Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Plagues > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

newly emerging disease

A

disease that has never been recognized before

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

re-emerging/resurging disease

A

disease that has been around for decades or centuries but has come back in a different form or location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

anthroponoses

A

human to human spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

zoonoses

A

animal to human spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

sapronoses

A

environmental sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

infectious

A

fast transmission with shorter incubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

chronic

A

long term incubation or syndrome (often refers to non-infectious disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

epidemiology

A

study of the distribution and determinants of health related states and events in populations and the application of this study to control health problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

disease ecology

A

study of interactions between infectious agents, hosts, and their environments at the population scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

infection

A

invasion and multiplication of infectious agent inside an organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

disease

A

deviation from the normal physiological status of an organism that negatively affects its survival or reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

macroparasites

A

large, multicellular animals
parasitic or free-living agents
long generation times
chronic infections
complex life cycles (multiple host species)
multiple infections matter
disease dynamic unit: host-parasite burden

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

macroparasite direct life cycle

A

usually single host
typically not as virulent
simple parasites (single celled)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

macroparasite indirect life cycle

A

multiple hosts necessary for parasite reproduction
more virulent
complex parasites (multicellular)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

microparasites

A

small size
short generation time –> rapid evolution
infections may be transient/acute OR persistent/chronic
simple life cycles (EXCEPT malaria)
infection causes crisis in host –> immunity or death
multiple infections usually do NOT matter
disease dynamic unit:hist infection and immune status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

direct transmission

A

droplet, aerosol, sexual, fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

indirect transmission

A

fecal-oral, food borne, water borne, soil borne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

vector-borne transmission

A

usually arthropods (insects, ticks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

horizontal transmission

A

spread between members of a population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

vertical transmission

A

spread from mother to offspring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

incubation period

A

time from infection to onset/appearance of symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

latent period

A

time from infection to beginning to transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

infectious period

A

time during which individuals can transmit disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

generation time (serial interval)

A

time from infection in one host to infection in secondary host caused by first host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

incidence

A

number of new infections per unit time

26
Q

prevelance

A

percentage of population infected at particular time

27
Q

seroprevelance

A

percentage of population carrying antibodies indicative of past exposure

28
Q

compartmental model: susceptible

A

individuals who are naïve and uninfected

29
Q

compartmental model: infected

A

individuals infected (and infectious in simple models)

30
Q

compartmental model: recovered

A

removed or resistant (often considered immune for simplicity)

31
Q

R0

A

basic reproductive number
average number of secondary infections that an infected host produces in an otherwise susceptible population
R0 < 1 –> disease dies out
R0 > 1 –> disease persists

32
Q

Reff

A

effective reproductive number
average number of secondary infections that an infected host produces in a real or specified population
Reff = (R0) * (S/N)

33
Q

vaccination proportion

A

(R0 - 1) / (R0)

34
Q

Yersinia pestis

A

Alexander Yersin (1894)
Gram - coccobacillus (Enterobacteriaceae)
flea-borne zoonotic disease

35
Q

bubonic plague

A 
characterized by hemorrhaging lymph nodes (buboes)
most common (50-60% mortality if untreated)
36
Q

septicemic plague

A

characterized by bacteria in blood stream, gangrene

nearly 100% mortality if untreated

37
Q

pneumonic plague

A

droplet/aerosol transmission

least common BUT most dangerous (nearly 100% mortality if untreated)

38
Q

Justinian plague

A

6th century along Mediterranean coast
100 million died
most likely came through Egypt due to trade
ANTIQUA variant (still found in Africa and Central Asia)

39
Q

Black death

A

Europe: 1347-1351
17-28 million deaths (30-40% of population)
MEDIEVALIS variant
intermittent outbreaks for 300 years after

40
Q

Modern plague

A

China 1850s-1890s
followed shipping routes to all continents
12 million deaths in India and China
ORIENTALIS varient

41
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A 
Robert Koch (1882)
bacillus
42
Q

Koch’s postulates: first

A

microorganism/pathogen must be present in all cases of the disease

43
Q

Koch’s postulates: second

A

pathogen can be isolated from diseased host and grown in pure culture

44
Q

Koch’s postulates: third

A

pathogen from pure culture must cause the disease when inoculated in healthy, susceptible host

45
Q

Koch’s postulates: fourth

A

pathogen must be isolated from inoculated host and and shown to be the same pathogen as the original

46
Q

latent TB / TB infection

A

TB pathogen present in the body
no symptoms
person is NOT infectious
sometimes, antibiotics will be used and can prevent TB disease

47
Q

active TB / TB disease

A 
symptoms present (coughing, weight loss, loss of appetite, night sweats, fever, chest pain)
spread by coughing, sneezing, laughing, singing, talking
48
Q

Mycobacterium species

A

137 species

species described in major groups for diagnosis and treatment

49
Q

M. tuberculosis complex (MTBC)

A

causes TB

includes M. tuberculosis, bovis, africanum, microti

50
Q

M. leprae

A

causes Hansen’s disease or leprosy

51
Q

nontuberculosis mycobacteria (NTM)

A

all other mycobacterium which cause pulmonary disease, lymphadenitis, skin disease, or disseminated disease

52
Q

M. avium complex (MAC)

A

significant cause of death in AIDS patients
acquired environmentally
mainly cause disease in birds, ungulates, and swine
can spread through blood to infect lymph nodes, bone marrow, liver, spleen, spinal fluid, lungs, and GI tract
symptoms mimic MTBC symptoms
usually in patients with CD4 counts below 100
includes M. avium avium

53
Q

MDR TB

A

originally defined as resistance against 4 first-line drugs
often develops during treatment (inconsistency)
mortality rates around 80%
testing and treatment difficult to procure and apply

54
Q

DOTS

A

direct observed therapy/treatment – short course
five components
1) sustained political/financial commitment
2) diagnosis by quality insured protocols
3) ensure supportive observation (treatment consistency, follow-through)
4) equal access to medications
5) standardized recording and reporting

55
Q

XDR TB

A

meets MDR definition plus resistance to 1-2 second-line drugs
more expensive treatment (such as chemotherapy)

56
Q

smallpox early prevention

A

India around 1000 BC

blowing powdered smallpox scabs into the nose

57
Q

smallpox variolation

A

scratching material from smallpox lesions into the skin
successful –> lasting immunity
unsuccessful –> smallpox infection and continued transmission
0.5-2% mortality rate (compared to 20-30% of smallpox)

58
Q

smallpox vaccination

A 
Edward Jenner (1798) --> cowpox vaccination
later replaced with vaccinia vaccination
59
Q

smallpox virus

A

belongs to Orthopox virus group
large, brick-shaped
complex internal structure + dsDNA genome
spread by close contact via droplet infection
incubation = 10-12 days
major illness defined by abrupt fever and rash

60
Q

variola major

A

more common and more severe form of smallpox virus
more extensive rash and higher fever (30% mortality)
4 types
1) ordinary (most frequent)
2) modified (mild, occurs those previously vaccinated)
3,4) flat and hemorrhagic (rare and severe)

61
Q

variola minor

A

less common and less severe form of smallpox (1% mortality)

62
Q

poxviruses

A

cross-antigenic properties
most are host-specific
spillover to humans are truly zoonotic (cowpox, monkeypox)
vaccinia is an exception (multiple hosts, unclear origins)

Plagues (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions