Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

for any disease state

A

the patient must be stable before performing OMT

-OMT not performed with new onset of chest pain or SOB

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2
Q

facilitated segments only occur where?

A

sympathetic levels

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3
Q

treatment for temporal arteritis

A

steroids

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4
Q

muscle hypertonicity can be caused by what

A

caused by something overlying the muscle

ex. renal lithiasis or appendicitis –> hypertonic psoas –> + thomas test
ex. inflamed lymph nodes –> would make muscle they are touching hypertonic (sternocleidomastoid)

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5
Q

what is the 1st thing you do in a physical exam?

A

observation

-obtain history before physical exam

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6
Q

reversible dextro or levoscoliosis

A
  • NO sagittal component –> follows fryett I principles (neutral)
  • dextro –> convex points right, side bends, rotated right
  • levo –> convex points left, right side bending, rotated left
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7
Q

left lateral convexity

A

vertebrae side bent right

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8
Q

right lateral convexity

A

vertebrae side bent left

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9
Q

when treating a group dysfunction with OMT

A

go for the apex (middle) of the curve

-ex. dysfunction of T10-T12, go for T11

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10
Q

type 2 dysfunction usually occurs where

A

at the apex (middle) of the group curve

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11
Q

translation to the right

A

left side bending

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12
Q

translation to the left

A

right side bending

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13
Q

principle 1 of osteopathic medicine

A

-body is a unit –> ex. gastric ulcer causes thoracic tissue texture changes

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14
Q

principle 2 of osteopathic medicine

A

-body is capable of self regulation, healing, maintenance –> ex. healed fracture

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15
Q

somatosomatic reflex

A

-ex. rib dysfunction from an innominate dysfunction

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16
Q

somatovisceral reflex

A

-ex. triggering asthma attack when working on thoracic spine

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17
Q

viscerosomatic reflex

A

-ex. gallbladder disease affecting musculature

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18
Q

viscerovisceral reflex

A

-ex. MI causing vomiting

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19
Q

post ganglionic sympathetic fibers

A

lead to tissue texture changes like hypertonicity, erythema, moisture

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20
Q

dorsal horn of the spinal cord

A

where somatic and visceral afferents synapse giving viscerosomatic reflex

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21
Q

counterstrain steps of treatment

A
  • continuous monitoring
  • hold for 90 seconds
  • return patient to neutral slowly
22
Q

chapman reflex points also called what?

A

ganglioform nodules or tissue

23
Q

chapman - sinuses

A
  • anterior –> upper edge of 2nd rib

- posterior –> C2

24
Q

chapman - pharynx

A
  • anterior –> 1st ribs beneath the clavicle

- posterior –> C2

25
Q

chapman - larynx

A
  • anterior –> 2nd ribs lateral to sternocostal junction

- posterior –> C2

26
Q

chapman - tonsils

A
  • anterior –> b/w 1st and 2nd ribs next to sternum

- posterior –> midway b/w spinous process (post. tubercle) and transverse process

27
Q

chapman - middle ear

A
  • anterior –> superior/anterior aspect of clavicles

- posterior –> TPs of C1

28
Q

chapman - eye (retina/conjuctiva)

A
  • anterior –> anterior aspect of humerus at surgical neck

- posterior –> occipital bone below superior nuchal line

29
Q

what are the parasympathetic cranial nerves?

A

CN 3,7,9,10

30
Q

CN 3 oculomotor nerve ganglion

A

celiary ganglion

31
Q

CN 9 glossopharyngeal nerve ganglion

A

otic ganglion –> exits through jugular foramen

32
Q

CN 7 facial nerve ganglion

A
  1. pterygopalatine ganglion –> exit through stylomastoid foramen
  2. submandibular ganglion
33
Q

CN 5 trigeminal nerve ganglion

A

all 4 of the previous ganglion discussed

34
Q

what can cause dry mouth (xerostomia)

A
  1. CN7 –> lacrimal, sublingual, submandibular glands

2. CN9 –> parotid glands

35
Q

what do you do before any lymphatic treatment?

A

clear/treat/open the thoracic inlet/outlet

-found in supraclavicular space and on 1st rib

36
Q

venous drainage of the head

A
  • via internal jugular veins
  • pass through jugular foramina along occipitomastoid suture b/w occipital and temporal bones –> altered motion or compression may impair flow through foramina leading to head congestion
37
Q

myofascial release to pterygoid fascia

A

used to treat maxillary sinusitis by stimulating parasympathetic supply to nasal mucosa (CN7)

38
Q

Galbreath technique

A
  • mandibular drainage
  • used to treat otitis media, fluid in middle ear, and eustachian tube somatic dysfunction
  • pulling traction on the mandible to decongest the fluid in the middle ear
39
Q

CN 3,4,6 entrapment**

A
  • pass under petrosphenoidal ligament (formed by tentorum cerebelli) and can get trapped** –> blurred vision, diplopia, nystagmus, headache
  • CN6 (innervate lateral rectus) –> closest to dura and most likely affected –> medial strabismus

-DM, aneurysm, and SD most common cause of EOM

40
Q

CN 1 impingement

A

Anosmia

Cribiform plate through ethmoid bone

41
Q

CN 5 impingement

A

Trigeminal Neuralgia/Tic Deloureaux

May complain of sudden, severe facial, ear, and/or jaw pain

42
Q

CN 7 impingement

A

Exits stylomastoid foramen

Bell’s Palsy

43
Q

CN 8 impingement

A

Labyrinthitis, Tinnitus, Vertigo ** Temporal bone is associated with tinnitus, labrynthitis, vertigo

44
Q

CN 10 impingement

A

Exits jugular foramen

Can cause Nausea/Vomiting

45
Q

CN 12 impingement

A

Hypoglossal canal

Can cause nursing/latching problems in infants

46
Q

tension headaches

A

Bilateral pressure

No aura, nausea

47
Q

migraine headaches

A

Unilateral
Triggers
May have aura, nausea/vomiting, photophobia/phonophobia

48
Q

cluster headaches

A

Unilateral

Severe

49
Q

what refers pain lateral and behind the eye?

A

sternocleidomastoid muscle**

50
Q

what refers pain to the vertex of the head?

A

splenius capitus**

51
Q

one gait cycle

A

heel contact of one foot to heel contact again with the SAME foot

52
Q

what compensates for lumbar curve?

A

tight iliopsoas CONTRALATERAL to short leg side