:
Absolute Contraindication
519
Clients with fibromyalgia:
May experience flare-ups if techniques are too deep or muscles are overstretched
520
If a healthy pregnant client arrives for her session complaining of back pain and abdominal cramps, the practitioner should:
Refer the client to her physician immediately because a serious underlying condition may exist: massage is contraindicated
521
A structure that requires caution in the anterior triangle of the neck is the:
Carotid Artery
522
When a lymph node is enlarged because the body is fighting an infection, a practitioner should:
Avoid placing any pressure on the node
523
A condition that affects only one area of the body but allows massage to other areas is called:
a local contraindication
524
The cubital region is defined as the:
The elbow area
525
Clients taking over-the-counter medications like antalgics, or allergy medication:
May require session adaptations to ensure the massage is safe for the client
526
If a client is seeking massage for relaxation but presents with a swollen knee from a skiing accident, the practitioner would
Provide massage to appropriate areas of the body but avoid the knee and the area distal to the swelling
527
A structure that requires caution in the posterior triangle of the neck is the:
External jugular vein
528
Clients tend to be contraindicated for a massage with any condition that is in:
An acute inflammatory stage or has "flared up"
529
If arteries are blocked for too long by a massage stroke:
The delivery of oxygen distal to the blockage site is delayed
530
A structure that requires caution in the femoral triangle is/are the:
Inguinal lymph nodes
531
Chronic neuropathy is:
A local contraindication
532
A client with a sleep disorder
Is indicated for massage
533
Massage positions for pregnant clients in the first trimester include:
Supine, prone, side-lying, and semi-reclined
534
Older adult clients often:
Experience greater side effects from medications than younger clients, and may require session adaptations as a result
535
Clients with osteoarthritis in a chronic state:
Respond well to hot, moist hydrotherapy used in combination with massage
536
Rheumatoid arthritis is:
An autoimmune disorder that affects the synovial membranes of joints
537
One structure that requires caution in the popliteal region is the:
Great saphenous vein
538
Deep compression of a nerve by a massage stroke can:
Cause pain, numbness, tingling, and discomfort
539
In the upper extremity, lymph nodes require caution in the:
Axilla area and cubital fossa
540
An organ that is unprotected and requires caution when applying certain massage techniques to the back is/are the:
Kidneys
541
Clients with rheumatoid arthritis may experience flare-ups if:
Hot hydrotherapy is used during a session
542
Adaptive measures are:
The changes a therapist makes in session structure to ensure the client safety
543
A structure that requires caution in the anterior triangle of the neck is the:
Trachea
544
Massage practitioners should use caution when massaging the medial thigh of a pregnant client because:
The iliac, great saphenous, and femoral veins are more prone to develop blood clots during pregnancy
545
If you block an artery with a massage stroke in the anterior region of the client's neck, it can lead to feelings of:
discomfort loss of consciousness
546
The findings of a visual assessment should be recorded in which section of the SOAP notes?
Objective data
547
During general observations of the client, a therapist might gather information about:
General Freedom of movement
548
When massage is used as a tool to promote alteration in the physical, mental, emotional, or spiritual health of the client, it is categorized as:
Therapeutic Change
549
During general observations of the client, a therapist might gather information about:
level of sympathetic dominance
550
In a kyphotic posture, the client’s head is shifted:
Anteriorly
551
A visual observation of the client can help a practitioner rule out all of the following EXCEPT:
Injury History
552
Points on the body used to determine postural deviations that are both at the same horizontal level are called:
Bi-lateral Landmarks
553
Information obtained visually based on the client's freedom of movement, physical symmetry, breathing patterns, skin condition, level of sympathetic dominance, body language, and gestures is referred to as:
General Observations
554
Chronic diseases may have an insidious onset. What does this mean?
The onset is gradual and subtle
555
A disease or condition caused by one or more abnormalities in the genome, especially a condition that is present from birth, are referred to as:
genetic
556
Pathogens that take over a host cell, causing the cell nucleus to replicate both its own genetic material and that of the pathogen, is called a:
virus
557
What are signs?
objective indicators of disease
558
A prediction of the probable course and outcome of the disease based on the condition of the patient and the doctor's knowledge of the disease is referred to as a:
prognosis
559
What is a wound or damage to the body caused by an extreme external force?
traumatic injury
560
What is the primary purpose of diuretics (antihypertensive medications and vasodilators)?
Increase the excretion of water and electrolytes by the kidneys
561
What common side effect do clients on anticoagulant medications often experience that might affect the way you apply massage strokes?
early bruising
562
The use of lithium for depression contraindicates the use of:
scalp massage
563
Severe hypoglycemia that is associated with the presence of excessive insulin in the system and, if left untreated, may result in convulsions and progressive development of coma is called:
Insulin Shock
564
The science and study of drugs including their sources, chemistry, production, and use in treating diseases is known as:
Pharmacology
565
What is the primary purpose of antifungal medications?
Eliminate certain microorganisms or disrupt microorganism life to treat infections
566
A serious side effect of steroidal anti-inflammatories is the suppression of this system:
Immune
567
If a client experiences fatigue as a side effect of a medication, the practitioner should:
Use stimulating strokes at the end of the massage to counteract the side effect
568
Pallor or blanching is most often caused by:
Lack of circulation
569
A benign clump of fat cells is a:
lipoma
570
What region of the body does Pediculus pubis live in?
Pubic area and armpits
571
A noncontagious chronic skin disease involving the excessive production of new skin cells that pile up into isolated lesions is known as:
Psoriasis
572
A form of skin damage characterized by scrapes that penetrate the epidermis is known as a(n):
Abrasion
573
A contagious condition where tiny insects live in the seams of human clothing and suck blood from the host causing itchiness is called:
Lice
574
Changes to a preexisting mole require inspection from a physician because mole changes could signal:
Malignant Melanoma
575
A small, circumscribed elevation of the epidermis containing fluid and commonly called a blister is also known as a:
Vesicle
576
A closed capsule or sac-like structure filled with liquid, semisolid, or gaseous material that can occur within tissue and affect any area of the body is a:
Cyst
577
A very contagious bacterial infection of the skin most often occurring in children characterized by crusty lesions and blisters that seep fluid usually around the nose, mouth, inside the nostrils, or ear canals is called:
Impetigo
578
Osteoarthritis affects which type of joint?
Synovial
579
A fracture in which the skin is broken and there is an open wound down to the bone is a(n):
Compound Fracture
580
What is one possible cause of osteoporosis?
Endocrine Disease
581
A compression fracture most often occurs between:
Vertebrae
582
In Paget's disease, the body loses bone marrow mass and replaces it with:
Fibrous Tissue
583
A possible goal of working with a client who is suffering from rheumatoid arthritis would be to:
Decrease muscle tension
584
One factor that contributes to the occurrence of rheumatoid arthritis is:
Lyme disease
585
A type of bone fracture where a fragment of bone tears away from the main mass of bone as a result of physical trauma is:
Avulsion Fracture
586
What is a common area affected by rheumatoid arthritis?
Feet
587
A commonly sprained ligament in the hand is the:
Collateral Ligaments
588
The technical term for swayback is:
Hyperlordosis
589
A simple assessment that can differentiate bursitis from tendinitis is:
Resisted Range of Motion
590
Perthes disease most commonly affects which type of person?
Young boys
591
The deterioration of cartilage under the patella is known as:
Chrondomalcia
592
Which type of bone cancer most often affects middle-aged adults?
Chondrosarcoma
593
Which type of bone cancer most often affects middle-aged adults?
Sacroiliac ligaments
594
When the spine curves from side to side, instead of running straight up and down, this is known as:
Scoliosis
595
Perthes disease is a deterioration of:
The greater trochanter of the femur
596
Paget's disease is best described as:
A chronic condition where the healthy bone is replaced with fibrous connective tissue that never calcifies
597
A clinical sign of osteoarthritis is:
Cartilage damage
598
The ligament most often associated with ankle sprains is the:
Anterior talofibular ligament
599
Osteoarthritis is also known as:
Degenerative joint disease
600
What agent causes osteomyelitis?
Staphylococcus
601
What type of joints are commonly affected by osteoarthritis?
Weight-bearing
602
A bone disorder resulting in a loss of bone mass and density caused by endocrine imbalances and poor metabolism of calcium is:
Osteoporosis
603
A type of bone fracture where the skin has not been ruptured is called:
Simple Fracture
604
Ewing sarcoma begins in which cells?
Primitive cells in the bone marrow
605
The most common type of bone cancer is:
Osteosarcoma
606
A factor that contributes to the occurrence of rheumatoid arthritis is:
Streptococcus
607
These delicate collagen strands form networks that support skeletal and smooth muscle cells and nerves, and provide the framework for soft organs like the spleen:
Reticular fibers
608
A person's extremities may feel very cold and turn bluish or purple during:
The active phase of dying
609
During the active phase of dying, a person might:
Demonstrate abnormal breathing patterns including long pauses in breathing
610
Gentle, passive range of motion techniques used during end-of-life care are:
Contraindicated as too aggressive
611
Massage during end-of-life care is typically provided in:
A hospital room
612
Petrissage strokes during end-of-life care are:
Contraindicated as too aggressive
613
During the active phase of dying, a person might:
Demonstrate severe agitation, including hallucinations
614
Massage during end-of-life care is typically provided in:
A client's home
615
The first phase of approaching death is called:
The pre-active phase of dying
616
According to the Hospice Patients Alliance, there are:
Two phases of approaching death
617
Gentle and calming strokes during end-of-life care are:
indicated to calm and relax the client
618
Care provided to a person nearing death (due to natural causes or terminal illness) is:
End of Life Care
619
During the pre-active phase of dying, a person:
Demonstrates increased restlessness and confusion
620
The pre-active phase of dying:
Begins approximately 2 weeks before death
621
During the active phase of dying, a person:
May be completely unresponsive
622
Terminal illness is:
A disease that is considered ultimately incurable and likely to cause death within a short period of time
623
Holding strokes at the base of the neck during end-of-life care are:
indicated to calm and relax the client
624
During the pre-active phase of dying, a person:
Develops edema in the extremities and has difficulty healing from infections
625
If a person holds the body in a rigid and unchanging position, or if the jaw drops or is held in a sideways position, he or she is:
The active phase of dying
626
During the pre-active phase of dying, a person:
Demonstrates reduced food and liquid consumption
627
If a person is restless and changes position often, he or she is probably in the:
A pre-active phase of dying
628
If a person keeps his or her mouth open for breathing, but is unable to speak, he/she is probably in the:
The active phase of dying
629
Massage is used for end-of-life care to:
Increase relaxation, improve sleep patterns, and provide comfort
630
Masses of lymphatic tissue that are located in a ring at the back of the mouth and throat that protest against bacterial invasion are the:
Tonsils
631
A neuron carrying signals away from the central nervous system (CNS) is
Efferent
632
Meissner's corpuscles, located close to the skin's surface, detects sensations of:
Light Touch
633
Which name best describes the complex bone forming part of the nasal septum, medial wall of the orbit, ethmoidal sinuses, and the nasal conchae?
Ethmoid
634
After childhood, the thymus tissue is replaced by fat and connective tissue. This process is called:
Involution
635
Subjective data is that which comes from
The client's experience
636
Spasticity is the result of abnormal
Stretch reflexes
637
A common symptom associated with plantar fasciitis is:
Pain decreases with warm-up but increases with prolonged activity
638
One physiological change that occurs under stress is:
Blood sugar levels increase
639
A group of symptoms caused by the gradual death of brain cells best describes:
Dementia
640
A degenerative neurological disease where myelin is destroyed in the brain but not in peripheral nerves is:
Multiple sclerosis
641
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is best described as:Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is best described as:
A neurodegenerative disease of the motor neurons of the brain
642
Anorexia nervosa is one type of:
Eating disorder
643
Degeneration of an area of the brain called the basal ganglia is related to:
Parkinson's Disease
644
An epidural hematoma is an accumulation of blood between ___ and ____.
The dura mater and the skull
645
The sympathetic nervous system is associated with:
Fight or Flight
646
Epilepsy is caused by these types of disturbances in the brain:
Electrical
647
A common illness often associated with stress is:
Depression
648
One possible cause of migraine headaches is:
Changes in brain chemicals
649
Damage to the lower motor neuron of the facial nerve produces which effect?
Muscles on that side become weak and atrophic
650
The progressive neurological disease that begins with tremors and movement difficulties and ends in dementia is called:
Parkinson's disease
651
Anterior spinal cord injuries affect:
Motor function
652
Strokes are also called:
Cerebrovascular accidents
653
Secondary headaches are:
Symptoms of other diseases
654
Damage to the nerves outside the brain and spinal cord is generally referred to as:
Peripheral neuropathy
655
An embolism that has been carried to the main blood vessel from the heart to the lung is called:
A pulmonary embolism
656
A condition where bacteria in the blood (Bacteremia) creates a serious, life-threatening infection that can get worse very quickly is:
Septicemia
657
Deep vein thrombosis could lead to:
Pulmonary embolism
658
Raynaud's disease can be triggered by what?
Emotional events
659
A racing heartbeat is known as:
Tachycardia
660
A vein that is distended, enlarged, and/or twisted is called:
Varicose
661
The measured force created on the arteries when the heart rests between beats is:
Diastolic blood pressure
662
Symptoms of Raynaud's disease include:
The white and blue coloration of the fingers and/or toes
663
Symptoms related to angina pectoris occur because:
The heart muscle does not receive enough oxygen
664
The measured force of pressure created on the arteries when the heart contracts is:
Systolic blood pressure
665
Hemophilia is a lack of this in the blood:
Clotting agents
666
The total lack of oxygen in the tissues is known as:
Anoxia
667
A deep bruise or pooling of blood in body tissue is a:
Hematoma
668
Heart rhythm disorders are caused by:
Malfunctions in the heart's electrical system
669
If a client reports on a health form that she has anemia, you know that:
She has a lower-than-normal number of red blood cells
670
When the veins of the legs are raised and swollen, this is called:
Varicose Veins
671
A condition in which fatty substances form a deposit of plaque on the inner lining of arterial walls is called:
Atherosclerosis
672
What term means chest pain?
Angina pectoris
673
The delay in the normal flow of electrical impulses through the atrioventricular node (AV node) that cause the heart to beat is called:
Heart Block
674
What condition leaves a bluish tint to the skin, nails, or mucous membranes due to lack of oxygen?
Cyanosis
675
Normal blood pressure is:
Less than 120 systolic and less than 80 diastolic
676
This travels through the bloodstream and then lodges in a blood vessel:
Embolism
677
A thrombus is best described as a:
Stationary clot
678
A collection of blood outside a blood vessel is called a(n):
Hematoma
679
condition characterized by the limited supply of oxygen to an organ or tissue is:
Hypoxia
680
What do you call the squeezing chest pain when the heart does not get enough oxygen?
Angina
681
In erythroleukemia:
Large numbers of abnormal red blood cells are produced
682
Raynaud's disease is triggered by:
Changes in temperature
683
Thrombophlebitis most often occurs in:
Superficial veins of the extremities
684
In leukemia:
Faulty white blood cells are produced in bone marrow
685
Abnormal spasms in blood vessels is the primary cause of:
Raynaud's disease
686
Atherosclerosis is commonly called:
Hardening of the arteries
687
Which best describes thrombophlebitis?
A condition where a blood clot in a vein is accompanied by inflammation of the vessel wall
688
Lupus and rheumatoid arthritis are:
Autoimmune diseases
689
Angioedema is defined as:
The rapid onset of localized swelling
690
Which infection leads to AIDS?
Human immunodeficiency virus
691
A virus spread via body fluids (semen, vaginal secretions, blood, during pregnancy from mother to baby, breast milk, needle sharing, and infected blood transfusions) is:
HIV
692
A hypersensitivity disorder of the immune system where normally harmless substances are treated as if they are dangerous is:
Allergic reaction
693
The swelling from lymphedema is the result of excess fluid:
In the interstitial spaces
694
One reason that anaphylaxis is dangerous is that:
It causes swelling that interferes with breathing
695
Chronic fatigue syndrome is thought to be associated with which virus?
Epstein-Barr
696
A general term referring to a chronic inflammatory autoimmune disorder that may affect many organ systems including the skin, joints, and internal organs is:
Lupus
697
How would you explain the differences between massage and bodywork to a potential client?
Bodywork is a broad term that refers to many forms and styles of therapy, including massage
698
Carriers of this type of hepatitis may develop varicose veins on the stomach and esophagus, cirrhosis of the liver, and liver cancer:
Hepatitis B
699
A peptic ulcer can occur in any of the following areas EXCEPT:
Colon
700
Inflammation of the small intestine is called:
Enteritis
701
GERD stands for:
Gastroesophageal reflux disease
702
Inflammation of the gallbladder is called:
Cholecystitis
703
This condition can indicate liver or gallbladder dysfunction, the presence of a tumor, or the excessive breakdown of red blood cells:
Jaundice
704
A hiatal hernia is a condition in which part of the stomach protrudes through the:
Diaphragm
705
Hepatitis B is characterized by severe infections and:
Cirrhosis
706
gASTRITIS IS INFLAMMATION OF:
tHE stomach
707
What type of hepatitis is spread through contaminated food, water, or by contact with feces, and usually resolves itself within a few weeks?
Hepatitis A
708
Cystic fibrosis gives children a predisposition to:
Bacterial infection
709
Cold air, exercise, dust mites, pollutants in the air, stress and anxiety are common causes of:
Asthma
710
The name of this disease derives from the scar tissue that develops in the pancreas, one of the primary organs it affects:
Cystic fibrosis
711
This inherited disease causes the lungs and pancreas to secrete abnormally thick mucus that blocks passageways and prevents proper function:
Cystic fibrosis
712
A bacterial infection that can spread through the lymph nodes and bloodstream to any organ in the body but is most often found in the lungs is:
Tuberculosis
713
The uncontrolled cell growth in tissues of the lung most often caused by smoking produces a :
Malignant lung tumor
714
Which of the following disorders is usually the result of smoking?
emphysema
715
Another word for phlegm is:
Sputum
716
Conn's syndrome, characterized by excessive thirst, excess urination, low potassium levels, muscle weakness, high blood pressure, and over-alkaline blood, is a result of overproduction of which hormone?
Aldosterone
717
One benefit of massage therapy for someone with diabetes would be:
Decreased muscle pain
718
A common symptom of insulin shock is:
Confusion
719
Endometriosis, when it occurs in the fallopian tubes, presents a risk of:
Infertility
720
The occurrence of painful cramps during menstruation caused by hormone-like substances called prostaglandins is:
Dysmenorrhea
721
Symptoms that occur between ovulation and the onset of menstruation usually due to hormones is called:
Premenustrual Syndrome
