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BMS Exam 1 > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The rough ER makes ?

A

Integral proteins, extracellular peripheral proteins, and secretory proteins

Ex. Insulin, immunoglobins

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2
Q

Insulin is made in the rough or smooth ER?

A

Rough ER

Insulin is a secretory protein

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3
Q

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum is found in?

A

Skeletal and cardiac muscle

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4
Q

Where is calcium stored?

A

Calcium is stored in cells in a structure called the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

The sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) is a form of smooth muscle endoplasmic reticulum (ER) found in skeletal and cardiac muscle that functions as a regulator of Ca2+ storage and releases homeostasis during and after muscle contraction

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5
Q

Mitochondrial DNA ( mDNA) contains how many genes?

A
  • 37 genes

- Many code for proteins involved in oxidative phosphorylation

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6
Q

Which organelle makes target specific vesicles?

A

Golgi complex

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7
Q

Which organelle degrades proteins, nucleic acids, sugars and lipids?

A

Lysosomes

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8
Q

Where is the site of rRNA synthesis?

A

Nucleus

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9
Q

Which protein filament is made up of actin proteins?

A

Microfilaments

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10
Q

Which proteins filament assist in muscle contraction?

A

Microfilaments

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11
Q

Which protein, (actin or tubuli), is the smallest and most abundant?

A

Actin

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12
Q

Which proteins filament provide structure and shape to eukaryotic cells?

A

Microtubules

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13
Q

Tubulin proteins polymerize into long chains or filaments called ?

A

microtubules

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14
Q

Cilia and flagella, projections from the cell, are made up of?

A

microtubules

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15
Q

What are the three types of cytoskeletal elements?

A
  1. Intermediate filaments ( strength and space fillers)
  2. Microfilaments (cell movement)
  3. Microtubules ( maintain shape and are transport paths in intracellular transport)
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16
Q

T/F Do muscle cells undergo continued mitosis?

A

FALSE
Muscle cells do not undergo continued mitosis.
They are Permanent cells.

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17
Q

Labile cells are?

A

Cells that regenerate frequently ( hours to days )

Ex. Skin and GI tract

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18
Q

Cells that replicate only when needed ( years to entire life) are called?

A

Stable cells

Ex. Liver and the proximal tubules of the kidney.

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19
Q

“Irreplaceable cells” ( entire life of individual)

Ex. Brain,skeletal, and RBC

A

Permanent cells

RBC have a lifespan of 120 days? Correct. Per Dr. V, “we are programmed with a certain amount, kind of like women have a set amount of eggs when they’re born. That’s all you get.”

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20
Q

Phospholipids are made up of?

A

Glycerol heads and 2 FA tails

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21
Q

Na+-K+ pump is an example of type of CM transport?

A

Primary active transport
(3 Na+ out and 2 K+ ions in making inside MORE negative)

Because the transport process uses ATP as an energy source, it is considered an example of primary active transport.

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22
Q

Cytolysis is due to which type of tonicity?

A

Hypotonic

outside environmenti has a lower concentration of solutes relative to the cytosol –> water moves in

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23
Q

Cell shrinks due to which type of tonicity?

A

Hypertonic

outside environmenti has a higher concentration of solutes relative to the cytosol –> water moves out

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24
Q

Substrate level phosphorylation occurs in the ?

A

Cytoplasm aka the soup

non-oxidative process –> no oxygen needed

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25
Q

What three metabolic phases make up cellular respiration?

A

Glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain

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26
Q

Oxidative metabolism ( 02 needed) consist of what two processes?

A

ETC ( electron transport chaing) and the Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle)

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27
Q

Preferred use of energy?

A

Glycogen

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28
Q

Where is glycogen stored?

A

In the liver and skeletal muscles.

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29
Q

What are the 3 major substrates in metabolism?

A

Glycogen (preferrred use of energy), Fats and Protein (least preferred for energy)

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30
Q

Glycolysis has a net gain of ___ATP molecules and ____NADH molecules?

A

2 Net ATP

2 NADH gained

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31
Q

What competes with calcium, blocking binding sites of Ca2+ and leading to muscle fatigue?

A

Lactic Acid

Pyruvate——————–>Lactate/Lactic Acid
Lactic Acid Fermentation

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32
Q

Deficiency in which cellular respiration enzyme leads to “inborn errors of metabolism”?

A

Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency
(enzyme responsible for the conversation of pyruvate to acetyl Co-A)

Pyruvate ———>acteyl Co-A

(Pyruvate dehydrogenase AKA PDH occurs in the matrix once pyruvate is shuttled inside)

FYI Pyruvate carboxylase deficiency and pyruvate dehhrogenase deficiency are the MCC of pyruvate metabolism disorders

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33
Q

What are the symptoms of pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency in a new born?

A

N/V, respiratory problems, neuro delays, intellectual disability, underdeveloped corpus callosum and premature atrophy of cerebral cortex due to lactic acidosis

Sx start shortly after birth

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34
Q

One cycle of the Krebs cycle produces ___NADH, ___GTP, ____FADH2 AND ____CO2.

A

3 NADH
1 GTP
1 FADH2
2 CO2

**Cycle repeats 2x per glucose molecule!!

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35
Q

What is the final e- acceport of the ETC?

A

Oxygen (O2)

36
Q

The chemiosmotic gradient is used to?

A

Pump H+ into the inter-membrane space

37
Q

Where does glycolysis take place?

A

Cytoplasm AKA the soup

38
Q

What is the purpose of the Krebs Cycle?

A

To make electron carriers 3NAHD and 1 FADH2 which are later used in the ETC

39
Q

What organ is responsible for maintaining energy levels?

A

The liver

**Glycogenlysis (breakdown of glycogen occurs primarily in the liver )

40
Q

Two examples of Transport systems/ electron transporters are ?

A 
Glycerol phosphate
Malate aspartate (more efficient)

*many transport systems exist for cytosol and mitochondrial exchange

41
Q

What is the importance of genetics in clinic?

A
  • To know when someone is at average risk for a disease

- particular inheritance patterns may change differential ranking

42
Q

What is the purpose of Karyotype Analysis?

A

Used to look for abnormal numbers or structures of chromosomes

43
Q

Humans have __total chromosomes.

A

46 total (23 pairs)

44
Q

Humans have __ pairs of autosomes and ___ pair of sex chromosomes?

A

22 pairs of autosomes

1 sex chromosome pair (XX or XY)

45
Q

The basic physical and functional unit of heredity are called?

A

Genes

46
Q

Variant forms of a gene are called?

A

Alleles

An allele is a variant form of a given gene
Ex. Brown or blue eyes depend on different alleles coding for the gene responsible for eye color

47
Q

T/F SNPs are found more frequently in pts with dz?

A

TRUE

More frequent SNPS= risk for diseases
Ex. Cancer (uncontrolled mitosis)

48
Q

Non-protein-coding regions are called ?

A

Introns

49
Q

AUG is the ___codon.

A

Initiation codon

50
Q

This type of inheritance pattern illustrates affected pt (usually) having affected parent?

A
  • Autosomal dominnat inheritance
  • 50% chance of passing trait to child
  • trait is seen in successive generations
51
Q

When the affected pt (usually) does not have affected parent is what type of inheritance pattern?

A
  • Autosomal recessive inheritance
  • offspring of affected pt are carriers
  • 2 carrier parents have 25% chance of having affected child
52
Q

Which type of inheritance pattern affects males more?

A

X-linked Recessive Inheritance

53
Q

Inappropriate stop codon–> shortened protein product is due to _____mutation?

A

Nonsense mutation

54
Q

Formation of altered protein product is due to ____mutation?

A

Frameshift mutation

55
Q

T/F Gene level mutation is a change that affects a single nucleotide.

A

FALSE

Base line muation is a change that affects a single nucleotide.

56
Q

T/F Gene level mutation is a change that affects entire gene.

A

TRUE

57
Q

Deletion, translocation, inversion and extra copy are what level of mutation?

A

Chromosome level mutation

Change that affects a chromose

58
Q

T/F Germline mutations lead to cancer.

A

FALSE

Germline mutations can cause heriditary disease.

59
Q

T/F Somatic mutations occur in ovum or sperm.

A

FALSE

Somatic mutations occur in SINGLE CELLS. Only those cell’s progeny carry the mutation.

60
Q

T/F Somatic mutations can cause hereditary disease.

A

FALSE

Germline mutations can cause heriditary disease.

61
Q

T/F Oncogenes cause cells to transform and undergo unregulated growth.

A

TRUE

Protooncogenes is a normal gene which, when altered by mutation, becomes an oncogene that can contribute to cancer.

62
Q

T/F Type 2 DM is an example of a complex dz?

A

TRUE

Complex Dz phenotype is determined by both the environment and genotype
Ex. TYPE 2 DM in which susceptibility genes are inherited and environmental factors influcence dz onset (Eg. Obesity)

63
Q

T/F Enzymes influence the outcome of a rxn?

A

FALSE

The same reactants & produces exactly the same products. Only thing enzymes affect is the RATE.

64
Q

T/F Enzyme-catalyzed reactions display saturation kinetics.

A

TRUE

There’s an increase in reaction rate as [substrate] increases.

65
Q

What two factors affect enzyme action?

A

pH and temperature

66
Q

How do ACE inhibitors work?

A

Bind to enzymes & interfere with fxn.

Many drugs use this mechanims of action
Ex. Angiotension Converting Enzyme INHIBITOR

67
Q

T/F Enzyme inhibition is irreversible.

A

TRUE

Enzyme inhibiton can be irreversible or reversible.
Ex. Nerve gas irreversibly inhibits nerve action by forming COVALENT BONDS to the OH group of serine on the active site of the enzyme AChE.

68
Q

A ______ inhibitor competes with substrate for binding to an active site.

A

competitive inhibitor

69
Q

A ______ inhibitor binds to non-active binding site.

A

Noncompetitive inhibitor

70
Q

T/F Hexokinase has a lower Km (higher binding affinity),

A

TRUE

Hexokinase has a higher binding affinity (lower Km) and is found in abundance in the brain. The brain’s main fuel source is sugar.

***Hexokinase is the initial enzyme of glycolysis, catalyzing the phosphorylation of glucose by ATP to glucose-6-P.

71
Q

Pt has sx of a heart attack. EKG doesn’t show abnormalities. Where else would we look?

A

The blood. If injury to the heart, cardiac enzymes would be elevated.

**Cardiac enzyme studies measure the levels of enzymes and proteins that are linked with injury of the heart muscle.

72
Q

Creatine phosphokinase (CPK or CK) is specific to what tissue?

A

Striated muscle

73
Q

T/F Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is a liver specific enzyme.

A

FALSE.

It is a non-liver specific enzyme.

**Serum aminotransferase levels—ALT and AST—are two of the most useful measures of liver cell injury, although the AST is less liver specific than is ALT level. Elevations of the AST level may also be seen in acute injury to cardiac or skeletal muscle.

74
Q

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is specific to what tissue?

A

Liver

75
Q

Amylase and lipase are specific to what tissue?

A

Pancreas

**High levels of amylase may indicate: Acute pancreatitis, a sudden and severe inflammation of the pancreas.

76
Q

What is the role(s) of albumin?

A
  1. Maintains oncotic pressure in the vascular system
  2. Functions as transporters
  3. Made in the LIVER

LIVER DISEASES, such as cirrhosis, chronic hepatitis and kidney disease can all lead to HYPOALBUMINEMIA

77
Q

Enzymes require 3 things. What are they?

A
  1. Specificity
  2. Cofactor Ex. Metal ion (inorganic) or Co-enzyme (organic=contains carbon)
  3. Active site
78
Q

T/F Bacteriocins are part of our normal flora.

A

TRUE.

Bacteriocins are produed by our normal flora to kill other bacteria and protect us from disease(s).

79
Q

T/F Sterile areas consist of the: blood, CSF, synovial fluid and deep body tissues.

A

TRUE.

Isolation of bacteria from these sites are diagnostic of infection.

80
Q

What are the two types of phagocytes involved in our second line of defense?

A
  1. Neutrophils (Most abundant type of WBC)

2. Macrophages (dervied from WBC monocyte; “biggest appetite” for infectious material)

81
Q

T/F Natural Killer(NK) cells are phagocytic.

A

False.

They are NOT phagocytic or specific. They do have the ability to kill cancer cells & viruses.

82
Q

B cells come from ____ and T cells come from _____.

A

B cells- Bone marrow

T cells- Thymus gland

83
Q

T/F The Fab fragment of the Ab (immunoglobin) component is the Ag-binding site.

A

True.

Ab components: Fab fragment and Fc fragment

Fc fragment—> targets the bound Ag to a specific fate/where it’s going to take antigent to.

84
Q

IgA ___body surfaces and are found in the____.,

A

IgA protects all body surfaces and are found in the nose, lungs, holes, ears, vagina and urethra.

85
Q

IgM are considered ___ and are found in the____.,

A

IgM are considered the first responders and are found in the blood/lymph. + IgM indicates CURRENT infection vs IgG indicates previous exposure.

86
Q

IgG are considered __ and are found in the____.,

A

IgG are considered second responders and are found in all bodily fluids. Only Ab that can cross the placenta and + IgG indicates previous exposure to infection/antigen.

87
Q

What are the 5 isotypes (main Ig classes) in humans?

A 
MADGE
IgM
IgA
IgD
IgG
IgE

BMS Exam 1 (1 decks)

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